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ANAESTESIOLOGY MCQ ACTUAL EXAM WITH (500 QUESTIONS WITH 100% PRECISE ANSWERS)2024 LATEST U, Exams of Nursing

test topics such as anesthesia techniques, pharmacology, patient monitoring, pain management, perioperative care, airway management, and anesthesia-related complications.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 06/07/2024

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Download ANAESTESIOLOGY MCQ ACTUAL EXAM WITH (500 QUESTIONS WITH 100% PRECISE ANSWERS)2024 LATEST U and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 ANAESTESIOLOGY MCQ ACTUAL EXAM WITH (500 QUESTIONS WITH 100% PRECISE ANSWERS)2024 LATEST UPDATED GRADED 100% PASS. 1. Local anesthesia is associated with which effect? - Precise answer d. Loss of sensation. 2. The basic structural unit of the nervous system is the - Precise answer a. neuron. 3. Efferent nerve cells are distinguished by which characteristic? - Precise answer c. The cell body lies directly between the axon and the dendrites. 4. Which cellular component is critical to nerve conduction? - Precise answer c. Axolemma. 5. As it travels along a nerve fiber, the strength of an impulse - Precise answer a. remains constant. 6. The firing threshold of nerve excitation is characterized by - Precise answer b. rapid depolarization. 7. Local anesthetics produce which effect on the nerve membrane? - Precise answer b. More sodium is required to achieve depolarization. The combined depolarization and repolarization of a nerve membrane takes - Precise answer c. 1 msec. Which statement is true? - Precise answer a. Nerve membrane channels expand momentarily during depolarization. Which prevents retrograde (backward) impulse propagation? - Precise answer b. Refractory period. A neural impulse travels - Precise answer a. rapidly in myelinated nerves. In order to inhibit impulse transmission in a myelinated nerve, the anesthetic solution must cover how many millimeters of nerve fiber? - Precise answer d. 8-10. Which phase of the action potential is most profoundly affected by local anesthesia? - Precise answer c. Slow depolarization. Which theory is most widely accepted to explain the mechanism of action of local anesthesia? - Precise answer b. Specific receptor. 2 Most injectable dental anesthetics bind to receptor sites at which location? - Precise answer c. Within the sodium channel. Which is the first step of anesthetic action? - Precise answer c. Displacement of calcium ions from the sodium channel. Which is true with regard to the pH of local anesthetics? - Precise answer a. Epinephrine- containing anesthetic solutions are acidic. Which anesthetic solution facilitates the most comfortable and effective injection? - Precise answer d. 4% articaine HCl/epinephrine/buffer with a pH 7.35. In the presence of tissue inflammation or infection, local anesthesia is - Precise answer c. more difficult to achieve. Which is the primary diffusion barrier in a peripheral nerve? - Precise answer b. Perilemma. Each is true with respect to mantle bundles, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer d. Innervate the most distal tissues of a nerve distribution. Induction time spans from - Precise answer b. injection of anesthetic solution to conduction blockade. Which factor is linked to the potency of a local anesthetic? - Precise answer a. Lipid solubility. Which statement is true with regard to recovery from local anesthesia? - Precise answer d. Mantle bundle fibers begin to gain sensation before the core bundles. Which reduces the duration of anesthesia? - Precise answer a. Tachyphylaxis. Local anesthetics must enter the bloodstream to elicit a pharmacologic effect. Once in the bloodstream, anesthetic drugs are transported to every part of the body. - Precise answer d. The first statement is false; the second is true. Which local anesthetic is the strongest vasodilator? - Precise answer a. Procaine. Which route of anesthetic administration is LEAST likely to facilitate an overdose? - Precise answer d. Subcutaneous. Which tissue absorbs the largest percentage of local anesthetic from the bloodstream? - Precise answer d. Skeletal muscle. The half-life of a local anesthetic is the rate at which the drug is - Precise answer c. removed from the bloodstream. 5 A local anesthetic that contains epinephrine has - Precise answer a shorter shelf life than one that does not contain epinephrine. Epinephrine decreases which cardiovascular dynamic? - Precise answer Cardiac efficiency. Which adrenergic receptor dominates the mucous membrane blood vessels? - Precise answer Alpha (α). When epinephrine is used in dental surgery, postsurgical bleeding usually occurs after - Precise answer 6 hours. Which describes the principal way epinephrine is eliminated from the system? - Precise answer Reabsorbed by adrenergic nerves. The maximum dose of epinephrine (1 : 100,000) for a normal healthy patient is - Precise answer 11 cartridges. Compared with epinephrine, norepinephrine is - Precise answer one fourth as potent. Levonordefrin is available in which