ANESTHESIA PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2024-2025 LATEST UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSW, Exams of Nursing

Download ANESTHESIA PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2024-2025 LATEST UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSW and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ANESTHESIA PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2024-

LATEST UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+.

Xenon anesthesia all are true except:

1. Slow induction and recovery
2. Non explosive
3. Minimal cardiovascular side-effects
4. Low blood solubility 12/e p547-548 - Solution 1) Slow induction and recovery Anesthetic having epileptogenic potential is:
5. Desflurane
6. Sevoflurane
7. Ether
8. Halothane 11/e p432 - Solution 2) Sevoflurane The following causes increased intra ocular pressure:
9. Thiopentone
10. Althesin
11. Ketamine
12. Barbiturate Goodman and Gilman 12/e p538 - Solution Anaesthesia contraindicated in volvulus of gut is:
13. Halothane
14. Nitrous oxide
15. Ketamine
16. Pancuronium Goodman and Gilman 12/e p547 - Solution 2) Nitrous oxide Best uterine relaxation is seen with:
17. Chloroform

2. Nitrous oxide
3. Ether
4. Halothane 10/e p405; KDT 6/e p372 - Solution 4) Halothane Hallucinations are seen after ............... anaesthesia:
5. Ketamine
6. Thiopentone
7. Fentanyl
8. Nitrous oxide 10/e p409; KDT 6/e p376 - Solution 1) Ketamine Anaesthetic that has a smooth induction is:
9. Diethyl ether
10. Isoflurane
11. N
12. Halothane 10/e p404; KDT 6/e p372 - Solution 4) Halothane MAC of desflurane is:
14. 2
15. 4
16. 6 744; KDT 6/e p371 - Solution 4) 6 Remifentanil is:
17. Useful for short painful procedures
18. Metabolized by plasma esterases
19. Equipotent as fentanyl
20. All of these Good¬man and Gilman 11/e p572 - Solution 4) All of these Select the correct statement about nitrous oxide:
21. It irritates the respiratory mucosa
22. It has poor analgesic action

3. It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics
4. It frequently induces post anaesthetic nausea and retching KDT 6/e p371 - Solution 3) It is primarily used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics Remember: Nitrous oxide is a good analgesic. Dissociative anaesthesia' is produced by:
5. Ketamine
6. Fentanyl
7. Propofol
8. Both (a) and (b) are correct KDT 6/e p376 - Solution 1) Ketamine Ketamine should be avoided in:
9. The presence of increased arterial pressure
10. Pregnancy
11. Hypovolemic shock
12. Asthmatic /e p437 - Solution 1) The presence of increased arterial pressure The drug for OPD analgesia is:
13. Morphine
14. Pethidine
15. Fentanyl
16. Alfentanil 11/e p546 - Solution 4) Alfentanil True statement about sevoflurane is:
17. It is nephrotoxic at high doses
18. It has maximum risk of causing convulsions
19. It is cardiostable
20. It can cause fulminant hepatitis Goodman & Gilman 11/e p360; KDT 6/e p74 - Solution 1) It is nephrotoxic at high doses Which of the following does not have analgesic action:

1. Ether
2. Ketamine
3. Halothane
4. Morphine 6/e p372 - Solution 3) Halothane Halothane-No analgesia Nitrous oxide-- Good analgesia Induction agent of choice in day care surgery is:
5. Ketamine
6. Propofol
7. Methohexitone
8. Thiopentone sodium 6/e p375 - Solution 2) Propofol True statements regarding halothane is:
9. Hepatitis occurs in susceptible individuals after repeated dose
10. It potentiates competitive neuromuscular blockers
11. Causes respiratory depression
12. All of the above /e p432,461 - Solution 4) All of the above In raised ICT, anesthetic agent of choice is:
13. Enflurane
14. Isoflurane
15. Ketamine
16. Ether 6/e p373 - Solution 2) Isoflurane ## Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated in epilepsy?
17. Isoflurane
18. Enflurane
19. Halothane
20. Ether 6/e p372 - Solution 2) Enflurane In patients with liver disease, anesthetic of choice is:

