ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS FOR A RESULTS, Exams of Nursing

Download ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS FOR A RESULTS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS FOR A RESULTS 1. The term physiology best describes the study of: a. growth and reproduction of bacteria b. living organisms and how their components function c. the structure of an organism d. the microscopic flora and fauna of the body 2. Homeostasis may be defined as the physiological process by which: a. the composition of the internal environment is kept stable, within limits b. concentrations of hormones in the blood fluctuate erratically c. metabolizing cells secrete carbon dioxide d. body cells adjust to radical changes in the composition of the extracellular environment. 3. The lower the pH of a substance the higher the concentration of: a. sodium ions b. potassium ions c. hydrogen ions d. calcium ions 4. The name of the bond that forms when one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron is: a. a polar covalent bond b. an ionic bond c. a covalent bond d. a hydrogen bond 5. Glucose belongs to a category of carbohydrates referred to as the: a. disaccharides b. polysaccharides c. monosaccharides d. glycolipids 6. Carbohydrates proteins and lipids are synthesized from basic building blocks by: a. the addition of a water molecule-between each basic unit b. the addition of a carbon atom c. the removal of a molecule of water between the basic units d. the removal of an oxygen atom 7. If you wanted to separate the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity which plane would you use? a. mid-sagittal b. coronal/frontal c. horizontal/transverse d. sagittal 8. The anatomical position is described as follows: a. standing erect, feet turned outwards, palms facing posteriorly b. standing erect, arms outstretched, palms facing superiorly c. standing erect, feet together, arms at sides, palms facing anteriorly d. standing erect, feet together, arms at sides, palms facing posteriorly 9. A cell membrane that permits the passage of only certain select materials based on its function is said to be: a. permeable b. impermeable c. selectively permeable (semi-permeable) d. impenetrable 10. Passive membrane transport processes include: a. movement of a solute down or along its concentration gradient b. movement of a solute from an area where it is in low concentration to where it is in high concentration c. ATP must be consumed in order to transport the solute d. carrier molecules are an integral part of this process 11. Suppose a person is given an intravenous infusion of a hypertonic, aqueous sodium chloride solution. What would be the effect? a. one would observe a net movement of water from the extracellular fluid compartment to the intracellular fluid compartment b. one would observe no change in either of the fluid compartments c. one would observe a severe swelling and eventual bursting of cells d. one would observe a net movement of water from the intracellular fluid compartment to the extracellular fluid compartment. 12. As a result of mitotic cell division: a. each daughter cell has double tile number of chromosomes as the parent cell b. each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell c. each daughter cell has half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell d. each daughter cell has none of the chromosomes of the parent cell 24. Which of the following tissues can be said to lack blood vessels and nerves? A. Smooth muscle B. Skin C. Dense connective tissue D. Cartilage 25. Stratified squamous epithelium is not found in the A. Epidermis B. Mouth C. Central canal of the spinal cord D. Vagina 26. Under normal conditions, the major mechanism of body heat loss is A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Perspiration D. Conduction 27. Stimulation of retinal rod' cells with light results in A. Increased influx of Na+ and hyperpolarization B. Increased influx of Na+ and depolarization C. Decreased influx of Na+ and hyperpolarization D. Decreased influx of Na+ and depolarization 28. Pinocytosis is usually associated with all of the following EXCEPT A. The transport of liquid particles B. Formation of membrane vesicles C. The transport of molecules too large to move through the cell membrane by other means D. No requirement for energy from the cell 29. The middle abdominopelvic regions include the A. Right and left lumbar and umbilical B. Right and left lumbar epigastric C. Right and left iliac and hypogastric D. Right and left iliac and umbilical 30. A. Dorsal cavity B. Ventral cavity C. Cranial cavity D. None of the above 31. The term most opposite "proximal" is A. Medial B. Superior C. Anterior: D. Distal 32. A transverse section through the head would divide A. The forehead from the chin B. The' nose from the back of the head C. The right eye from the left eye D. None of the above 33. The mediastinum is part of