ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK CHAPTER 7 2025, Exams of Advanced Education

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ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK

CHAPTER 7 2025

1. The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n) A) long bone. B) flat bone. C) short bone. D) irregular bone. - D
2. The calcaneus bone of the foot is an example of a(n) A) long bone. B) flat bone. C) short bone. D) irregular bone. - C
3. Which of the following is not associated with spongy bone? A) Trabeculae B) Osteons C) Canaliculi D) Osteocytes - B
4. Which of the following bone shape is stated with an incorrect example? A) Long bone - forearm bones B) Short bone - wrist and ankle bones C) Flat bone - thigh bone D) Irregular bone - vertebrae - C
5. Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has ________. A) spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid

B) osteons; trabeculae C) trabeculae; osteons D) osteocytes; no osteocytes - B

6. Articular cartilage of a long bone is found A) on the outer surface of the epiphyses. B) inside the medullary cavity. C) on the outer surface of the diaphysis. D) in the spaces of the spongy bone. - A
7. Articular cartilage is A) fibrocartilage. B) found only in the knees and elbows. C) elastic cartilage. D) hyaline cartilage. - D
8. A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions? A) Polydactyly B) Osteoporosis C) Osteogenesis imperfecta D) Anemia - C
9. A bone thickens A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. - D

10. A bone lengthens A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. - C
11. Osteoblasts are ________, whereas osteocytes are ________. A) bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells B) mature bone cells; bone-forming cells C) bone-forming cells; mature bone cells D) bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells - C
12. Osteoclasts are A) cells that secrete bone matrix. B) mature bone cells that maintain the matrix. C) immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes. D) cells that break down bone matrix. - D
13. In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ________, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ________. A) pituitary dwarfism; rickets B) rickets; retardation of bone development C) excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia D) soft bones; rickets - B
14. Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ________ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ________. A) thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum B) growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity C) thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone

D) growth hormone; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate - D

15. Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation? A) Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone. B) Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone. C) Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. D) Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage. - C
16. During endochondral bone formation, the secondary ossification center never begins to form. What will the developing bone look like? A) The bone will remain in its cartilaginous model form. B) The bone will remain cartilaginous in the middle (the diaphysis) until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify. C) No epiphyseal plate will exist between the two formed ossification centers. D) The ends (epiphyses) of the bone will remain cartilaginous during development until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify. - D
17. Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone? A) Broad, flat skull bones B) Phalanges of the fingers C) Humerus D) Femur - A
18. The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that A) the bone is lengthening. B) the bone is no longer lengthening. C) the bone is increasing in diameter. D) the bone has completed ossification. - A
19. At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

A) Birth B) 5 years C) 15 years D) 25 years - D

20. Which one of the following is true? A) Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix. B) Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae. C) Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts. D) Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae. - B
21. It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the bone and looking for a(n) A) diaphysis. B) medullary cavity. C) epiphyseal plate. D) articular cartilage. - C
22. Endochondral ossification ________, whereas intramembranous ossification ________. A) replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue B) forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs C) inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity D) activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity - A
23. If during the process of intramembranous ossification, the ossification center was removed, the result would be A) no bone grows. B) a hollow space develops in between the two layers of compact bone, as no spongy bone is produced.

C) surrounding mesenchymal cells will not condense into periosteum because the ossification center is where these cells arise. D) blood vessels will be encouraged to invade the area. - A

24. The thyroid hormone thyroxine ________. A) increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate B) stimulates osteoclasts C) stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate D) removes calcium from bone - C
25. Which is true of sex hormones? A) They inhibit osteoblast activity. B) They have no effect on bone. C) They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates. D) Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females. - C
26. Exercise ________ and ________ bones. A) thickens; elongates B) elongates; weakens C) thickens; strengthens D) thins; atrophies - C
27. Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A) red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. B) red blood cells only. C) white blood cells only. D) red and white blood cells only. - A
28. Which of the following does not describe the function(s) of the skeletal system?

A) It interacts with muscles, providing movement. B) It stores inorganic salts. C) It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax. D) It generates the movements of the limbs. - D

29. Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone? A) Calcium oxalate B) Hydroxyapatite C) Calcium pyrophosphate D) Calcium carbonate - B
30. Which of the following is not a function of bones? A) Contraction B) Attachment for muscles C) Blood cell production D) Storage of inorganic salts - A
31. Bones A) are not living tissue. B) are multifunctional. C) do not contribute to homeostasis. D) have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts. - B
32. The axial skeleton includes A) the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles. B) the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column. C) the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges. D) the femur, tibia, and fibula. - B

33. The pituitary gland is located in the A) sella turcica. B) cribriform plate. C) sphenoidal sinus. D) mandibular fossa - A
34. The hard palate is composed of the A) sphenoid and ethmoid bones. B) nasal conchae and vomer bones. C) zygomatic and lacrimal bones. D) maxillary and palatine bones. - D
35. The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of A) the zygomatic and temporal bones. B) the zygomatic and maxillary bones. C) the maxillary and temporal bones. D) the temporal and parietal bones. - A
36. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull? A) Ethmoid B) Sphenoid C) Vomer D) Frontal - C
37. Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the A) middle ear. B) meninges.