dental anesthetic? - Precise answer Mepivacaine. Which vasoconstrictor is the weakest? - Precise answer Phenylephrine. Which statement is correct? - Precise answer Felypressin directly stimulates vascular smooth muscle. Which occurs when a vasoconstrictor is added to most local anesthetics? - Precise answer The duration of pulpal anesthesia is prolonged. Which vasoconstrictor is used routinely for dental surgery hemostasis? - Precise answer Epinephrine. Different individual responses to a drug are - Precise answer common. Which local anesthetic exhibits the longest duration of action? - Precise answer Bupivacaine. A short-acting local anesthetic provides pulpal anesthesia for approximately - Precise answer 30 minutes. Which is an absolute contraindication for local anesthetic use? - Precise answer Local anesthetic allergy. Upon administration of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:100,000, a hyperresponder is likely to experience approximately how many minutes of pulpal anesthesia? - Precise answer 80. 6 Which action is advised when a relative contraindication for a local anesthetic is discovered? - Precise answer Use an alternative drug that is not contraindicated. Which factor increases the duration of anesthesia? - Precise answer Nonvascular tissue. The duration of anesthesia is decreased when less than the recommended dose of anesthetic is administered. However, excessive amounts will not increase the duration of anesthesia. - Precise answer Both statements are true. Which dose of local anesthetic should be administered to each patient? - Precise answer Smallest clinically effective dose. Smaller doses of anesthetic are NOT required for which patient? - Precise answer Obese middle-aged adult. Which cartridge volume should be used to calculate the maximum recommended dose (MRD) of a local anesthetic? - Precise answer 1.8 mL. Which is the most likely cause of inadequate local anesthesia? - Precise answer Faulty technique. Which statement is true? - Precise answer Procaine provides no pulpal anesthesia. The use of norepinephrine in dental anesthesia is associated with - Precise answer prolonged ischemia and tissue necrosis. Which local anesthetic is most likely to elicit a true allergic reaction? - Precise answer Procaine. The most widely used local anesthetic in the world today is - Precise answer lidocaine. Which best describes the vasodilation induced by mepivacaine? - Precise answer Mild. Prilocaine undergoes biotransformation in each place, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Plasma. Which nerve is usually affected when paresthesia is linked to articaine administration? - Precise answer Lingual. Which local anesthetic is used to manage postoperative pain? - Precise answer Bupivacaine. Topical anesthetics - Precise answer are effective within 2-3 mm of the application site. Which benzocaine formulation is NOT recommended for intraoral use? - Precise answer Aerosol. 7 The duration of topical anesthesia induced by dyclonine hydrochloride is - Precise answer as long as 60 minutes. Eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) is a combination of which two drugs? - Precise answer Lidocaine and prilocaine. Phentolamine mesylate (Oraverse) serves which purpose? - Precise answer Reverses soft tissue anesthesia. The American Dental Association (ADA) has established each criterion for the dental syringe, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Nonaspirating. Which type of syringe is used most frequently in dentistry? - Precise answer Breech-loading, metallic, cartridge-type, aspirating. A reusable plastic aspirating syringe provides which advantage over a similar metal syringe? - Precise answer Low cost. Compared to harpoon-aspirating syringes, self-aspirating syringes provide - Precise answer an equally reliable aspiration. Each, EXCEPT one, is an advantage of the pressure syringe. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Facilitates rapid injection of anesthetic solution. The primary purpose of the jet injector is to provide - Precise answer topical anesthesia before the insertion of a needle. Which statement is correct? - Precise answer Plastic disposable syringes do not accept dental cartridges. At the completion of an injection, a safety syringe is - Precise answer discarded in a sharps container. Compared with the standard manual syringe, computer-controlled local anesthetic delivery is - Precise answer much less painful. The STA (Single Tooth Anesthesia) System presents a unique approach to which injection? - Precise answer Periodontal ligament (PDL). The STA Wand handpiece is durably designed for multiple-use sterilization, and can be adjusted to various lengths for versatility. - Precise answer The first statement is false; the second is true. The Comfort Control Syringe (CCS) - Precise answer costs less than other computer-controlled local anesthetic delivery systems (C-CLADs). 