1. Halothane
2. Ether
3. Isoflurane
4. None 6/e p373 - Solution 3) Isoflurane Dissociative anesthesia is seen on administration of:
5. Ether
6. Halothane
7. Enflurane
8. Ketamine 6/e p376 - Solution 4) Ketamine Thiopental sodium is administered intravenously as:
9. 25% solution
10. 2.5% solution
11. 0.25% solution
12. 0.025% solution Morgan 4/e p187 - Solution 2) 2.5% solution The recommended time for prophylactic antibiotic is:
13. 30 min. prior to induction of anesthesia
14. 15 min. after the initiation of surgery
15. At the time of induction
16. At the time of skin incision /e p898 - Solution 1) 30 min. prior to induction of anesthesia Methemoglobinemia is caused by:
17. Prilocaine
18. Ropivacaine
19. Bupivacaine
20. Procaine /e p449 - Solution 1) Prilocaine First local anesthetic used in clinical anaesthesia was:
21. Bupivacaine
22. Procaine
23. Lidocaine

4. Cocaine Ajay Yadav 3/e p105 - Solution 4) Cocaine In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between:
5. Dura and arachnoid
6. Pia and arachnoid
7. Dura and vertebra
8. Into the cord substance Katzung 10/e p419; KDT 6/e p359 - Solution 2) Pia and arachnoid Bupivacaine poisoning is treated with:
9. Esmolol
10. Sotalol
11. Diazepam
12. All of these Ajay yadav 2/e p110 - Solution 4) All of these The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on:
13. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected
14. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution
15. Posture of the patient
16. All of the above 6/e p359, 360 - Solution 4) All of the above In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of:
17. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory block
18. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
19. Motor block is higher than the sensory block
20. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has the same level 6/e p360 - Solution 2) Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for:
21. Orthopedic manipulation on the upper limb
22. Vascular surgery on the lower limb
23. Head and neck surgery
24. Caesarian section 6/e p361 - Solution 1) Orthopedic manipulation on the upper limb

Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is:

1. Procaine
2. Bupivacaine
3. Prilocaine
4. Tetracaine 6/e p357, 358 - Solution 2) Bupivacaine All are vasodilators except:
5. Procaine
6. Lidocaine
7. Cocaine
8. Chlorprocaine /e p448 - Solution 3) Cocaine The following statements about Bupivacaine are true except:
9. Must never be injected into a vein
10. More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
11. 0.5 percent is effective for sensory block
12. It produces methaemoglobinemia /e p448-450 - Solution 4) It produces methaemoglobinemia All are true about bupivacaine Except:
13. Less cardiotoxic than lignocaine
14. Dose increases with adrenaline
15. Long acting
16. Cannot be given in vein 6/e p357 - Solution 1) Less cardiotoxic than lignocaine Local anesthetics act by:
17. Affecting at the spinal level
18. Affecting the Na+ channels
19. Affecting the K+channels
20. Blocking axonal transport 6/e p353 - Solution 2) Affecting the Na+ channels

Local anesthetics:

1. Block the release of neurotransmitters
2. Block the influx of sodium into the cell
3. Increase the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
4. Inhibit the efflux of sodium from neurons 6/e p353 - Solution 2) Block the influx of sodium into the cell Post dural (Spinal) puncture headache is due to:
5. Seepage of CSF
6. Fine needle
7. Toxic effects of the drugs
8. Traumatic damage to nerve roots 6/e p360 - Solution 1) Seepage of CSF True statement regarding Bupivacaine is:
9. Used intravenously along with lignocaine
10. More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
11. Contraindicated in pregnancy
12. All of the above /e p448 - Solution 2) More cardiotoxic than lignocaine Percentage of lignocaine used in spinal anesthesia is:
13. 0.5%
14. 1%
15. 2%
16. 5% 7/e p368 - Solution The most potent and longest acting anaesthetic agent is:
17. Dibucaine
18. Tetracaine
19. Bupivacaine
20. Lignocaine 6/e p358 - Solution 1) Dibucaine Central muscle relaxants act by:
21. Decreasing nerve conduction