C) frontal sinus. D) maxillary sinus. - A

38. A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the A) ethmoid bone B) maxillae. C) mandible. D) vomer bone. - B
39. The primary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and lumbar curvatures. B) cervical and thoracic curvatures. C) thoracic and sacral curvatures. D) lumbar and sacral curvatures. - C
40. The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and lumbar curvatures. B) cervical and thoracic curvatures. C) thoracic and sacral curvatures. D) lumbar and sacral curvatures. - A
41. Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone? A) The ilium, the femur, and the pubis B) The ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis C) The ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis D) The ilium, the ischium, and the pubis - D
42. The atlas is one of the A) lumbar vertebrae.

B) thoracic vertebrae. C) cervical vertebrae. D) sacral vertebrae. - C

43. If the atlas and axis were replaced with typical cervical vertebrae, ________ would be affected. A) the ability to move the arms B) protection of the spinal cord C) the ability to pivot the head from side to side D) stability of the cervical intervertebral disks - C
44. Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called A) true ribs. B) false ribs. C) floating ribs. D) vertebrochondral ribs. - A
45. The clavicles A) provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs. B) are the strongest bones in the body. C) provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs. D) are part of the axial skeleton. - A
46. The three borders of the scapula are called A) the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders. B) the superior, lateral, and medial borders. C) the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity. D) the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders. -
47. Phalanges are

A) skull bones. B) forearm bones. C) finger and toe bones. D) wrist and ankle bones. - C

48. The capitulum and trochlea are located A) at the proximal end of the humerus. B) at the distal end of the humerus. C) at the distal end of the ulna. D) in the hand. - B
49. If the trochlea was removed, what joint would be affected? A) The humeroulnar joint B) The humeroradial joint C) The tibiofemoral joint D) The iliofemoral joint - A
50. Having extra digits is termed A) polydactyly. B) polyuria. C) polyploidy. D) polydipsia. - A
51. Which of the following are not components of the pelvic girdle? A) Hip bones B) Coxal bones C) Femur D) Sacrum - C
52. If the acetabulum was malformed, which joint would be affected?

A) The humeroulnar joint B) The tibiofemoral joint C) The iliofemoral joint D) The sternoclavicular joint - C

53. The acetabulum is A) a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur. B) a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur. C) the prominence of the hip. D) the anterior portion of the hip bone. - A
54. Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis? A) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones. B) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones. C) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones. D) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones. - A
55. Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male? A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller. B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater. C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female. D) The female iliac bones are less flared. - B
56. The femur A) is the longest bone in the body. B) is part of the pelvic girdle. C) directly articulates with the fibula. D) possesses a medial malleolus. - A

57. The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the A) foot. B) hand. C) pelvis. D) skull. - A
58. Height begins to decrease on average after age A) 25. B) 30. C) 50. D) 65. - B
59. A compound fracture A) incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place. B) is a longitudinal break in the bone, C) exposes the broken bone to the outside. D) completely breaks the bone in more than one place. - C
60. A landscaper accidentally had their leg crushed by a tree. Their femur was impacted with such force that a section of the bone completely shattered into fragments. What type of break is this? A) A comminuted fracture B) A fissured fracture C) An oblique fracture D) A greenstick fracture - A
61. Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence? A) A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.

B) A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms. C) Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms. D) A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces. - A

62. Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts. B) chondrocytes and osteocytes. C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts. D) osteoclasts and phagocytes. - D
63. If a certain individual's phagocytes were non-functioning, what would occur during fracture repair? A) A hematoma would not be able to form inside the break. B) The hematoma clot and other damaged tissue would not be cleared from the area during healing. C) Fibrocartilage could not be produced within the gap between the sections of broken bone. D) Excess bone tissue would not be removed toward the end of the healing process. - B
64. Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. She most likely has A) polydactyly. B) osteogenesis imperfecta. C) osteoporosis. D) a hematoma. - C
65. Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of A) rickets. B) heart disease. C) osteoporosis. D) menopause. - C

66. Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following except A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) increased height. D) kyphosis. - C
67. One of your friend's femurs is abnormally short and curved. When asked about it, they tell you that when they were very young, they fell from a tree and fractured the femur at the distal end. Their pediatrician urged the parents to allow your friend to receive surgery for the fracture, but they refused. What most likely happened to result in the abnormal femur? A) Lack of physical therapy caused the muscles of the leg to not heal correctly, inhibiting bone growth. B) Because the epiphyseal plate was not repaired, any subsequent growth in the bone was stunted and abnormal. C) The hematoma stage of the fracture never filled in with fibrocartilage, which caused the bone to never heal properly. D) Because he was young, the femur healed so rapidly that it grew incorrectly and no medical intervention prevented this from occurring. - B