10 In dentistry, the anesthetic cartridge is commonly called a/an - Precise answer carpule. Plastic cartridges retain which feature? - Precise answer Shorter shelf-life. The syringe harpoon engages with which cartridge component? - Precise answer Stopper. Current-day cartridge stoppers are treated with - Precise answer silicone. Which dental cartridge is safe for use? - Precise answer Stopper is slightly indented from the lip of the glass cylinder. The needle penetrates the cartridge through the - Precise answer diaphragm. The cartridge label does NOT - Precise answer wrap around the neck of the cartridge to hold the diaphragm in place. A red color-coded band identifies what anesthetic drug, according to the American Dental Association Council on Scientific Affairs? - Precise answer Lidocaine HCl 2% with epinephrine 1 : 100,000. Administering local anesthetic via a glass cartridge may - Precise answer increase the risk of allergic reaction in patients with latex allergy. The volume of an anesthetic cartridge is composed primarily of which? - Precise answer Sterile water. Which is NOT found in single-use dental cartridges? - Precise answer Methylparaben. How much anesthetic drug is contained in a 1.8 mL cartridge of lidocaine HCl 2%? - Precise answer 36 mg. The dental cartridge should be sterilized before use. Local anesthetic drugs remain stable when autoclaved or boiled. - Precise answer The first statement is false; the second is true. Compared with vasopressor-containing anesthetics, plain local anesthetics - Precise answer are less painful. Administration of an old or expired dental cartridge is linked to which? - Precise answer Burning. Each blister pack typically contains how many dental cartridges? - Precise answer 10. Which is the BEST place to store anesthetic cartridges? - Precise answer Drawer or cupboard. Cartridge warmers are - Precise answer problematic. 11 A large bubble in the anesthetic cartridge is caused by - Precise answer freezing the cartridge. Which anesthetic solution does NOT produce an intense burning sensation on injection? - Precise answer Plain. In modern dentistry, a sticky stopper occurs - Precise answer rarely. A dental cartridge with a corroded aluminum cap has been - Precise answer immersed in cold sterile. Which action is recommended when rust is discovered on an anesthetic cartridge? - Precise answer Dispose of the cartridge; do not use. Which is the most common cause of cartridge breakage? - Precise answer Using a cartridge that was damaged in shipment. Which statement is true? - Precise answer Anesthetic leakage occurs more frequently with plastic cartridges. Topical antiseptic - Precise answer reduces the bacterial population at the injection site. Topical antiseptic is applied for which length of time? - Precise answer 15-30 seconds. Which allergy is a relevant topical antiseptic precaution? - Precise answer Iodine. Applying topical antiseptic before an intraoral injection is an optional step. In fact, most dentists do not use topical antiseptics to prepare the injection site. - Precise answer Both statements are true. Applying a topical anesthetic for 2-3 minutes produces - Precise answer profound soft tissue analgesia. Which statement is true? - Precise answer Allergic reactions to benzocaine are usually limited to the application site. Which topical anesthetic is most dangerous? - Precise answer Spray. Applicator sticks are - Precise answer long wooden sticks with a cotton swab at one end. In addition to applying topical anesthetic, applicator sticks are also used to - Precise answer compress palatal tissue. Compared with topical antiseptic, sterile cotton gauze prepares the injection site - Precise answer less effectively. 12 Drying the mucous membrane assists which effort? - Precise answer Improving visibility. Which size of cotton gauze is recommended for tissue retraction? - Precise answer 2 inch. A long strand of dental floss is tied around the cotton gauze before leaving it in the mouth, because dry cotton gauze makes the tissues easier to grasp. - Precise answer Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related. The hemostat is used primarily for which complication? - Precise answer Broken needle. Each is an essential component of the local anesthetic armamentarium, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Hemostat. Dental antiseptics should NOT contain which ingredient? - Precise answer Alcohol. Regular use of topical antiseptic practically eliminates - Precise answer postinjection infections. Which quantity of topical anesthetic gel is needed for maximum results? - Precise answer Minimal. Which topical anesthetic factor controls the depth of soft tissue analgesia? - Precise answer Duration. Which amide is safe for oral topical administration? - Precise answer Lidocaine. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) is a blend of which two anesthetics? - Precise answer Lidocaine and prilocaine. Which taste is associated with EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics)? - Precise answer Bitter. Xylocaine spray delivers which metered dose? - Precise answer 10 mg. Which is recommended to keep an anesthetic spray nozzle sterile? - Precise answer Use a new disposable applicator nozzle with each patient. 