Joint Operation Planning Processes and Air Defense in Military Operations, Exams of Marketing Business-to-business (B2B)

Download Joint Operation Planning Processes and Air Defense in Military Operations and more Exams Marketing Business-to-business (B2B) in PDF only on Docsity! AOC IQT CPD SOBs for Block 2 Latest Exam Update 2024. *Short Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)* (PLN-211) - Correct answer *Lower tier threat* with a range up to 500nm/1000km and provides less than 3 minutes of response time. *Medium Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)* (PLN-211) - Correct answer *Lower tier threat* with a range from 500-1600nm/1000- 3000km which provides approximately 5 minutes of response time. *Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)* (PLN-211) - Correct answer *Upper tier threat* with a range from 1600-3000nm /3000- 5500km and boost response time to 10 minutes. *Intercontinental Range Ballistic Missile (ICBM)* (PLN-211) - Correct answer *Upper tier threat* with a range over 3000nm/5500km and can impact sometime after 20 minutes. Mission of *Joint Surveillance Targeting and Attack Radar System (JSTARS)* (PLN-211, SOB 1a) - Correct answer Its mission is to locate, classify and track ground targets in all weather conditions. It provides near real time surveillance and targeting information on moving and stationary ground targets, slow-moving rotary and fixed-wing aircraft, and rotating antennae. Purpose of the *Defense Support Program (DSP)* (PLN-211, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Its purpose is to protect the United States and its allies by *detecting missile launches, space launches and nuclear detonations*. Mission of the *Patriot* (PLN-211, SOB 1c) - Correct answer Its mission is *to protect forces and selected geopolitical assets* from aerial attack, missile attack, and surveillance. Overall responsibility of the Army Air and Missile Defense Command (AAMDC) (PLN-211, SOB 1d) - Correct answer It has overall responsibility for *planning Army AMD operations in support of the JFC*. It ensures that the Army's contribution to the IAMD fight is seamlessly integrated, coordinated, and synchronized with other Army, joint, and multinational units, and supports the JFC's intent. Primary role of the E-2C Hawkeye (PLN-211, SOB 1e) - Correct answer Its primary role is *air surveillance and aircraft control in support of Detection for the US Navy*. Major Marine Corps IAMD resources available for theater and strategic asset protection. (PLN-211, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Its major IAMD resources available for theater and strategic asset protection: - C2 & Detection: - TACC - TBMCS - TAOC - EW/C - AN/TPS-59 (National Resource) - DASC - Engagement: - F/A-18 Major Air Force IAMD resources available for theater and strategic asset protection. (PLN-211, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Its major IAMD resources available for theater and strategic asset protection: - Detection: - AWACS - JSTARS - Cobra Ball - CRC - Cobra Dane - UEWRs - DSP Satellites - SBIRS - Engagement: - F-15C Eagle - F-22 Raptor (PLN-301, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Its responsibilities are: - Monitor capability of *radar elements* and workload of assigned tactical missions and assign surveillance areas for each system - Monitor air control facility status, adjust air defense regions and air surveillance and control sector responsibilities IAW the operational/tactical environment - Plan necessary air request/direction and IAMD C2 *radio/data link* networks with *dedicated frequencies* - Develop communications emission control procedures - Develop an operational concept for coordinated employment of the TACS • Develop an operational concept for the coordinated employment of space communications systems Responsibilities of the Airspace Management Cell (PLN-301, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Its responsibilities: - Develop the *ACP* - Develop the *ACO* - Develop plans, policies and procedures for *airspace control* - *Coordinate airspace requests* and matters affecting military aircraft control - Coordinate with Air & Missile Defense Planners, the MAAP Team, ATO Production Team & Liaisons - Develop procedures for handoff of air traffic - Prepare airspace control instructions - *Review and approve the ACO* on behalf of the ACA - Prepare briefings on airspace control procedures and status of control facilities as required - Maintain a daily events log reflecting all agreements made regarding of significant airspace events Responsibilities of the SPINS Cell (PLN-301, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Its responsibilities: - *Develop SPINS* during Deliberate, or Crisis Action Planning - Continue to *modify SPINS* throughout the campaign - Develop Standard Operating Procedures that delineate at what command level SPINS approval resides. - Collect input to SPINS from SMEs *Center of Gravity (COG)* (PLN-303) - Correct answer Characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight. Two Joint Operation Planning Processes (PLN-303) - Correct answer Deliberate