ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OPENSTAX 1st Edition TEST BANK, Exams of Anatomy

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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OPENSTAX 1st Edition TEST BANK Table of Content Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Chapter 6: Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton Chapter 9: Joints Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue Chapter 11: The Muscular System Chapter 12: The Nervous Systems and Nervous Tissue Chapter 13: Anatomy of the Nervous System Chapter 14: The Somatic Nervous System Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System Chapter 16: The Neurological Exam Chapter 17: The Endocrine System Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune System Chapter 22: The Respiratory System Chapter 23: The Digestive System Chapter 24: Metabolism and Nutrition Chapter 25: The Urinary System Chapter 26: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Chapter 27: The Reproductive System Chapter 28: Development and Inheritance 1. An Introduction to the Human Body 1. is the study of the larger structures of the body, those visible without the aid of magnification (A) Gross anatomy (B) Microscopic anatomy (C) Macroscopic anatomy (D) Physical anatomy Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 2. The word “anatomy” comes from a Greek root that means “ ............ ’’ (A) To cut apart (B) To fix with (C) To view inside (D) To study exterior Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 3. Dissection is still used in …………. (A) Medical schools (B) Pathology labs (C) Anatomy courses (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 8 4. Microscopic anatomy includes …………. (A) Histology (B) Cytology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 8 5 ................. is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system—that is, a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. (A) Regional anatomy (B) Systematic anatomy (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 15 15 ............... is the ability of an organism to adjust to changes in its internal and external environments (A) Responsiveness (B) Movement (C) Locomotion (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 15 16. Anatomic structures and physiological processes allow runners to coordinate the action of muscle groups and sweat in response to rising internal ……….. . (A) Body temperature (B) Blood pressure (C) Hormone level (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 16 17 ............... is all of the changes the body goes through in life. (A) Development (B) Growth (C) Reproduction (D) All of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 16 18. Development includes the process of ………. . (A) Differentiation (B) Growth (C) Repair (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 16 19. Humans have been adapting to life on Earth for at least the past …………. . (A) 100000 years (B) 200000 years (C) 300000 years (D) 400000 years Ans B Diff Hard Page 17 20. Atmospheric air is only about ............. percent oxygen, but that oxygen is a key component of the chemical reactions that keep the body alive, including the reactions that produce ATP (A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 60 Ans A Diff Medium Page 17 21. Controlled hypothermia often is used, for example, during open-heart surgery because it ............ the metabolic needs of the brain, heart, and other organs, reducing the risk of damage to them. (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 18 22. In the emergency department, the physician induces coma and lowers the patient’s body temperature to approximately 91 degrees. This condition, which is maintained for 24 hours ............ the patient’s metabolic rate (A) Slows (B) Enhances (C) Neutralizes (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 18 23. The pressure of the nitrogen gas in your blood would be much ........... than the pressure of nitrogen in the space surrounding your body (A) Higher (B) Lower (C) Equal (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 19 24. Decompression sickness (DCS) is a condition in which gases dissolved in the blood or in other body tissues are no longer dissolved following a reduction in pressure on the body. This condition affects ………. (A) Underwater divers (B) Pilots (C) Mountaineers (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 20 25. The most common symptom of DCS is ………….. . (A) Pain in the joints (B) Headache (C) Vision disturbances (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 20 26. The brain triggers the thyroid gland in the endocrine system to release thyroid hormone, which ……… metabolic activity and heat production in cells throughout the body. (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 21 27. Childbirth and the body’s response to blood loss are two examples of .................... Loops that are normal but are activated only when needed. (A) Positive feedback (B) Negative feedback (C) Both of above (C) Neutrons (D) All of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 46 7. Excessive exposure to radioactive isotopes can cause ………….. . (A) Damage of human cells (B) Birth defects (C) Cancer (D) All of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 46 8. If you take a look at the periodic table of the elements, you will notice that hydrogen and helium are placed alone on either sides of the top row; they are the only elements that have ……….. . (A) One electron shells (B) Two electron shells (C) Three electron shells (D) Four electron shells Ans A Diff Medium Page 47 9. The most common example of .............. in the natural world occurs between molecules of water (A) Ionic bonding (B) Covalent bonding (C) Hydrogen bonding (D) All of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 53 10 ................. is the energy of position, or the energy matter possesses because