4 inch cotton gauze squares are best used to - Precise answer stop intraoral bleeding. Which is the final step of preparing a breech-loaded metallic syringe? - Precise answer Remove the needle cap. With a breech-loading syringe, insert - Precise answer the stopper end of the cartridge first. Which technique is recommended to engage the harpoon? - Precise answer Hold the syringe as if injecting. 15 Each, EXCEPT one, may indicate possible heart failure. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Persistent cough. Which injection technique should be avoided in patients with a reported bleeding disorder? - Precise answer Inferior alveolar. Which treatment modification is specific to sinus problems? - Precise answer Forego the use of a rubber dam. Dysphagia is - Precise answer the inability to swallow. The most common medical emergency encountered in dentistry is - Precise answer vasodepressor syncope. Epileptic patients whose seizures occur infrequently are classified as - Precise answer ASA 2. Polydipsia and polyuria are indicators of which systemic disease? - Precise answer Diabetes mellitus. Following a myocardial infarction, elective dental treatment should be postponed for - Precise answer 6 months. Heart murmurs are a very rare occurrence, today. However, all detectable murmurs are clini- cally significant. - Precise answer Both statements are false. A history of drug addiction may increase the likelihood of which? - Precise answer Hepatic dysfunction. Which local anesthetic can induce methemoglobinemia? - Precise answer Prilocaine. Which is an absolute contraindication to the administration of local anesthetics? - Precise answer Anesthetic allergy. Dental treatment should be postponed if the patient has recently used which drug? - Precise answer Cocaine. Elective dental care is contraindicated for which ASA classification? - Precise answer 4 Which patient should be weighed, before receiving local anesthetic? - Precise answer Pediatric. Which is the most sensitive area of the mouth to receive local anesthetic? - Precise answer Hard Palate. To enhance patient comfort, a new disposable stainless steel needle is used - Precise answer after every three or four tissue penetrations. 16 Which is symptomatic of a barbed needle? - Precise answer Atraumatic needle insertion; traumatic needle withdrawal. Which needle gauge is associated with increased pain on initial insertion? - Precise answer 23. Following syringe assembly, how much anesthetic solution is expelled to confirm free flow? - Precise answer A few drops. Injecting overly warm local anesthetic elicits pain; however, warming the anesthetic cartridge to body temperature reduces the discomfort of injection. - Precise answer The first statement is true; the second is false. Before administering local anesthesia, the patient is placed in which position? - Precise answer Supine. Topical antiseptic is applied immediately - Precise answer after drying the tissue. For optimal surface anesthesia, topical anesthetic should remain at the penetration site for - Precise answer 2 minutes. Which represents the best patient communication? - Precise answer "This topical anesthetic will make the rest of the procedure more comfortable." The purpose of establishing a firm hand rest is to - Precise answer stabilize and control the anesthetic syringe. Which hand rest is NOT recommended for the delivery of local anesthesia? - Precise answer Arm. Which hand position provides the most stable administration of local anesthesia? - Precise answer Palm up with ring finger resting on the syringe barrel and pinky finger stacked. Tissues at the site of needle penetration should be - Precise answer stretched taut. As a general rule, the bevel of the needle should be positioned - Precise answer toward the bone. Which is linked to the use of a buffered local anesthetic? - Precise answer Increased comfort during the deposition of local anesthetic. As the needle passes between the surface mucosa and the mucoperiosteum, pain is a - Precise answer rare occurrence. The amount of anesthetic solution used to reach the deposition site must not exceed - Precise answer one eighth of a cartridge. 17 Aspiration is crucial at which point? - Precise answer Before depositing the anesthetic solution at the target site. Anesthetizing the periosteum is necessary in each nerve block, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Posterior superior alveolar. A positive aspiration is identified by which? - Precise answer Blood within the cartridge. Which is the optimal rate of delivery for 1.8 mL of local anesthetic? - Precise answer 2 minutes. Most adverse reactions to the administration of local anesthesia occur - Precise answer within 5- 10 minutes of its completion. Which represents a complete and correct entry in the patient's chart? - Precise answer L-IANB, 25-short, 2% lido (36 mg) +1/100,000 epi (.018 mg or 18 mcg). Tolerated well. How many aspirations are performed, before depositing a larger volume of anesthetic? - Precise answer Two. Managing dental pain requires a sound understanding of which cranial nerve? - Precise answer V. Which statement is true? - Precise answer The motor root of the trigeminal nerve innervates the muscles of mastication. The motor root the trigeminal nerve exits the cranium through which foramen? - Precise answer Ovale. Each, EXCEPT one, is a division of the ophthalmic (V1) nerve. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Zygomatic. The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (V2) is - Precise answer purely sensory. The maxillary (V2) nerve innervates the skin in which area? - Precise answer Upper lip. The maxillary nerve (V2) exits the cranium through which foramen? - Precise answer Rotundum. Which branch of the maxillary nerve does NOT originate within the pterygopalatine fossa? - Precise answer Middle meningeal. The nasopalatine nerve emerges in the oral cavity through which foramen? - Precise answer Incisive. The nasopalatine injection blocks sensation to which tissues? - Precise answer Bilateral palatal mucosa and bone from canine to canine. 20 The greater palatine foramen is usually located - Precise answer distal to the maxillary second molar. The deposition site of the greater palatine nerve block is attained when - Precise answer the needle comes in contact with the palatine bone. Which amount of local anesthetic is deposited for a greater palatine nerve block? - Precise answer One third of a cartridge. Which sequence of injections leads to an atraumatic nasopalatine nerve block? - Precise answer Labial frenum, interproximal papilla, incisive papilla. Resistance to the palatal deposition of anesthetic solution is - Precise answer normal. An infection may trail a nasopalatine nerve block, in which scenario? - Precise answer The needle is inadvertently advanced into the incisive canal. Following the nasopalatine nerve block, dental treatment can begin within - Precise answer 2-3 minutes. Which is recommended for the anterior middle superior alveolar (AMSA) nerve block? - Precise answer Computer-Controlled Local Anesthetic Delivery (C-CLAD). Profound maxillary anesthesia is more difficult to achieve than profound mandibular anesthesia, because the maxillary cortical plate is rather thin. - Precise answer The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct. The success rate of mandibular anesthesia is NOT attributed to which factor? - Precise answer Need for multiple needle insertions. Which mandibular nerve block is most likely to succeed? - Precise answer Buccal. The Vazirani-Akinosi nerve block is uniquely helpful in which scenario? - Precise answer The patient is unable to open her mouth more than a few millimeters. Which supplemental technique is used to rectify partial anesthesia of a lower incisor, fol- lowing the administration of an otherwise successful inferior alveolar nerve block? - Precise answer Supraperiosteal injection. The inferior alveolar nerve block - Precise answer has the highest incidence of positive aspiration. A right-handed operator sits in which position to administer a left inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB)? - Precise answer 10 o'clock. 21 In most patients, the height of the inferior alveolar injection lies - Precise answer 6-10 mm above the occlusal plane. How much of the needle is visible during the deposition of the IANB? - Precise answer One third. Which amount of anesthetic is deposited at the inferior alveolar nerve? - Precise answer 1.5 mL. Facial paralysis may develop in connection with the IANB if - Precise answer anesthetic is deposited without bony contact. Which complication is extremely common, after the dissipation of the IANB? - Precise answer Mild trismus. Anesthesia of the buccal nerve is contraindicated for which procedure? - Precise answer Restoring a carious cavitation in the second mandibular molar. The penetration site of the buccal nerve block is - Precise answer distal and buccal to the last molar. Bone is gently contacted in each injection, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Vazirani-Akinosi mandibular nerve block. The bevel of the needle in the buccal nerve block is positioned toward the - Precise answer bone. Which disadvantage is attributed to the Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block? - Precise answer Hesitancy on the part of the operator to learn the technique. The onset of anesthesia, following a Gow-Gates mandibular block, is anticipated within - Precise answer 5 minutes. Which needle is recommended for a Vazirani-Akinosi mandibular nerve block? - Precise answer 25-gauge long. Which intraoral landmark guides the Gow-Gates mandibular block? - Precise answer Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary second molar. After administering the Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block (GGMNB) - Precise answer ask the patient keep his or her mouth open for 1-2 minutes. In the Vazirani-Akinosi technique, the bevel of the needle is positioned away from the - Precise answer bone, toward the midline. To correctly administer the mental nerve block, the patient's mouth is which? - Precise answer Partially closed. 