Planning & Crisis Action Planning (CAP) Deliberate Planning (PLN-303) - Correct answer Preparation of plans that occur in non-crisis situations. Crisis Action Planning (CAP) (PLN-303) - Correct answer Based on current events and conducted in time-sensitive situations and emergencies using assigned, attached, and allocated forces and resources. AADP *Format* (PLN-303) - Correct answer Formatted using the *following paragraphs*: 1. Situation 2. Mission 3. Air and Missile Defense Operations 4. Logistics 5. Command, Control, and Communications 6. Area Air Defense Plan Guidance AADP development process (PLN-303, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Steps involved: 1. Initiation 2. Mission Analysis 3. AADC Obj & Tasks 4. CAL Evaluation 5. Defense Design/Force Laydown 6. Establish Operating Procedures 7. Order Development Who develops the AADP? (PLN-303, SOB 1a) - Correct answer *C2 Planning Team* develops it. Who approves the AADP? (PLN-303, SOB 1b) - Correct answer The *JFC* approves it. Mission Statement (PLN-305) - Correct answer Clear and concise statement of the objective to be accomplished and the purpose. How to conduct mission analysis. (PLN-305, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Steps involved: *1. Identify Mission Tasks*: Determine specified, implied, and essential tasks *2. Conduct Preliminary Risk Assessment*: Review friendly situation and available resource; determine constraints and risks; identify facts and assumptions. *3. Initiate IPOE*: Focus on enemy capes, intentions, battlespace environment, and other essential information; identify potential enemy COAs (most likely and most dangerous). *4. Identify/Develop CC Intent*: Articulates both the *end state* and *purpose* of the operation, and helps *focus the staff throughout the rest of the planning process*. *5. Draft Mission Statement*: Contains the *Who, What, Where (task paramaters), When, and Why (purpose)* of an operation; Framed as a clear, concise statement of the essential tasks to be accomplished the purpose to be achieved. *6. Mission Analysis Brief*: Overview of the process thus far and information developed; concludes with a proposed mission statement to the commander; developed by the JFACC/AADC Staff. The *end product* of mission analysis (PLN-305, SOB 1a) - Correct answer The *Mission Statement* is its end product. *Specified Tasks* (PLN-305, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Tasks that *are stated* in the commander's directives. *Implied Tasks* (PLN-305, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Tasks that are *not stated*, but are necessary to do the mission. *Essential Tasks* *2. Critical Asset Nomination*: Developed by JFC Staff (J5-Plans); Critical Assets are considered to be HVAs; approved by JFC. *3. Critical Asset Prioritization*: Utilizes CVT methodology. *4. Defense Design*: AADC allocates available active AMD forces to defend the prioritized assets list to create the DAL which is approved by the JFC. *Commander responsible* for developing the prioritized CAL. (PLN-309, SOB 1a) - Correct answer Developed by the *JFC and Staff (J-5 Plans)* during the Deliberate or Crisis Action Planning (CAP) process to defend or protect critical assets. Different types of *High Value Assets (HVAs)* (PLN-309, SOB 1b) - Correct answer The different types are: - *Geopolitical* - *Airborne* (AWACS, JSTARS, Tankers, etc) - *Units* (AOC, CRC, maneuver and expeditionary forces) The *commander* responsible for *allocating* active AMD forces to defend the prioritized CAL. (PLN-309, SOB 1c) - Correct answer The *AADC* is responsible for allocating active AMD forces for this. *Defended Asset List (DAL)*. (PLN-309, SOB 1d) - Correct answer A list of those assets on the CAL that are *covered by JFC AMD forces and capabilities*. It is the prioritized CAL with allocated AMD forces. Defended Asset List (DAL) *approval authority*. (PLN-309, SOB 1e) - Correct answer The *JFC* plays this role for the DAL. *Criticality* (PLN-309, SOB 2a) - Correct answer The degree to which an asset is *essential* to accomplishing the mission. The *relationship* between vulnerability, susceptibility, and recoverability. (PLN-309, SOB 2b) - Correct answer Can be described as this: Vulnerability consists of two parts: susceptibility and recoverability. *Threat* (PLN-309, SOB 2c) - Correct answer The *assessed probability* that an asset or force will be targeted for surveillance or attack. *Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) (PLN-311, SOB 1a) - Correct answer The time-phased force data, non-unit related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the *operation plan (OPLAN)* or operation order or ongoing rotation of forces. *Destination* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The station or location in an objective area where a unit will be employed. *Port Of Embarkation (POE)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The geographic point in the routing scheme from which cargo or personnel depart on strategic transportation. *Port Of Debarkation (POD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The geographic point in the routing scheme at