2. Inhibiting spinal polysynaptic reflexes
3. Blocking conduction across NM junction
4. Causing CNS depression
5. Decreasing muscle excitation 6/e p348 - Solution 2) Inhibiting spinal polysynaptic reflexes Cis-atracurium is preferred over atracurium, because:
6. It has rapid onset of action
7. It causes less release of histamine
8. It has short duration of action
9. It has less depressant action on heart Miller's 7/e p869 - Solution 2) It causes less release of histamine Laudanosine is a metabolite of:
10. Atracurium
11. Cis-atracurium
12. Pancuronium
13. Vecuronium Miller 7/e p880 - Solution 1) Atracurium Muscle relaxant of choice in liver disease is?
14. Atracurium
15. Pipecuronium
16. Rocuronium
17. Vecuronium /e p456 - Solution 1) Atracurium Which of the following is a metabolite of carisoprodol?
18. Doxylamine
19. Meprobromate
20. Dimethadione
21. Amphetamine Goodman and Gilman 11/e p422 - Solution 2) Meprobromate All of the following can aggravate Myasthenia gravis except:
22. Azathioprine
23. d- Tubocurarine

3. Tetracycline
4. Aminoglycoside Harrison 17/e p2677, Ajay yadav 2/e p94 - Solution Shortest acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant is:
5. Succinyl choline
6. Rapacuronium
7. Atracurium
8. Pancuronium Miller's anaesthesia 5/e p892; Drugs and equipment in Anaesthesia 5/e p78 Arun Kumar Paul - Solution d-Tubocurarine acts by:
9. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
10. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
11. Producing depolarizing block
12. By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine Katzung 10/e p429; KDT 6/e p342 - Solution 1) Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction Muscle relaxant of choice in renal and hepatic failure is:
13. Cis-atracurium
14. Vecuronium
15. Rocuronium
16. Rapacuronium Katzung 9/e p432;KDT 6/e p345 - Solution 1) Cis-atracurium Bradycardia is common after injection of:
17. Midazolam
18. Succinylcholine
19. Dopamine
20. Isoprenaline 6/e p343, 344 - Solution 2) Succinylcholine Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine in that:
21. It is a depolarizing blocker

2. Its action is not reversed by neostigmine
3. It can cause rise in BP on rapid.I.V. injection
4. It causes marked histamine release 6/e p343, 344 - Solution 3) It can cause rise in BP on rapid.I.V. injection Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by:
5. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings
6. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes
7. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential
8. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre 6/e p721, 722 - Solution The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on:
9. Decamethonium
10. Tubocurarine
11. Gallamine
12. Suxamethonium /e p454 - Solution 4) Suxamethonium Hoffman's elimination is seen with:
13. Atracurium
14. Vecuronium
15. Pancuronium
16. Rocuronium /e p454 - Solution 1) Atracurium Non-depolarizing blockade is potentiated by:
17. Hyperkalemia
18. Hypomagnesemia
19. Chronic phenytoin therapy
20. Quinidine 6/e p345 - Solution 4) Quinidine The drug causing curare like effect are all, EXCEPT:
21. Chloramphenicol
22. Polymyxin
23. Tetracycline