the A. Dorsal cavity B. Ventral cavity C. Abdominal cavity D. Cranial cavity 34. What chemical process in the body releases energy as complex compounds are broken down into simpler ones? A. Anabolism B. Metabolism C. Digestion D. Catabolism 35. What are chemical structures that do not have carbon and hydrogen atoms as the primary structure? A. Organic compounds B. Inorganic compounds C. Chemical bonds D. Molecules 36. What are substances formed from amino acids called? A. Lipids B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins 37. Because of complementary base pairing, if one side of a DNA molecule was ATCCGTAATC, the other side of the molecule would be A. ATCCGTAATC B. AUCCGUAATC C. UAGGCAUUAG D. TAGGCATTAG 38. An example of a cutaneous membrane would be A. The lining of the abdomen B. The covering of the lung C. Skin D. The lining of a joint 39. The membrane lining the organs of the abdominal cavity is called the A. Visceral pleura B. Visceral peritoneum C. Parietal pleura D. Parietal-peritoneum 40. A system is best defined as A. A group of different types of cells working together to perform a function B. A group of different tissues working together to perform a function C. A group of organs working together to perform a function D. None of the above 53. Which of the following is not a function of the subcutaneous layer of skin? A. Produces melanin to protect skin from the ultraviolet rays of the sun B. Stores fat that can be used for food C. Protects the underlying tissue by acting as a "shock absorber'' D. Helps the body in temperature regulation 54. The layer of the epidermis that is constantly undergoing mitosis is called the A. Dermal papillae B. Stratum germinativum C. Stratum corneum D. Subcutaneous layer 55. The part of the hair that begins from a small cap-shaped cluster of cells is called A. The hair follicle B. The hair shaft C. The hair papilla D. None of the above 56. Which of the following is the receptor in skin that detects pain? A. Krause's end bulb B. Pacinian corpuscle C. Meissner's corpuscle D. Free nerve endings 57. The root of the nail lies in a groove and is hidden by a fold of skin called the A. Cuticle B. Nail bed C. Lunula D. Nail body 58. The glands of skin that produce oil that lubricates the hair and skin are the A. Sebaceous glands B. Eccrine glands C. Apocrine glands D. Endocrine glands 59. Cartilage cells are called A. Osteoclasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoblasts D. Chondrocytes 60. Each of the following structures is found in an osteon of adult bone EXCEPT the A. Circumferential lamellae B. Haversian canal C. Concentric lamellae D. Canaliculi 61. The ends of long bones are called the A. Diaphysis B. Epiphysis C. Periosteum D. Endosteum 62. The bone at the back of the skull is called the A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Sphenoid 63. The red bone marrow is important in the skeletal function of A. Protection B. Support C. Hemopoiesis D. Storage 64. The wrist bone is an example of A. A short bone B. A long bone C. A flat bone D. An irregular bone 65. Which bone does not contain one of the paranasal sinuses? A. Mandible B. Maxillary C. Frontal D. Ethmoid 66. The "rule of nines" A. is a method of determining the severity of burns B. Consists of 9 areas of the body, each covering about 11% of the body C. Consists of 11 areas of the body, each covering about 9% of the body. D. Both a and b above 67. A burn involving both the epidermis and the upper layers of the dermis is called A. A-first-degree burn B. A second-degree burn C. A third-degree burn D. A full-thickness burn 79. The type of cartilage usually associated with compact bone function and development is: a. fibrocartilage b. interstitial cartilage c. elastic cartilage d. hyaline cartilage 80. Compact and spongy bone are formed by the developmental process called: a. cartilaginous b. ossification c. pathogenesis d. hematopoiesis 81. A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the: a. epiphysis b. diaphysis c. growth plate d. epiphyseal line 82. The membrane that covers the surface of a mature bone is: a. the periosteum b. the perichondrium c. the peritendineum d. the peritoneum 83. The cell type responsible for the bone formation is the: a. osteoblast b. osteoclast c. fibroblast d. chondroblast 84. Haversian systems: a. are found in spongy bone tissue b. lack lamellae c. are the basic units in compact bone tissue d. do not contain osteocytes 85. The proper sequence of events in bone repair is: a. invasion of cells, bony callus, fibrocartilaginous callus, hematoma formation b. hematoma formation, invasion of cells, fibrocartilaginous callus, bony callus c. fibrocartilaginous callus, invasion of cells, bony callus, hematoma formation d. hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus, invasion of cells, bony callus 86. The inferior most part of the sternum is the: a. manubrium b. xiphoid process c. body d. coracoid process 