which cargo or personnel are discharged from strategic lift. *Intermediate Location* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer A point along a deployment routing scheme, other than origin, destination, POD, or POE, at which a deploying unit will be scheduled to lay over for at least one day. *Origin* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The beginning point of a deployment. *C-Day* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The unnamed day on which a deployment operation commences or is to commence. The day that the contingency begins. *Combatant Commander's Required Delivery Date (CCRD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The original date, relative to C-Day, specified by the combatant commander for arrival of forces or cargo at the destination; shown in the time-phased force and deployment data to assess the impact of later arrival. *Required Delivery Date (RDD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The date that a force must arrive at the destination and complete offloading. *Latest Arrival Date (LAD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) (PLN-311, SOB 1b) - Correct answer A day, relative to C-Day, that is specified by the supported combatant commander as the latest date when a unit, a resupply shipment, or replacement personnel can arrive at the port of debarkation and support the concept of operations. *Earliest Arrival Date (EAD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) (PLN-311, SOB 1b) - Correct answer A day, relative to C-Day, that is specified as the earliest date when a unit, a resupply shipment, or replacement personnel can be accepted at a port of debarkation during a deployment. *Available-to-Load Date (ALD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer A date specified for each unit in a time-phased force and deployment data indicating when that unit will be ready to load at the point of embarkation. *Ready-to-Load Date (RLD)* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer The date when a unit will be ready to move from the origin (i.e. mobilization station). *Bulk* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Cargo that does not exceed 108" (L) x 88" (W) x 96" (H). *Oversized* (PLN-311, Obj. 1) - Correct answer Air cargo that exceeds usable dimensions of a 463L Pallet loaded to design height of 96 inches. *Defensive Counterair (DCA)* (PLN-313, Obj. 1) - Correct answer All *defensive measures* designed to detect, identify, intercept, and destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace. *Area* (type of defensive coverage) (PLN-313) - Correct answer Type of defensive coverage that uses a combination of weapon systems to defend broad areas, such as aircraft within Fighter Engagement Zones (FEZ) and Surface-to-Air Missiles (SAM) that are employed within Missile Engagement Zones (MEZ) to defend assets within a region/sector. *Point* (type of defensive coverage) (PLN-313) - Correct answer Type of defensive coverage that protects limited areas, normally in defense of vital elements of forces or installations. (IE: SAM or AAA unit w/in a MEZ to protect an airfield.) *Self* (type of defensive coverage) (PLN-313) - Correct answer Type of defensive coverage that allows friendly units to defend themselves against direct attacks or threats of attack with organic weapons and systems. *High Value Airborne Assets (HVAA)* (type of defensive coverage) (PLN-313) - Correct answer Type of defensive coverage that defends airborne assets that are so important that any loss could seriously impact US warfighting capabilities. Types of Threat Potentials (PLN-313) - Correct answer Missile Threat Origins (MTO) & Air Avenues of Approach (AAoA) What a Course of Action (COA) for an AADP is based upon. (PLN-313) - Correct answer Based upon the *CAL*, location of Theater Air and Missle Defense (TAMD) forces (*resources*), and potential *threat* avenues of approach. *OPTASKLINK* (PLN-313) - Correct answer Covers all communications data links that will be available within the operations area. *Passive AMD* (PLN-313, Obj. 1) (PLN-313, SOB 1a) - Correct answer All measures, *other than active* AMD, taken to minimize the effectiveness of hostile air and missile threats against friendly forces and assets. These measures include: detection and warning systems; camouflage and concealment; deception; hardening; reconstitution; Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (NBC) defensive equipment and facilities; redundancy; dispersal; and mobility. *Active AMD* (PLN-313, Obj. 1) (PLN-313, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Direct defensive action taken to *destroy, nullify, or reduce* the effectiveness of air and missile threats against friendly forces and assets. Includes the use of aircraft, air defense weapons, missile defense weapons, Electronic Warfare (EW), sensors and other available weapons/capabilities. Relationship between *defense design* and the *CAL*. (PLN-313, SOB 2a) - Correct answer Their relationship: AADC will allocate available active air and missile defense forces to defend the Prioritized CAL. Relationship between *DCA operations* and *active