4. Streptomycin Clinical Anesthesiology by Murray and Morgaii/189;KDT 6/e p346 - Solution 1) Chloramphenicol Suxamethonium is:
5. Non depolarizing muscle relaxant
6. Depolarising muscle relaxant
7. Direct acting muscle relaxant
8. All of the above 5/e p345 - Solution Baclofen is:
9. Centrally acting muscle relaxant
10. Peripherally acting muscle relaxant
11. Both centrally and peripherally acting muscle relaxant
12. Direct acting muscle relaxant 6/e p339 - Solution Shortest acting neuromuscular blocker is:
13. Gallamine
14. Pancuronium
15. Succinylcholine
16. d-TC /e p457 - Solution 3) Succinylcholine Long acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxants is:
17. Succinylcholine
18. Mivacurium
19. Pancuronium
20. Phenyleplirine 6/e p343 - Solution 3) Pancuronium Mivacurium is short acting drug. In case of spasticity, the drug not used is:
21. Diazepam

2. Baclofen
3. Tizanidine
4. Amitryptiline 6/e p343 - Solution 4) Amitryptiline The following is the feature of depolarizing blockade?
5. Tetanic fade
6. Post tetanic potentiation
7. Progression to dual blockade
8. Antagonism by anticholinesterases 6/e p339 - Solution 3) Progression to dual blockade Drug not acting on neuromuscular junction is:
9. Baclofen
10. Carisoprodol
11. Haloperidol
12. All of the above /e p457 - Solution 4) All of the above Mechanism of action of curare is:
13. Reducing end plate potential
14. Reducing presynaptic potential
15. Inhibits k+ channels
16. Inhibits Na+channels 6/e p344 - Solution 1) Reducing end plate potential The term "balanced anaesthesia" has been given by:
17. Simpson
18. Fischer
19. Lundy
20. Mortan 7/e p348 - Solution 3) Lundy Regarding propofol, which one of the following is false:
21. It is used as an intravenous induction agent
22. It causes severe vomiting
23. It is painful on injecting intravenously

4. It has no muscle relaxant property Goodman Gilman 12/e p528 - Solution 2) It causes severe vomiting Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA) cream is:
5. Bupivacaine 2.0% + Prilocaine 2.5%
6. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5%
7. Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%
8. Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5% 7/e p382 - Solution 2) Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5% Ketamine produces:
9. Emergence delirium
10. Pain on injection
11. Bronchoconstriciton
12. Depression of cardiovascular system 7/e p366 - Solution 1) Emergence delirium Cocaine overdose presents with all of the following except:
13. Diaphoresis
14. Hypertension
15. Constricted pupils
16. Agitation 7/e p384 - Solution 3) Constricted pupils Baclofen is used in the treatment of:
17. Schizophrenia
18. Depression
19. Anxiety
20. Spasticity 7/e p365 - Solution 4) Spasticity Local anaesthetic used as an antiarrhythmic agent is:
21. Bupivacaine
22. Lignocaine
23. Cocaine
24. Chlorprocaine

7/e p353-354 - Solution 2) Lignocaine Pin index of oxygen is which one of the following:

1. 2, 5
2. 3, 5
3. 1, 5
4. 3, 6 7/e p366 - Solution 1) 2, 5 Which of these can be safely stopped before an abdominal surgery?
5. ACE inhibitors
6. Beta blocker
7. Statins
8. Steroids CMDT 2014/45-47 - Solution 1) ACE inhibitors Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?
9. General Anaesthesia
10. Brachial Plexus Block
11. Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia
12. Spinal Anaesthesia Short textbook of Anesthesia by Ajay Yadav 2/e p148 - Solution 3) Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia Which of the following induction agent produce cardiac stability?
13. Ketamine
14. Etomidate
15. Propofol
16. Midazolam /e p437 - Solution 2) Etomidate Anaesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery:
17. Nitrous oxide
18. Ether
19. Trilene