87. The axial skeleton contains: a. the skull, vertebral column and bony thorax b. the skull, vertebral column and pelvis c. the shoulder and pelvic girdles d. the skull, spine, shoulders and hips 88. Which of the following would NOT be found on the lumbar vertebrae? a. spinous process b. facets for ribs c. pedicle d. transverse processes 89. Which of the following joints is most movable? a. suture b. symphysis c. hinge d. ball and socket 90. Which feature is primarily responsible for a bone's growth in length? a. epiphysis b. periosteum c. epiphyseal plate d. medullary cavity 91. The foramen magnum is located in the bone a. ethmoid b. temporal c. sphenoid d. occipital 92. Functionally, an immovable joint is classified as a: a. suture b. amphiarthrosis c. synarthrosis d. diarthroses 93. The immovable articulations between adult skull bones are called: a. sutures b. joints c. fontanels d. interconnections 94. Striations are found in A. Smooth muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Both b and c 95. Intercalated disks are found in A. Smooth muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Voluntary muscle 96. The muscle attachment to the more stationary bone is called the A. Origin B. Insertion C. Tendon D. Bursae D. Gracilis 108. Which of the following nerves innervates the gluteus maximus muscle? A. Sciatic B. Femoral C. Inferior gluteal D. Phrenic 109. Which of the following pairs of facial muscles would be most useful in sucking liquids through a straw? A. Levator anguli oris and zygomaticus major B. Buccinator and orbicularis oris C. Levator labii superioris and depressor labii inferioris D. Orbicularis oris and depressor anguli oris 110. All of the following muscles are muscles of facial expression EXCEPT the A. Levator anguli oris B. buccinator C. orbicularis oculi D: masseter 111. The hand position-when the body is in anatomical position is A. Dorsiflexion B. Pronation C. Supination D. Plantar flexion 112. Tonic contractions A. Move a muscle through a full range of motion B. Shorten the muscle C. Are important in maintaining posture D. None of the above 113. Movement around a longitudinal axis is A. Supination B. Rotation C. Dorsiflexion D. Pronation 114. In which of the following does the muscle contract but does not shorten, even though an increase in muscle tension does occur. A. Twitch contractions B. Tetanic contractions C. Isotonic contractions D. Isometric contractions 115. The point of contact between the nerve and the muscle fibers it stimulates is called a A. Motor unit B. Neuromuscular junction C. Motor neuron D. Neurotransmitter 116. The type of muscle that functions as a sphincter is: a. pennate b. parallel c. rhombohedral d. circular 117. The muscle called the adductor longus is named according to: a. function and shape b. origin and insertion c. location and size d. function and size 118. Which one of the following muscles is named for its shape? a. pectoralis major b. adductor pollicis c. trapezius d. vastus lateralis 119. Which one of the following muscles is named for its location? a. rhomboideus b. trapezius c. deltoid d. quadriceps femoris 120. Which one of the following muscles is involved with chewing a steak? a. masseter b. splenius capitis c. orbicularis oris d. zygomaticus major 121. The major movement produced during quiet breathing is accomplished by the: a. diaphragm b. scalenus c. external intercostals d. internal intercostals 122. In response to a nerve impulse the electrical charges on the sarcolemma are reversed. This is called: a. polarization b. the sodium pump c. the potassium pump d. depolarization 123. Raising your arm to shoulder level is accomplished almost entirely by the: a. pectoralis major b. trapezius c. deltoid d. biceps brachii 124. Extension of the forearm is a function of the: a. biceps brachii b. brachialis c. triceps brachii d. brachioradialis 137. Clusters of nerve cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system are: a. ganglia b. Nissl bodies c. boutons d. oligodendrocytes 138. The functions of the neuroglia include: a. insulation b. support c. disposal of debris d. all of the above 139. During depolarization of a neuron, sodium ions: a. stay outside the cell b. rush out of the cell c. stay inside the cell d. rush into the cell 140. At a synapse, a nerve impulse is transmitted by: a. depolarization b. the myelin sheath c. a neurotransmitter d. Schwann cell 141. A reflex is: a. an involuntary response to a stimulus b. a conscious decision to maintain homeostasis c. a sensation to be interpreted d. a stimulus to be felt 142. The neurotransmitter released at all neuromuscular junctions of the PNS is: a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine 143. The largest region of the brain is the: a. cerebrum b. diencephalon c. brain stem d. cerebellum 144. Which part of the diencephalon is responsible for regulation of body temperature, water balance, metabolism, and emotion? It is also a pain/pleasure center. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. cerebrum 145. The large fibrous tract of the brain that allows communication between the cerebral hemispheres is the: a. basal nuclei b. corpus callosum c. cerebral white matter d. choroid plexis 146. The layers of the meninges, beginning with the outermost are the: a. pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater b. arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater c. pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid d. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater 147. Mr. Jones has a tumor of the cerebellum. In view of the functions of this part of the brain which of the following symptoms should be expected? a. irregular heartbeat and increased blood pressure b. inability to coordinate body movements c. loss of speech d. inability to control emotions 148. Mrs. Smith has suffered a cerebrovascular accident. It has been determined that the damage is to the motor area of the cerebrum on her left side. What part of her body will most likely be affected? a. the lower extremities b. the right side of her body c. the left side of her body d. her swallowing will be impaired 149. The cerebral spinal fluid is formed by the: a. choroid plexus b. arachnoid villi c. dura mater d. cerebral aqueduct 150. Which of these effectors is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. smooth muscle b. cardiac muscle c. skeletal muscle d. most glands 151. The part of the brain that functions to coordinate voluntary muscle movements is the: a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. corpus callosum 152. The efferent division of the PNS: a. carries sensory information to the CNS b. carries motor information to muscles and glands c. processes and integrates sensory information d. processes and integrates motor and sensory information 153. Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear: a. white b. gray c. brown d. transparent 154. Which of the following is not a type of neuroglia cell? a. astrocyte b. oligodendrocyte c. ependymal cell d. Nissl cell 155. Action potentials are conducted more rapidly: a. along myelinated axons b. along unmyelinated axons c. in large diameter dendrites d. in small diameter dendrites 167. The two principle divisions that make up the nervous system are the A. Central and sympathetic B. Sympathetic and parasympathetic C. Peripheral and central D. Peripheral and autonomic 168. The tough outer layer of meninges is called the A. Pia mater B. Arachnoid C. Dura mater D. Ventricle 169. The brainstem includes A. The medulla oblongata, pons, and thalamus B. The medulla oblongata, midbrain, and hypothalamus C. The pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata D. The medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum 170. The parasympathetic nervous system A. Is also called the thoracolumbar system B. Is responsible for the "fight or flight" response C. Releases acetylcholine from its postganglionic axons D. Has neurons that enter the sympathetic chain 171. The vomiting center is located in the A. Cerebral cortex B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata 172. The most important cardiac and vasomotor control centers are situated in the A. Heart B. Medulla and pons C. Cerebrum D. Peripheral blood vessels 173. General sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue is mediated by the A. lingual nerve B. glossopharyngeal nerve C. vagus nerve D. hypoglossal nerve 174. The rods in the eye A. Are part of the choroid layer B. Respond to the colors red, green, and blue C. Are used to see in dim light D. Both A and B above 175. Cells that produce myelin for the cells of the brain and spinal cord are the A. Schwann cells B. Microglia C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendrocytes 176. Glial cells that act as microbe-eating cells are the A. Schwann cells B. Microglia C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendrocytes 177. Neurotransmitters A. Are released by the postsynaptic neuron B. Are distributed randomly throughout the nervous system C. Can diffuse back into the synaptic knob D. All of the above 178. The-coordination of muscle movement and the maintenance of equilibrium occurs in the. A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Cerebellum 179. The right and left sides of the cerebrum are connected by the A. Corpus callosum B. Sulcus C. Gyrus D. Basal ganglia 180. The conjunctiva A. Is a mucous membrane covering part of the eye B. Opens and closes to regulate the light entering the eye C. Is the colored part of the eye D. Is the clear part of the sclera of the eye 181. The free nerve endings in the skin respond to A. High frequency vibration B. Low frequency vibration C. Pain D. All of the above 182. The cornea A. Is the colored part of the eye B. Produces tears C. Is the mucous covering of the eye D. Is the clear part of the sclera in the front of the eye