of the positioning or structure of its components. (A) Kinetic energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Potential energy (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 54 11. The full spectrum of .............. is referred to as the electromagnetic spectrum. (A) Radiant energy (B) Electrical energy (C) Mechanical energy (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 55 12. An exchange reaction is a chemical reaction in which both synthesis and decomposition occur, chemical bonds are both formed and broken, and chemical energy is ……….. . (A) Absorbed (B) Stored (C) Released (D) All of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 56 13. The most important catalysts in the human body are ……….. . (A) Enzymes (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Carbohydrates Ans A Diff Easy Page 57 14. An inorganic compound is a substance that does not contain …………. (A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Both of above (D) None of the above Ans C Diff Medium Page 58 15. In the bloodstream of humans, glucose concentration is usually measured in milligram (mg) per deciliter (dL), and in a healthy adult averages about ……… (A) 10 mg/dL (B) 100 mg/d (C) 1000 mg/dL (D) None of above Ans B Diff Hard Page 59 16. A buffer is a solution of a …………………. (A) Weak acid and its conjugate base (B) Strong acid and its conjugate base (C) Weak base and its conjugate acid (D) Strong base and its conjugate acid Ans A Diff Hard Page 63 16. Which of the following can cause respiratory alkalosis? (A) Lung disease (B) Aspirin overdose (C) Shock (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 64 17. Which of the following functional groups is involved in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions? (A) Carboxylic group (B) Hydroxyl group (C) Methyl group (D) Phosphate group Ans B Diff Hard Page 65 18. A triglyceride is one of the most common dietary ............. , and the type found most abundantly in body tissues (A) Lipid groups (B) Carbohydrate groups (C) Carbohydrate groups (D) All of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 69 Ans D Diff Hard Page 77 28. ATP is classified as a ………………. (A) High energy compound (B) Low energy compound (C) Medium energy compound (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 77 29. Which of the following bases is found in RNA only? (A) Cytosine (B) Thymine (C) Uracil (D) All of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 76 30. Any given enzyme catalyzes ……………. . (A) One type of reaction (B) Two types of reactions (C) Three types of reactions (D) Multiple type reactions Ans A Diff Medium Page 75 3. The Cellular Level of Organization 1. Primary responsibility of each cell is to contribute to ………. . (A) Homeostasis (B) Reproduction (C) Sustainability (D) Protection Ans A Diff Easy Page 88 2. An amphipathic molecule is one that contains ……….. . (A) Hydrophilic region (B) Hydrophobic region (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 88 3. The phospholipid bilayer consists of two adjacent sheets of phospholipids, arranged ………. (A) Tail to tail (B) Head to tail (C) Head to head (D) Head to tail Ans A Diff Easy Page 89 4is the movement of substances across the membrane without the expenditure of cellular energy. (A) Passive transport (B) Active transport (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 91 5is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration (A) Active transport (B) Passive transport (C) Diffusion (D) Concentration gradient Ans C Diff Medium Page 91 6. Facilitated diffusion of substances crossing the cell (plasma) membrane takes place with the help of ……………. . (A) Channel proteins (B) Carrier proteins (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 92 7 ................. brings fluid containing dissolved substances into a cell through membrane vesicles. (A) Endocytosis (B) Phagocytosis (C) Pinocytosis (D) All of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 95 8. Cells of the stomach and pancreas produce and secrete digestive enzymes through ……….. . (A) Endocytosis (B) Exocytosis (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B Diff Medium Page 95 9. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disease well known for its damage to the …….. . (A) Lungs (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 95 10. Which of the following is organelle of the endomembrane system? (A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Vesicles (D) All of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 98 11. One of the main functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is in the synthesis of ……….. . (A) Lipids (B) Initiation (C) Elongation (D) Termination Ans A Diff Hard Page 111 21 is a type of RNA that, together with proteins, composes the structure of the ribosome (A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) all of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 113 22 is the period of the cell cycle during which the cell is not dividing (A) Interphase (B) Mitosis (C) Cytokinesis (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 116 23. A ........... is a point in the cell cycle at which the cycle can be signaled to move forward or stopped (A) Checkpoint (B) Cyclin (C) Cyclindependent kinase (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 119 24. The process of cellular differentiation leads cells to assume their final …………. . (A) Morphology (B) Physiology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 121 25. A pluripotent stem cell is one that has the potential to differentiate into any type of human tissue but cannot support the full development of an organism (A) Pluripotent (B) Oligopotent (C) Unipotent (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 121 26. Breakdown of cells by their own enzymatic action is called ………. . (A) Autolysis (B) Cell cycle (C) Anticodon (D) Autophagy Ans A Diff Medium Page 126 27 ............ is one of the coding regions of an mRNA molecule that remain after splicing (A) Codon (B) Exon (C) Anticodon (D) Chromatin Ans B Diff Hard Page 127 28. G2 phase is the .......... phase of the cell cycle, after the DNA synthesis phase (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth Ans C Diff Medium Page 127 29 is the fluid in the small spaces between cells not contained within blood vessels (A) Interstitial fluid (B) Intracellular fluid (C) Intron (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 128 30 is the diffusion of water molecules down their concentration gradient across a selectively permeable membrane. (A) Osmosis (B) Mitosis (C) Pinocytosis (D) Phagocytosis Ans A Diff Medium Page 129 4. The Tissue Level of Organization 1. The body contains at least ........... distinct cell types (A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 400 Ans B Diff Medium Page 135 2 .............. , refers to the sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands (A) Epithelial tissues (B) Connective tissues (C) Nervous tissues (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 136 3. Synovial membranes surround the joints of the ………. (A) Shoulder (B) Elbow (C) Knee (A) Fibrocytes (B) Adipocytes (C) Mesenchymal cells (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 151 14. The brown adipocytes store lipids as many droplets, and have ............ metabolic activity (A) High (B) Low (C) Moderate (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 152 15 contains the protein elastin along with lesser amounts of other proteins and glycoproteins (A) Elastic fiber (B) Collagen fiber (C) Reticular fiber (D) All of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 152 16 is most abundant and it can appear yellow and owes its color to carotene and related pigments from plant food (A) White adipose tissue (B) Brown adipose tissue (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 153 17. The dermis of the skin is an example of ……………. (A) Dense irregular connective tissues (B) Dense regular connective tissues (C) Loose irregular connective tissues (D) Loose regular connective tissues Ans A Diff Hard Page 154 18. Persons whose jobs and hobbies involve performing the same movements over and over again are often at the greatest risk of …………. (A) Tendinitis (B) Rickets (C) Arthritis (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 156 19. .......... , is the most common type of cartilage in the body, consists of short and dispersed collagen fibers and contains large amounts of proteoglycans (A) Hyaline cartilage (B) Fibrocartilage (C) Elastic cartilage (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 157 20. Menisci in the knee joint and the intervertebral discs are examples of ……….. (A) Fibrocartilage (B) Hyaline cartilage (C) Elastic cartilage (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 157 21. Bone is the ………….. . (A) Hardest connective tissue (B) Highly vascularized tissue (C) Short recovering tissues (D) All of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 158 22 ............. , are responsible for defending against potentially harmful microorganisms or molecules. (A) Erythrocytes (B) Leukocytes (C) Platelets (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 159 23. Which of the following is fluid connective tissues? (A) Blood (B) Lymph (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 159 24. The contraction of your pupil in bright Light is an example of .............. movement (A) Voluntary (B) Involuntary (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B Diff Medium Page 160 25 ................ tissue contraction is responsible for involuntary movements in the internal organs (A) Skeletal muscle (B) Smooth muscle (C) Cardiac muscle (D) All of above Ans B Diff Medium Page 168 26. The cell body of a neuron, also called the soma, contains the …………. . (A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi bodies (D) A and B Ans D Diff Hard Page 162 27 ................ produce myelin in the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) (D) A and B Ans D Diff Easy Page 188 6. Albinism is a genetic disorder that affects (completely or partially) the coloring of ……….. . (A) Skin (B) Hair (C) Eyes (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 190 7. Which of the following is not accessory structure of the skin? (A) Hair (B) Nails (C) Sweat glands (D) None of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 192 8. The medulla forms the central core of the hair, which is surrounded by the ………. (A) Cortex (B) Cuticle (C) Follicle (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 192 9. The hair follicle is made of multiple layers of cells that form from basal cells in the …………. (A) Hair matrix (B) Hair root (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 193 10. The catagen phase of hair growth lasts only ............. , and marks a transition from the hair follicle’s active growth (A) 1 to 2 weeks (B) 2 to 3 weeks (C) 3 to 4 weeks (D) 4 to 5 weeks Ans B Diff Medium Page 194 11. The nail fold that meets the proximal end of the nail body forms the ..............., also called the eponychium. (A) Nail body (B) Nail tip (C) Nail bed (D) Nail cuticle Ans D Diff Easy Page 194 12 is type of gland that produces a hypotonic sweat for thermoregulation (A) Eccrine glands (B) Sweat glands (C) Sudoriferous glands (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 195 13 are a primary component of thermoregulation in humans and thus help to maintain homeostasis. (A) Eccrine glands (B) Sweat glands (C) Sudoriferous glands (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 195 14. A ............. is a type of oil gland that is found all over the body and helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair (A) Sebaceous gland (B) Eccrine gland (C) Sweat gland (D) Sudoferous gland Ans A Diff Medium Page 196 15. The fatty acids of sebum also have antibacterial properties, and prevent water