4. Halothane Goodman & Gilman 11/e p341; KDT 6/e p371 - Solution 2) Ether Ketamine is the preferred anaesthetic for the following EXCEPT:
5. Hypertensives
6. Trauma cases that have bled significantly
7. Burn dressing
8. Short operations on asthmatics 6/e p376 - Solution 1) Hypertensives An anaesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75°C is:
9. Ether
10. Halothane
11. Cyclopropane
12. Methoxyflurane Anesthesiology by Longnecker 2008/777 - Solution 4) Methoxyflurane All of the following are halogenated anaesthetic agents except:
13. Halothane
14. Propofol
15. Enflurane
16. Isoflurane 6/e p375 - Solution 2) Propofol Profound analgesia is produced by which parenteral anesthetic?
17. Thiopental
18. Propofol
19. Ketamine
20. ' Etomidate 6/e p377 - Solution 3) Ketamine All of the following statements about lignocaine are true EXCEPT:
21. It blocks active sodium channels with more affinity than resting sodium channels
22. It can cause cardiotoxicity
23. It is given orally for treatment of cardiac arrhythmias

4. Adrenaline increases the duration of action of lignocaine when used for infiltration anaesthesia. Katzung 12/e p453, 457, 458 - Solution 3) It is given orally for treatment of cardiac arrhythmias Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in?
5. Digital block
6. Spinal block
7. Epidural block
8. Regional anaesthesia /e p446 - Solution 1) Digital block Which of the following statements is not true of local anaesthetics?
9. The local anaesthetic is required in the unionized form for penetrating the neuronal membrane
10. The local anaesthetic approaches its receptor only from the intraneuronal face of the Na+ channel
11. The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na channel is in the resting state
12. The local anaesthetic combines. with its receptor in the ionized cationic form 6/e p352, 353 - Solution 3) The local anaesthetic binds to its receptor mainly when the Na channel is in the resting state The local anaesthetic with the longest duration of action is :
13. Procaine
14. Chlorprocaine
15. Lignocaine
16. Dibucaine 6/e p358 - Solution 4) Dibucaine Eutectic lignocaine-prilocaine has the following unique property:
17. It causes motor blockade without sensory block
18. By surface application, it can anaesthetize unbroken skin
19. It is not absorbed after surface application
20. It has strong vasoconstrictor action 6/e p357 - Solution 2) By surface application, it can anaesthetize unbroken skin An agent added to local anesthetics to speed the onset of action is:
21. Methylparaben

2. Bicarbonate
3. Fentanyl
4. Adrenaline 6/e p412 - Solution 2) Bicarbonate Bicarbonate-- To speed the onset of action Adrenaline-- To prolong the duration of action All of the following are properties of local anesthetics EXCEPT:
5. Blockade of voltage dependent Na' channels
6. Preferential binding to resting channels
7. Slowing of axonal impulse conduction
8. Increase in the membrane refractory period 6/e p415 - Solution 2) Preferential binding to resting channels The fall in blood pressure caused by d-tubocurarine is due to:
9. Reduced venous return
10. Ganglionic blockade
11. Histamine release
12. All of the above Lee 12/e p167, KDT 6/e p372; Ajay yadan 2/e p61,66 - Solution 4) All of the above One of the following statements about succinylcholine is true:
13. It may induce life threatening hyperkalemia
14. It has a long duration of action
15. It is the drug of choice in non traumatic rhabdomyolysis
16. It is useful in patients with spinal cord injuries with paraplegia 6/e p349 - Solution 1) It may induce life threatening hyperkalemia In pseudocholinesterase deficiency, drug to be used cautiously is
17. Barbiturate
18. Succinylcholine
19. Halothane
20. Gallamine 6/e p348 - Solution Regarding muscle relaxants which one of the following is true:

1. Atracurium is contraindicated in renal failure
2. Pancuronium causes bradycardia
3. Cis - atracurium is a depolarizing muscle relaxant
4. Vecuronium induced muscle relaxation can be reversed by neostigmine Nurse Anaesthesia by John J. Nagelhout p77 - Solution Which of the following intravenous induction agent suppress steroidogenesis?
5. Thiopentone
6. Propofol
7. Ketamine
8. Etomidate Goodman and Gilman, 12/e p538 - Solution 4) Etomidate Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors:
9. Thiopentone
10. Halothane
11. Desflurane
12. Ketamine 6/e p376 - Solution 4) Ketamine Which of the following general anaesthetics has poor muscle relaxant action?
13. Ether
14. Nitrous oxide
15. Halothane
16. Isoflurane 6/e p371 - Solution 2) Nitrous oxide As a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages EXCEPT:
17. Very good analgesic action
18. Non-inflammable and non-explosive
19. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia
20. Pleasant and non-irritating 6/e p372 - Solution 1) Very good analgesic action Shivering" is observed in the early part of postoperative period due to:
21. Chloroform

2. Halothane
3. Trichloroethylene
4. Ether Ajay yadav 2/e p61 - Solution 2) Halothane Which of the following agents is most commonly used to induce anaesthesia:-
5. Thiopentone sodium
6. Methohexitone sodium
7. Propofol
8. Etomidate /e p434 - Solution 1) Thiopentone sodium Which of the following increase the speed of induction with an inhalational agent?
9. Opiate pre-medication
10. Increased alveolar ventilation
11. Increased cardiac output
12. Reduced FIO /e p427 - Solution 2) Increased alveolar ventilation Maximum dose of lignocaine given with adrenaline for infiltration anaesthesia is:
13. 3 mg/kg
14. 5 mg/kg
15. 7 mg/kg
16. 10 mg/kg Goodman and Gilman 12/e p576 - Solution 3) 7 mg/kg From which of the following routes, absorption of local anaesthetic is maximum?
17. Intercostal
18. Epidural
19. Brachial
20. Caudal Miller's Anaesthesiology/591 - Solution 1) Intercostal Blockade of nerve conduction by a local anesthetic is characterized by:
21. Greater potential to block a resting nerve as compared to a stimulated nerve
22. Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block

3. Large myelinated fibers are blocked before the unmyelinated fibers
4. Cause consistent change of resting membrane potential Katzung 10/e p417; KDT 6/e p353 - Solution 2) Need to cross the cell membrane to produce the block The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall:
5. Cocaine
6. Dibucaine
7. Lignocaine
8. Procaine 6/e p356, 357 - Solution 1) Cocaine The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
9. Local anaesthetic that is used
10. Concentration of the local anesthetic used
11. Posture of the patient
12. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic 6/e p360 - Solution 4) Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic ???????? A patient receives a toxic dose of lignocaine i.v., the patient is likely to exhibit:
13. Excessive salivation
14. Mydriasis and diarrhea
15. Respiratory paralysis
16. Seizures and coma 6/e p356 - Solution 4) Seizures and coma Epinephrine added to a solution of lignocaine for a peripheral nerve block will:
17. Increase risk of convulsions
18. Increase the duration of action of the local anesthetic
19. Both (a) and (b)
20. None of these 6/e p354 - Solution 2) Increase the duration of action of the local anesthetic Which of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
21. Procaine
22. Bupivacaine

3. Lignocaine
4. Mepivacaine /e p441 - Solution 1) Procaine Which one of the following skeletal muscle relaxants causes pain on injection?
5. Succinyl choline
6. Vecuronium
7. Rocuroniurn
8. Pancuronium Pharmacology for Nurse Anaesthesiology/110 - Solution 3) Rocuroniurn True statement regarding depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs is:
9. The depolarized muscles fibres are unresponsive to other stimuli
10. Causes muscular fasciculations
11. Not reversed by neostigmine
12. All of the above /e p463 - Solution 4) All of the above The drug inactivated in plasma by spontaneous non- enzymatic degradation is:
13. Atracurium
14. Vecuronium
15. Pipecuronium
16. Pancuronium /e p462-464 - Solution 1) Atracurium Which one of the following drugs is not a long acting neuromuscular blocking agent?
17. Doxacurium
18. Mivacurium
19. Pancuronium
20. Pipecuronium 6/e p345 - Solution 2) Mivacurium All of the following are the true for post lumbar puncture headache except:
21. Presents 12 hours after procedure
22. Pain is relieved in standing position
23. Pain is worsened by head shaking
24. Pain is occipito-frontal in location