22 The incisive nerve block does NOT anesthetize which tooth? - Precise answer Molar. Which facilitates a successful incisive nerve block? - Precise answer The operator must apply gentle finger pressure over the injection site. Each is deposited into cancellous bone, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Intrapulpal injection. The periodontal ligament injection with a traditional syringe is contraindicated in which case? - Precise answer One or two primary teeth in a quadrant require anesthesia. Which is the most common periodontal ligament (PDL) postinjection complication? - Precise answer Mild discomfort and sensitivity to biting and percussion. Pressure syringes are highly recommended for the routine administration of the periodontal ligament injection. A conventional syringe is used only when the operator is unable to achieve adequate anesthesia with a pressure syringe. - Precise answer Both statements are false. Profound pulpal and soft tissue anesthesia occurs within - Precise answer 30 seconds of the PDL injection. Which amount of anesthetic is required to anesthetize a bi-rooted mandibular molar with PDL injections? - Precise answer 0.4 mL. Which indicates the success of a PDL injection? - Precise answer The tissues around the injection site are ischemic. When the needle tip of the STA computer-controlled local anesthetic delivery (C-CLAD) system reaches the optimal position for a PDL injection, which indicator light is lit? - Precise answer Green. Which device provides the most safe, predictable, and comfortable PDL injection? - Precise answer STA system with dynamic pressure-sensing (DPA) technology. The likelihood of positive aspiration during intraseptal injection is - Precise answer 0% The needle is inserted in which area, for an intraseptal injection? - Precise answer 2 mm below the tip of the papillary triangle. Which defines the correct deposition of the intraseptal injection? - Precise answer Deposit 0.2 to 0.4 mL of local anesthetic in not less than 20s At the site of intraseptal deposition, the tip of the needle is located - Precise answer 1-2 mm within the interdental septum. 25 Each dental specialty requires prolonged local anesthesia, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Orthodontics. Which statement is correct? - Precise answer Bupivacaine provides 8 hours of mandibular postoperative analgesia. To manage pain after dental surgery, opioid analgesics are - Precise answer not very effective. Which drug is administered preoperatively to lessen postoperative pain? - Precise answer Ibuprofen. Needle breakage occurs most frequently during which nerve block? - Precise answer Inferior alveolar. Needle breakage always occurs - Precise answer at the hub. Paresthesia is best defined as - Precise answer persistent anesthesia. Which is least likely to elicit paresthesia? - Precise answer Administration of bupivacaine HCl. Most paresthesias resolve without treatment within - Precise answer 2 months. Transient facial paralysis is associated with which injection? - Precise answer Inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB). Transient facial paralysis results when which cranial nerve is anesthetized? - Precise answer VII. A prolonged jaw muscle spasm, which restricts the opening of the mouth, is called - Precise answer trismus. When initial attempts to abate trismus fail, which element is added to the treatment? - Precise answer Antibiotics. The possibility that an infection will develop from a self-inflicted soft tissue injury is - Precise answer remote. A hematoma rarely develops following which injection? - Precise answer Nasopalatine. The swelling and discoloration of a hematoma gradually resolves within - Precise answer 7-14 days. Which needle-induced hematoma is only visible within the mouth? - Precise answer Buccal. Which therapy is NOT recommended, for at least 4-6 hours after a hematoma develops? - Precise answer Heat. 26 Which increases pain on injection? - Precise answer Rapid deposition. The ideal rate of injection to inject local anesthetic is - Precise answer 1 mL/min. Which statement is true? - Precise answer The needle is always contaminated when it touches the oral mucous membrane. The presence of a low-grade postinjection infection is realized when - Precise answer treatment for trismus is ineffective. Which antibiotic is prescribed for the treatment of postinjection infection? - Precise answer Penicillin V. Each of these produces edema EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Prolonged application of topical anesthetic. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of brawny nonpitting edema? - Precise answer Hereditary angioedema. Which describes the recommended treatment for a sterile abscess? - Precise answer No formal management is indicated. To prevent epithelial desquamation, topical anesthetics are applied for a maximum of - Precise answer 1-2 minutes. Herpes simplex - Precise answer usually develops on immovable tissue. Which should NOT be used to soothe painful postanesthetic intraoral lesions? - Precise answer Orabase with Kenalog. Which term is currently used to describe the undesirable actions of a drug? - Precise answer Adverse drug reaction. Which is consistent with a drug overdose reaction? - Precise answer The blood level of the drug determines the severity of the reaction. Which term defines an abnormal, unexpected drug reaction? - Precise answer Idiosyncrasy. Which factor is believed to influence all idiosyncratic drug reactions? - Precise answer Genetics. Overdose accounts for which proportion of all true adverse drug reactions? - Precise answer 99% Which patient is predisposed to local anesthetic overdose? - Precise answer Toddler. 27 Which medication competes with lidocaine for hepatic oxidative enzymes? - Precise answer Cimetidine. Women are more prone to local anesthetic overdose during - Precise answer pregnancy. Each increases the risk of anesthetic overdose, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Apprehension-induced stress. The administrator has the least amount of control over which anesthetic factor? - Precise answer Injection site vascularity. Atypical pseudocholinesterase presents - Precise answer a relative contraindication for the administration of ester local anesthetics. Which patient factor does NOT affect the maximum recommended dose of local anesthetic? - Precise answer Psychological attitude. Which is the most common cause of local anesthetic overdose? - Precise answer Excessive total dose. Vasoconstrictors reduce systemic toxicity of local anesthetics; however, vasoconstrictors should be included in the local anesthetic solution only when deemed absolutely necessary. - Precise answer The first statement is true; the second is false. Which is the most important factor in preventing adverse drug reactions? - Precise answer Rate of injection. How many cartridges are needed to anesthetize the entire primary dentition? - Precise answer 2. Which indicates high overdose levels of local anesthetic? - Precise answer Tonic-clonic seizure. Overdose signs and symptoms after a rapid intravascular injection appear within - Precise answer seconds. Basic emergency management progresses through which sequence? - Precise answer Position, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Definitive Care (P A B C D). Which drug is indicated for the management of a mild overdose reaction? - Precise answer Oxygen. Which statement is true? - Precise answer Cross-allergenicity does not occur with amide local anesthetics. Which is the primary method of assessing a local anesthetic allergy? - Precise answer Intracutaneous test. 30 Phentolamine mesylate is - Precise answer available under the proprietary name OraVerse. In clinical trials, phentolamine mesylate produced which effect? - Precise answer Significant reduction in the time needed to recover normal soft tissue sensation. Phentolamine reversal is indicated in each case, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - Precise answer Surgical periodontics. The recommended dose of phentolamine mesylate is based on the - Precise answer number of epinephrine-containing anesthetic cartridges administered. When 3 cartridges of vasopressor-containing local anesthetic are administered, the maximum recommended dose of phentolamine mesylate is - Precise answer 2 cartridges. The traditional approach to mandibular anesthesia is which? - Precise answer Halsted mandibular block. Which benefit is NOT associated with mandibular infiltration? - Precise answer Reduces the total anesthetic dosage. Which anesthetic is most effective for mandibular infiltration? - Precise answer Articaine 4% with epinephrine. Which amount of anesthetic is recommended for local infiltration of a mandibular molar? - Precise answer 1.8 mL. Which vasoconstrictor enhances the effectiveness of intranasal dental anesthesia? - Precise answer Oxymetazoline. Which term describes the extreme and irrational fear of procedures involving injection? - Precise answer Trypanophobia. Which injection technique evolved with the introduction of computer-controlled local anesthetic delivery (C-CLAD)? - Precise answer Anterior middle superior alveolar nerve block. Which C-CLAD innovation eliminates needle deflection during deep tissue penetration? - Precise answer Bi-rotational insertion technique (BRIT). The P-ASA nerve block anesthetizes - Precise answer bilateral maxillary incisors. Which benefit is NOT attributed to DPS technology? - Precise answer Improves tactile control. The Single Tooth Anesthesia (STA) system - Precise answer provides real-time feedback. 31 The majority of clinical trials for C-CLAD instruments focus on which population? - Precise answer Pediatric. Performing a PDL injection with the STA-System is contraindicated in primary teeth, because precisely regulated, low-pressure anesthetic delivery damages the underlying devel- oping tooth buds. - Precise answer Both statements are false. Compared with traditional local anesthetic injections, C-CLAD injections are - Precise answer more comfortable for the patient. In the dental field, C-CLAD systems are - Precise answer rapidly growing in popularity.