loss from the skin in … ........... environments (A) Low humidity (B) High humidity (C) Moderate humidity (D) All of above Ans A Diff High Page 196 16. Which of the following danger is associated with tattoo or body piercing? (A) Allergic reactions (B) Skin infections (C) Blood borne diseases (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 197 17. A person with tattoos should be cautious when having a ……………. (A) MRI (B) CT Scan (C) ECG (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 197 18. The skin acts as a sense organ because the .............. contain specialized sensory nerve structures that detect touch, surface temperature, and pain (A) Dermis (B) Hypodermis (C) Epidermis (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 197 19. During strenuous physical activities, such as skiing or running, the dermal blood vessels ............. and sweat secretion increases (A) Dilate (C) Electricity (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 205 29. A ............ goes deeper and affects both the epidermis and a portion of the dermis (A) A first degree burn (B) A second degree burn (C) A third degree burn (D) A fourth degree burn Ans B Diff Hard Page 205 30. When you wear shoes that do not fit well and are a constant source of abrasion on your toes, you tend to form a .......... at the point of contact (A) Stretch mark (B) Corn (C) Callus (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 206 6. Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System 1. A well-preserved fossil skeleton can give us a good sense of the............... of an organism (A) Size (B) Shape (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 214 2. Which of the following critical function is not related to skeletal system for the human body? (A) Supports the body (B) Facilitates movement (C) Protects external organs (D) Produces blood cells Ans C Diff Medium Page 214 3 ............... often appear in preteens as the result of poor posture, abnormal growth, or indeterminate causes (A) Spinal curvatures (B) Lateral curvatures (C) Axial curvatures (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 217 4. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are all produced in the red marrow (A) Red marrow (B) Yellow marrow (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 218 5. The ............. are found in the carpals of the wrists and the tarsals of the ankles of human skeleton. (A) Short bones (B) Long bones (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 219 6. A short bone is one that is ........... in shape, being approximately equal in length, width, and thickness. (A) Cubical (B) Hexagonal (C) Rhombohedra (D) None of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 219 7. Which of the following is not an example of flat bones? (A) Cranial (B) Scapula (C) Sternum (D) Patellae Ans D Diff Hard Page 220 8. Many facial bones, particularly the ones containing sinuses, are classified as ……………. (A) Sesamoid bones (B) Irregular bones (C) Flat bones (D) None of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 220 9. The ........... is the tubular shaft that runs between the proximal and distal ends of the bone (A) Diaphysis (B) Epiphysis (C) Medullary cavity (D) Compact bone Ans A Diff Hard Page 221 10. The ................... contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that nourish compact bone (A) Endosteum (B) Periosteum (C) Metaphysis (D) Epiphyseal plate Ans B Diff Hard Page 221 11 ...................... is the attachment points for tendons and ligaments (A) Articulation (B) Projection (C) Hole (D) None of above Ans B Diff Medium Page 222 12. The surface features of bones depend on their ……………. 21 ...............requires surgery to expose the fracture and reset the bone (A) Open reduction (B) Closed reduction (C) Open fracture (D) Closed fracture Ans A Diff Medium Page 237 22. Fractures are classified by their ……………. . (A) Complexity (B) Location (C) Other features (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 238 23. The disruption of blood flow to the bone results in the ............. of bone cells around the fracture. (A) Injury (B) Death (C) Distortion (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 240 24. During long space missions, astronauts can lose approximately ................. of their bone mass per month (A) 1 to 2 % (B) 2 to 3 % (C) 4 to 5 % (D) 5 to 6 % Ans A Difficulty Hard Page 241 25. Numerous, controlled studies have demonstrated that people who exercise regularly have ………. bone density than those who are more sedentary (A) Greater (B) Smaller (C) Equal (D) None of above Ans A Difficulty Medium Page 241 26. Which of the following is not a sources of calcium? (A) Nuts (B) Beans (C) Seeds (D) None of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 241 27. Green leafy vegetables are a good source of ……….. . (A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin K (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 242 28. Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, is produced by the kidneys and stimulates the absorption of … .............. from the digestive tract (A) Calcium (B) Phosphate (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 243 29. The normal level of calcium in the blood is about ………. . (A) 10 mg/dL (B) 15 mg/dL (C) 20 mg/dL (D) 25 mg/dL Ans A Diff Hard Page 245 30. Cells of the parathyroid gland have plasma membrane receptors for ………. . (A) Calcium (B) Potassium (C) Phosphorus (D) Nitrogen Ans A Diff Medium Page 246 7. Axial Skeleton 1. The --------- forms the vertical, central axis of the body and includes all bones of the head, neck, chest, and back. (A) Axial skeleton (B) The Appendicular Skeleton (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 256 2. The ------------- includes all bones of the upper and lower limbs, plus the bones that attach each limb to the axial skeleton. (A) Axial skeleton (B) Appendicular skeleton (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B Diff Easy Page 257 3. There are ---- bones in the appendicular skeleton of an adult. (A) 130 (B) 135 (C) 126 (D) 120 Ans C Diff Easy Page 257 4. In the adult, the skull consists of ------- individual bones. (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 266 14. The suture lines seen on the top of the skull are the -------- --. (A) Coronal (B) Sagittal (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans C Diff easy Page 267 15. Each tooth is anchored into a deep socket called an ----- --. (A) Alveolus (B) Maxilla (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 268 16. The --------- bone is one of a pair of irregularly shaped bones that contribute small areas to the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and the medial wall of each orbit. (A) Facial (B) Nasal (C) Palatine (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 269 17. The -------- bone is also known as the cheekbone. (A) Lacrimal Bone (B) Nasal bone (C) Zygomatic (D) Mover bone Ans C Diff Hard Page 270 18. The --------- forms the lower jaw and is the only moveable bone of the skull. (A) Mandible (B) Zygomatic (C) Nasal (D) Gomer Ans A Diff Hard Page 271 19. The nasal septum consists of ------------- --. (A) Bone (B) Cartilage (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 272 20. Cranial Fossae consist of ------------ --. (A) Anterior Cranial Fossa (B) Middle Cranial Fossa (C) Posterior Cranial Fossa (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 274 21. The vertebral arch forms the ------- portion of each vertebra. (A) Interior (B) Posterior (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B Diff Easy Page 280 22. . A superior articular process extends or faces ---- --. (A) Downward (B) Upward (C) Backward (D) All of above Ans B Diff Hard Page 281 23. The cervical vertebrae are ------ than lumbar vertebrae due to differences in the proportion of body weight that each supports. (A) Smaller (B) Larger (C) Medium (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 282 24. The bodies of the thoracic vertebrae are larger than ------- --. (A) Lumbar Vertebrae (B) Cervical vertebrae (C) Sacrum (D) Coccyx Ans B Diff Hard Page 283 25. Adjacent vertebrae are united by .......... that run the length of the vertebral column along both its posterior and anterior aspects. (A) Ligaments (B) Fibrous (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 286 26. The posterior end of a typical rib is called the ...........of the rib. (A) Tail (B) Neck (C) Head (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 290 27. The bones of the skull arise from mesenchyme during embryonic development in two different ways (A) Three (B) Four (B) Scapula (C) Clavicle (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 314 7. This ridge forms the interosseous ------------- which, like the similar border of the ulna, is the line of attachment for the interosseous membrane that unites the two forearm bones. (A) Border of the radius (B) Neck of the radius (C) Shaft of the radius (D) None of above Ans 7 Diff Medium Page 315 8. The wrist and base of the hand are formed by a series of --------- small carpal bones. 9. 10. The pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is formed by ---------- bone. (A) Double (B) (B)Single (C) (C) Triple (D) None of above (A) Six (B) Seven (C) Eight (D) Nine Ans C Diff Hard Page 316 The palm of the hand contains five elongated ---------- bones. (A) Metacarpal (B) Ulna (C) Radius (D) Carpal Ans A Diff Easy Page 314 Ans B Diff Medium Page 322 11. The pubis forms the anterior portion of the -------- bone. (A) Arm (B) Leg (C) Hip (D) Hand Ans C Diff Medium Page 323 12. The ------ forms the posterolateral portion of the hip bone. (A) Ischium (B) Ilium (C) Ulna (D) Radius Ans A Diff Medium Page 324 13. The pelvis consists of ------ bones. (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six Ans B Diff Easy Page 325 14. The ------ or thigh bone, is the single bone of the thigh region. (A) Femur (B) Ilium (C) Radius (D) Ulna Ans A Diff Medium Page 328 15. The ------ is largest sesamoid bone of the body. (A) Patella (B) Ulna (C) Femur (D) Ilium Ans A Diff Medium Page 330 16. The tibia is the main weight-bearing bone of the lower ------ and the second longest bone of the body, after the femur. (A) Leg (B) Arm (C) Hand (D) Foot Ans A Diff Medium Page 332 17. The fibula is the slender bone located on the lateral side of the ---- --. (A) Leg (B) Arm (C) Hand (D) Hip Ans A Diff Medium Page 334 18. The posterior half of the foot is formed by seven -------- bones. (A) Fibula (B) Tiba (C) Ilium (D) Tarsal Ans D Diff Medium Page334 19. The toes contain a total of -------- phalanx bones (phalanges), arranged in a similar manner as the phalanges of the fingers. (A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 14 Ans D Diff Medium Page 335 20. A joint between adjacent phalanx bones is called an ----------- joint. (B) Leg (C) Hand (D) Foot Ans B Diff Medium Page 350 30. Intramembranous Ossification within the clavicle begins during the fifth week of development and continues until 25 years of age. (A) Fourth (B) Fifth (C) Sixth (D) Third Ans B Diff Hard Page 351 9. Joints 1. A ------- is where the adjacent bones are united by fibrous connective tissue. (A) Fibrous joint (B) synovial joint (C) Ball and socket joint (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 356 2. All -------- joints are functionally classified as a diarthrosis joints. (A) Fibrous (B) Synovial (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans B Diff Easy Page 356 3. An immobile or ---------- joint is called a synarthrosis. (A) Nearly immobile (B) Nearly mobile (C) Hardly mobile (D) None of above Ans A Easy Diff Page 356 4. An amphiarthrosis is a joint that has .......... mobility (A) Limited (B) Un limited (C) Zero (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 357 5. discs are made of fibrocartilage and thereby structurally form a symphysis type of cartilaginous joint. (A) Intervertebral (B) Vertebral (C) Non vertebral (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 357 6. A ------ mobile joint is classified as a diarthrosis. (A) Freely (B) Fixed (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 357 7. A biaxial joint allows for motions within ------- planes. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans A Easy Diff Page 358 8. A joint that allows for the several directions of movement is called a --------- joint. (A) Multiaxial (B) Axial (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A Easy Diff Page 358 9. There are …… types of fibrous joints. (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans B Diff Easy Page 359 10. All the bones of the skull, except for the mandible, are joined to each other by a fibrous joint called a ---- --. (A) Suture (B) Fibrous (C) Axial (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 359 11. During birth, the fontanelles provide -------- to the skull, allowing the bones to push closer together or to overlap slightly. (A) Flexibility (B) Fixed (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 359 12. Due to the --------- of a gomphosis, this type of joint is functionally classified as a synarthrosis. (A) Immobility (B) Mobility (C) Non Mobility (A) Ball and socket joint (B) Hinge joint (C) Saddle joint (D) Condyloid joint Ans A Diff Medium Page 363 23. Lateral flexion is the--------- of the neck or body toward the right or left side. (A) Blending (B) Fixing (C) Connecting (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 373 24. is the movement of a body region in a circular manner, in which one end of the body region being moved stays relatively stationary while the other end describes a circle. (A) Friction (B) Abduction and adduction (C) Supination (D) Circumduction Ans D Diff Medium Page 374 25. are complex movements that involve the multiple plane joints among the tarsal bones of the posterior foot (intertarsal joints) and thus are not motions that take place at the ankle joint. (A) Dorsiflexion and Plantar Flexion (B) Protraction and Retraction (C) Depression and Elevation (D) Inversion and Eversion Ans D Diff Medium Page 374 26. The ............ is the joint that allows for opening (mandibular depression) and closing of the mouth. (A) Temporomandibular Joint (B) Glen humeral joint (C) Both above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 377 27. The glenohumeral (shoulder) joint is a ------------------ --. (A) saddle joint (B) Candyloid joint (C) Hinge joint (D) Ball- and –socket joint Ans D Diff Medium Page 378 28. The elbow joint is a uniaxial --------- --. (A) Candyloid joint (B) Saddle joint (C) Ball and socket joint (D) Hinge joint Ans A Diff Easy Page 380 29. The hip joint is a multiaxial ------------- (A) Ball and socket joint (B) Saddle joint (C) Hinge joint (D) Candyloid joint Ans A Diff Easy Page 382 30. The knee joint is the ---------- of the body. (A) Largest joint (B) Smallest joint (C) Medium joint (D) None of above. Ans A Diff Easy Page 386 10. Muscle Tissue 1. A muscle can return to its original length when relaxed due to a quality of muscle tissue called ………. . (A) Elasticity (B) Plasticity (C) Contractility (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 407 2 ............. fibers each have one to two nuclei and are physically and electrically connected to each other so that the entire heart contracts as one unit (A) Cardiac muscle (B) Skeletal muscle (C) Smooth muscle (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 407 3. Skeletal muscles allow functions of .............. , to be under voluntary control (A) Swallowing (B) Urination (C) Defecation (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 407 4. Inside each skeletal muscle, muscle fibers are organized into individual bundles, each called a fascicle, by a middle layer of connective tissue called the ………. (A) Perimysium (B) Endomysium (C) Mysia (D) None of above Ans A Diff Easy Page 408 5. Skeletal muscle fibers can be quite large for human cells, with diameters up to 100 μm and lengths up to ………. . (A) 30 cm (B) 40 cm (C) X and Y chromosome (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 421 15. A ................. Involves the muscle shortening to move a load. (A) Concentric contraction (B) Eccentric contraction (C) Isometric contraction (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 421 16. Neural control regulates ....................... Contractions (A) Concentric (B) Isometric (C) Eccentric (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 422 17. The ideal length of a sarcomere to produce maximal tension occurs at ............... of its resting length, with 100 percent being the state where the medial edges of the thin filaments are just at the most- medial myosin heads of the thick filaments (A) 80 to 120 % (B) 90 to 110 % (C) 100 to 120 % (D) 120 to 140 % Ans A Diff Medium Page 423 18. The rate at which a motor neuron fires action potentials affects the tension produced in the skeletal muscle. (A) Skeletal muscles (B) Nerve muscles (C) Smooth muscles (D) None of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 425 19. The absence of the low-level contractions that lead to muscle tone is referred to as ………. (A) Hypotonia (B) Hypertonia (C) Antonia (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 426 20. Glycolytic fibers primarily create ATP through anaerobic glycolysis, which produces ............ ATP per cycle (A) Less (B) More (C) Equal (D) Abundant Ans A Diff Easy Page 427 21. Structural proteins are added to muscle fibers in a process called ………. (A) Hypertrophy (B) Atrophy (C) Sarcopenia (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 428 22. Long-distance runners have a ........... number of SO fibers (A) Large (B) Small (C) Few (D) More Ans A Diff Medium Page 428 23. Cellular damage to muscle fibers that occurs after intense exercise includes damage to the ………. . (A) Sarcolemma (B) Myofibrils (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Hard Page 429 24. Anabolic steroid use has been linked to ………. (A) Infertility (B) Aggressive behavior (C) Brain cancer (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 430 25. Smooth muscle (so-named because the cells do not have striations) is present in the walls of ………. . (A) Bladder (B) Uterus (C) Stomach (D) All of above Ans D Diff Hard Page 432 26. A dense body is analogous to the Z-discs of ................. and is fastened to the sarcolemma. (A) Skeletal muscle fibers (B) Cardiac muscle fibers (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 434 27. Smooth muscle tissue can regenerate from a type of stem cell called a pericyte, which is found in some ............. blood vessels. (A) Small (B) Large (C) Wavy (D) Irregular Ans A Diff Easy Page 436 28 means to reduce the voltage difference between the inside and outside of a cell’s plasma membrane (the sarcolemma for a muscle fiber), making the inside less negative than at rest 7. Synovial fluid is a .............. film with the consistency of egg whites (A) Thin and viscous (B) Thick and viscous (C) Thin and non-viscous (D) Think and non-viscous (E) A Diff Medium Page 447 8. Parallel muscles have fascicles that are arranged in the ........... direction as the long axis of the muscle (A) Same (B) Different (C) Unique (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 448 9. The deltoid is a large, triangular-shaped muscle that covers the …………. (A) Shoulder (B) Neck (C) Mouth (D) Elbow Ans A Diff Medium Page 448 10. The large muscle on the chest, the pectoralis major, is an example of a ............ muscle (A) Convergent (B) Divergent (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 448 11 .............. is the study of how the root of a particular word entered a language and how the use of the word evolved over time (A) Etymology (B) Glossary (C) Bibliography (D) Nomenclature Ans A Diff Medium Page 450 12. Flexor muscles ........ the angle at the joint (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Increase and decrease (D) Neither increase nor decrease Ans B Diff Medium Page 453 13. The physicians originally studying human anatomy thought the skull looked like ………. (A) Apple (B) Pomegranate (C) Banana (D) Orange Ans A Diff Easy Page 454 14. The .............. originates on the mandible and allows the tongue to move downward and forward (A) Genioglossus (B) Styloglossus (C) Palatoglossus (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 459 15. The suprahyoid muscles raise the ............. during deglutition (A) Hyoid bone (B) Floor of the mouth (C) Larynx (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 460 16. The head, attached to the top of the vertebral column, is ............ by the neck muscles (A) Balanced (B) Moved (C) Rotated (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 461 17. Place your fingers on both sides of the neck and turn your head to the left and to the right. You will feel the movement originates there. This muscle divides the neck into ……. triangles when viewed from the side (A) Anterior (B) Posterior (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 461 18. The muscles of the ............. extend, flex, and stabilize different parts of the body’s trunk (A) Vertebral column (B) Thorax (C) Abdominal wall (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 464 19. If you injured your shoulder while you were kayaking, the first thing a physical therapist would do during your first visit is to assess the functionality of the ………. . (A) Joint (B) Bones (C) Muscles (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 467 20. When you inhale, your chest rises because the cavity …….. . (A) Increases in size (B) Decreases in size (C) Remains still (D) Moves a little Ans A Diff Hard Page 467 (A) Moving the head (B) Cervical vertebrae (C) Scapulas (D) All of above Ans D Diff Medium Page 461 12. The Nervous System and Nervous Tissue 1. The extension of nervous tissue towards the vertebral column: (A) Brain (B) Spinal cord (C) Vertebrae (D) Hypothalamus Ans B Diff Easy Page 504 2. The fiber that connects the neuron with its target. (A) Soma (B) Dendrite (C) Axon (D) White matter Ans C Diff Medium Page 505 3. A cluster of neuron cell bodies is referred to: (A) Ganglion (B) Nerve (C) Tract (D) Nucleus Ans A Diff Medium Page 506 4. Bundle of axons in PNS is called tract. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Hard Page 508 5. Integration is : (A) Receiving of the information from the environment to gain input (B) Response produced on the basis of received stimuli (C) Stimuli that are received by sensory structures are communicated to the nervous system where that information is processed (D) None of them Ans C Diff Hard Page 508 6. Withdrawing a hand from hot stove is an example of: (A) Response (B) Stimulus (C) Integration (D) Chemical stimuli Ans A Diff Medium Page 508 7. Voluntary motor responses are taken controlled by: (A) Enteric nervous system (B) Somatic nervous system (C) Both a & b (D) Autonomic nervous system Ans B Diff Medium Page 509 8. Sensory stimuli is processed by: (A) Nerves (B) Spinal cord (C) Ganglia (D) Brain Ans D Diff Hard Page 509 9. The function of neurons: (A) Regulation of oxygen to brain (B) Regulation of hemostatic mechanism (C) Computation and communication (D) Blood supply to brain Ans C Diff Medium Page 512 16. The cell that insulate axon with myelin in the periphery: (A) Glial cell of the PNS (B) Schwann cells (C) Satellite cell (D) Both a & b Ans D Diff Hard Page 517 17. Myelin contains a large amount of: (A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Minerals Ans B Diff Easy Page 517 18. The diameter of axon: (A) 1-10 micrometers (B) 1-15 micrometers (C) 1-20 micrometers (D) 1-25 micrometers Ans C Diff Medium Page 519 19. The travelling of the action potential from axon hillock to axon terminal: (A) Graded potential (B) Propagation (C) Threshold (D) Neurotransmission Ans B Diff Medium Page 521 20. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the short distance of the synapse and binds to a receptor protein of the target neuron. (A) True (B) False Ans A Diff Medium Page 522 21. The neuron causing muscle fibers to contract: (A) Upper motor neuron (B) Lower motor neuron (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 522 22. Cell membrane is charged by: (A) Ions (B) Charged particles (C) Both a & b (D) None of them Ans C Diff Easy Page 523 23. The sodium-potassium pump requires energy in the form of: (A) ATP (B) ADP (C) FAD (D) FADH Ans A Diff Medium Page 524 24. Channels for cations will have negatively charged side chains in the pore whereas channels for anions will have positively charged side chains in the pore. (A) Size exclusion (B) Electrochemical exclusion (C) Both a & b (D) Ligand gated channels Ans B Diff Medium Page 524 25. A mechanically gated channel opens because of the: (A) Changes in electrical membrane (B) Physical distortion of the cell membrane (C) Signaling molecule (D) Randomly gated 32. The number of amino acids in beta endorphin: (A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 33 Ans B Diff Easy Page 535 13. ANATOMY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM 1. A visible line along the dorsal surface of the embryo. (A) Neural plate (B) Neural groove (C) Neural fold (D) Neural tube Ans B Diff Easy Page 550 2. Clusters of cells which runs lateral to the neural tube: (A) Neural crest (B) Neural tube (C) Neural fold (D) Neural groove Ans A Diff Easy Page 550 3. The structures that come from the mesencephalon and rhombencephalon except for the cerebellum are collectively considered the: (A) Primary vesicles (B) Secondary vesicles (C) Brain stem (D) Metancephalon Ans C Diff Hard Page 551 4. While the brain is developing from the anterior neural tube, spinal cord is developing via same route. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Medium Page 552 5. The curve between brain stem and forebrain is called: (A) Neural flex (B) Cephalic flex (C) Cephalic flexure (D) Neural flexure Ans C Diff Easy Page 553 6. The brain stem include: (A) Mid brain (B) Pons (C) Medulla (D) All of them Ans D Diff Medium Page 553 7. The wrinkled portion of the brain: (A) Cerebral cortex (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebral hemisphere (D) Corpus coliseum Ans B Diff Hard Page 557 8. The separation between two sides of cerebrum: (A) Longitudinal fissure (B) Cerebral hemisphere (C) Cerebral cortex (D) Corpus coliseum Ans A Diff Medium Page 557 9. Which of the following is involved in structure, behavior and emotion: (A) Basal forebrain (B) Basal nuclei 16. The region of the adult brain that retains its name from embryologic development: (A) Epithalamus (B) Subthalamus (C) Thalamus (D) Diencephalon Ans D Diff Medium Page 562 17. The sensation which is not translated by thalamus: (A) Hearing (B) Smell (C) Touch (D) Taste Ans B Diff Easy Page 563 18. The main connection with cerebellum: (A) Pons (B) Medulla (C) Cerebrum (D) None of them Ans A Diff Medium Page 563 19. The white matter attached to the cerebellum: (A) Hypothalamus (B) Pons (C) Medulla (D) Tectum Ans B Diff Medium Page 563 20. The cerebellum accounts of the brain mass: (A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 40% Ans A Diff Easy Page 565 21. The anterior horn is responsible for: (A) Sensory processing (B) Found in thoracic, upper lumbar (C) Send out motor signal to skeletal muscle (D) Sound out sensory signal to skeletal muscle Ans C Diff Medium Page 566 22. Motor demands of the brain are carried by: (A) Ascending tracts (B) Descending tract (C) Anterior column (D) Posterior column Ans B Diff Easy Page 567 23. The orthostatic reflex is a reaction to this change in body position so that blood pressure is maintained against the increasing effect of gravity. (A) True (B) False Ans A Diff Easy Page 569 24. A confluence of arteries that can maintain perfusion of the brain even if narrowing or a blockage limits flow through one part. (A) Foramen magnum (B) Anterior spinal artery (C) Basilar artery (D) Circles of willis` Ans D Diff Medium Page 570 25. The sinus that runs in grooves of the longitudinal fissure where it absorbs CSF from the meninges: (A) Dural sinuses (B) Superior sagittal sinus (C) Sigmoid sinuses 1. The cells in the retina that respond to light stimuli are an example of a chemoreceptor. (A) True (B) False Ans B Diff Easy Page 601 2. Somato-sensory receptors are located to the: (A) Organ and tissues (B) Skin (C) Moving parts of the body (D) All of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 601 3. The receptors that respond to the solute concentration of the body fluids. (A) Chemoreceptors (B) Mechanoreceptors (C) Nociceptor (D) Osmoreceptors Ans D Diff Medium Page 601 4. The receptors that can be a possible example of general sense: (A) Mechanoreceptors (B) Chemoreceptors (C) Nociceptors (D) Osmoreceptors Ans A Diff Easy Page 602 5. Gustation is: (A) Sense of smell (B) Sense of taste (C) Sense of hearing (D) All of them Ans B Diff Easy Page 602 6. Sour taste is the perception of: (A) Sodium (B) Chloride (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen Ans D Diff Medium Page 603 7. Which of the following food item is a source of alkaloid? (A) Coffee (B) Hops (C) Tea (D) All of them Ans D Diff Medium Page 604 8. The sensory modality that does not synapse in thalamus before connecting to cerebral cortex. (A) Taste (B) Smell (C) Hearing (D) All of them Ans B Diff Hard Page 605 9. The large fleshy structure on lateral aspect of the head: (A) Tympanic membrane (B) Incus (C) Auricle (D) Stapes Ans C Diff Medium Page 606 10. Sound is transduced into neural signals within the cochlear region of the inner ear which contains the sensory neurons of the: (A) Vestibule (B) Scala tympani (C) Round window (D) Spiral ganglia