and passive defense measures*. (PLN-313, SOB 2b) - Correct answer Can be summed up as: DCA *includes* active and passive defense measures. Types of *defensive coverage* included in active air defense. (PLN-313, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Includes: - Area - Point - Self - HVAA Protection What the *AADP* integrates. (PLN-313, SOB 2d) - Correct answer Integrates active air (and missile) *Defense Design*, *passive defense measures* and the *C2* to provide a comprehensive approach to defending against the threat. *Common JFC/JFACC Authorities* which should be included and described in the *AADP*. (PLN-317) - Correct answer - Identification - Hostile Declaration - Air Defense Warning (ADW) Declaration - Weapons Control Status Declaration - Scramble - Commit - Engagement - Border Crossing *Identification (ID)* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority that allows for execution of the ID policy (tracks friendly and suspect/unknown). *Hostile Declaration* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority to *declare a target "HOSTILE"*. Does not constitute engagement authority. *Air Defense Warning (ADW) Declaration* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority to *change ADW*. *Weapons Control Status Declaration* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority to declare WCS for a particular area and time. Applies to both Air Breathing Threats (ABT) and Theater Ballistic Missiles (TBM). At no time will Air Defense Artillery (ADA) be denied engagement authority against TBMs. *Scramble* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority to launch ATO-designated alert missions (ground alerts) to support DCA operations. *Commit* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer Authority to dedicate an asset to *prepare* to engage an entity (position before engagement). Applies individually to ABTs and TBMs. Does not imply engagement authority. *Engagement* (common JFC/JFACC Authority included in AADP) (PLN-317) - Correct answer A primary FCO that directs units to *stop the firing sequence* against a designated target; however, units may continue to track and missiles already in flight are permitted to continue to intercept. *Hold Fire* (a primary FCO) (PLN-317) - Correct answer A primary FCO and *emergency order to stop firing*. If technically possible, missiles already in flight must be prevented from intercepting. Rules of Engagement (ROE) *approval authority*. (PLN-317) - Correct answer Approved by *JFC*. (Hint: Directives issued by a competent military authority, which delineates the circumstances, and limitations under which US forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forces encountered.) *Weapon Engagement Zone (WEZ)* (PLN-313) - Correct answer Airspace of defined dimensions where the responsibility for engagement normally rests with the commanders of a particular weapons system, or systems under their control. *Types of Weapon Engagement Zones (WEZ)* (PLN-313) - Correct answer - Joint Engagement Zone (JEZ) - Fighter Engagement Zone (FEZ) - Missile Engagement Zone (MEZ) - Short-Range Air Defense (SHORAD) Engagement Zone (SHOREADEZ) *Joint Engagement Zone* (PLN-317, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Airspace of defined dimensions within which multiple AMD Systems (surface-to-air missiles and aircraft) are simultaneously employed to engage air threats. *Fighter Engagement Zone* (PLN-317, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Airspace of defined dimension within which the responsibility for engagement lies with the *fighter*. *Missile Engagement Zone* (PLN-317, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Airspace of defined dimensions within which the responsibility for engagement, when delegated, rests with *high-altitude Surface to Air Missiles (SAM)*. *Short-Range Air Defense (SHORAD) System* (PLN-317, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Airspace of defined dimensions within which the responsibility for engagement of air threats normally rests with *SHORAD weapon*. *Air Defense Warning Condition (ADWC)* (PLN-317) - Correct answer A degree of air attack probability based on the threat assessment. *Air Defense Warning (ADW) Conditions* (PLN-317) - Correct answer - White - Yellow - Red *White* (ADWC) (PLN-317) - Correct answer An ADW condition that states that attack by hostile forces is *improbable*. *Yellow* (ADWC) (PLN-317) - Correct answer An ADW condition that states that attack by hostile forces is *probable*. *Red* (ADWC) (PLN-317) - Correct answer An ADW condition that states that attack by hostile forces is *imminent or in progress*. *Airspace Control Plan* (ACP) (PLN-319) - Correct answer Document approved by the JFC that provides specific planning guidance and procedures for the airspace control system for the joint force operational area. *Airspace Control Order* (ACO) (PLN-319) - Correct answer Implements the Airspace Control Plan (ACP) that provides the details of the approved requests for Airspace Coordinating Measures (ACM). Joint Air Operations Center (JAOC) *divisions* where the AMT works. (PLN-319, SOB 1a) - Correct answer