7/e p358 - Solution 2) Pain is relieved in standing position All of the following are intravenous anesthetic induction agents except:

1. Thiopentone sodium
2. Ketamine
3. Etomidate
4. Bupivacaine 7/e p513 - Solution 4) Bupivacaine The minimal alveolar concentration of an inhalational anaesthetic is a measure of its:
5. Potency
6. Therapeutic index
7. Diffusibility
8. Oilwater partition coefficient 6/e p365 - Solution 1) Potency Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of the use of the following anesthetic:
9. Ketamine
10. Thiopentone sodium
11. Halothane
12. Ether 6/e p372 - Solution 3) Halothane Following accidental intra-arterial injection of thiopentone, which should not be done?
13. Remove the needle
14. Intra -arterial heparin
15. Intra-arterial papaverine
16. Do a stellate ganglion block Ajay yadav 2/e p73 - Solution 1) Remove the needle Ram has a 4 ml lignocaine vial of 2% solution. How much lignocaine is present in 1 ml?
17. 2 mg
18. 8 mg
19. 20 mg
20. 200 mg

6/e p356, 357 - Solution 3) 20 mg %= gm/dl solution. The mechanism of action of local anesthetics is that they act on Na+ channels in their:

1. Activated state
2. Inactivated state
3. Resting state
4. Any state /e p443 - Solution 1) Activated state Muscular rigidity caused by opioids is due to the agonistic effect on which receptor?
5. Mu
6. Kappa
7. Delta
8. Sigma Miller 7/e p781 - Solution 1) , Mu Neostigmine antagonizes non-depolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
9. Decreasing the breakdown of acetylcholine at the motor end plate
10. Preventing the K+ efflux from the cell
11. Increasing the release of acetylcholine at the motor end plate
12. Depolarization at the motor end plate Katzung 10/e p436; KDT 6/e p99-101 - Solution 2) Preventing the K+ efflux from the cell The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium:
13. Streptomycin
14. Erythromycin
15. Penicillin G
16. Chloramphenicol 6/e p345 - Solution 1) Streptomycin A patient with ruptured spleen is taken for laparotomy. His blood pressure is 80/50 and heart rate is 125/min. Induction agent of choice for this patient is:
17. Sodium Thiopentone
18. Fentanyl

3. Ketamine
4. Halothane Goodman and Gilman 12/e p538-539 - Solution A 32 year old male is a known hypertensive and is being planned for cholecystectomy. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in this person?
5. Propofol
6. Ketamine
7. Midazolam
8. Etomidate /e p437 - Solution 2) Ketamine A patient with mitral stenosis had to undergo surgery. Pre-anaesthetic checkup revealed the increased liver enzymes. Which of the following inhalational agent should be preferred in this patient?
9. Xenon
10. Enflurane
11. Halothane
12. Sevoflurane Goodman and Gilman 12/e p547-548, Morgan's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 11/e p166-167, Wiley 7/e p527-532 - Solution 1) Xenon Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with pneumothorax, pneumopericardium or intestinal obstruction, because it:
13. Depresses an already compromised myocardium
14. Permits the use of limited FI02 only
15. Is less soluble than nitrogen
16. Causes the expansion of air filled body cavities Goodman and Gilman 12/e p547 - Solution 4) Causes the expansion of air filled body cavities A 5 years old child is suffering from cyanotic heart disease. He is planned for corrective surgery. The induction agent of choice would be:
17. Thiopentone
18. Ketamine
19. Halothane
20. Midazolam Ajay Yadav 2/e p215 - Solution 2) Ketamine