Normally located within the *Combat Plans* and *Combat Operations Division (COD)* of the JAOC. *Two primary documents* produced by the AMT planners. (PLN-319, SOB 1b) - Correct answer Normally creates the *ACP* and the *ACO*. *Airspace Control Means Request (ACMREQ)* (PLN-319, SOB 1c) - Correct answer The United States Message Text Format (USMTF) message used to request Airspace Coordinating Measures (ACM). Purpose of a *TACOPDAT*. (PLN-321, SOB 1a) - Correct answer To establish integrated air and missile defense (IAMD) responsibilities or provide supplementary air defense orders. Produced by AMD Team. *C2 Plans Team* (PLN-321, SOB 1b) - Correct answer The CPD team that is responsible for developing the TACOPDAT. *IRIS Organizational Messaging (IOM)* (PLN-321, SOB 1c) - Correct answer *TBMCS application* used to produce a TACOPDAT. Target (ISR-413, Obj. 1) - Correct answer An entity (person, place, or thing) considered for possible engagement or action to alter or minimize the function it performs for the adversary. Target System (ISR-413, Obj. 1) - Correct answer All of the targets situated in a particular geographical area and functionally related so that their destruction would produce some particular effect desired by the attacker. Joint Target List (ISR-413, Obj. 1) - Correct answer A consolidated list of selected targets, upon which there are no restrictions placed, considered to have military significance in the JFC's operational area. (ISR-413, SOB 2c) - Correct answer The JIPTL consists of targets that were previously on the TNL. The TNL consists of targets that are nominated for inclusion on the JIPTL. Methods for target nomination prioritization (ISR-413, SOB 2d) - Correct answer - Task Priority: Each target is directly assigned to an already prioritized Tactical Task (TT). - Targeting Category Nominations: Each target is coded according to its criticality. Purpose of the AOD (PLN-405) - Correct answer Provides daily guidance for the ATO. *Team* responsible for AOD development (PLN-405, SOB 1a) - Correct answer *SRD* develops it, specifically the *Strategy Guidance Team (SGT)*. When AOD development occurs within the Air Tasking Cycle. (PLN-405, SOB 1b) - Correct answer It is developed during the first step of the ATO cycle. Purpose of the JAOP (PLN-405, SOB 2a) - Correct answer Provides a foundation for planning, executing, and assessing air operations throughout the JFC's entire campaign. It is the JFC's plan for integrating and coordinating joint air operations and encompasses air capabilities and forces supported by, and in support of, other joint force components. Air Apportionment (PLN-405, SOB 2b) - Correct answer The determination and assignment of the total *expected effort* by percentage and/or priority that should be devoted to the various air operations for a given period of time. JFACC's typical *method* of making an air apportionment recommendation (PLN-405, SOB 2c) - Correct answer Makes this recommendation in terms of *priority* or *percentage of effort* against assigned mission-type orders. How prioritized tactical objectives and tactical tasks influence ATO development (PLN-405, SOB 2d) - Correct answer They truly represent the desired effects and focus of effort for a specific ATO based on the air apportionment decision and detailed JFC/JFACC guidance. Content in paragraph three of the AOD (PLN-405, SOB 3a) - Correct answer Contains: 1) JFACC Intent Statement 2) Operational Concept 3) Selected Tactical Objectives and Tasks 4) Other areas of interest (general guidance, attack guidance and risk recommendatoins, AADP guidance, etc.) 5) Prioritized Collection Requirements Content in the JFACC's Intent statement (PLN-405, SOB 3b) - Correct answer Contains the *desired end state* and the *purpose*. It includes the priority of effects this ATO's operations must produce and the purpose of achieving them. Content in the JFACC's Operational Concept statement (PLN-405, SOB 3c) - Correct answer Includes a brief word description of "how" the JFACC intends to employ joint air and space capabilities during this specific ATO. Elements that compose Prioritized Collection Requirements (PLN-405, SOB 4a) - Correct answer Includes: - Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIRs) - Friendly Force Information Requirements (FFIRs) - Commander's Critical Information Requirements (CCIRs) System (in regards to EBAO) (PLN-403, SOB 1a) - Correct answer A functionally, physically, or behaviorally related group of regularly interacting or interdependent elements; that group of elements forming a unified whole. Causal Link (PLN-403, SOB 1b) - Correct answer An explanation of why an action/task or effect will cause or contribute to a given effect. Intended Effects (PLN-403, SOB 1c) - Correct answer Direct or indirect effects and are outcomes, events, or consequences desired, planned for, and predicted. Unintended Effects (PLN-403, SOB 1c) - Correct answer Desirable or undesirable effects that are not planned for or predicted. The focus of EBAO (PLN-403, SOB 2a) - Correct answer Behaviors as well as physical change. Relationship between systems, nodes, and links (PLN-403, SOB 2b) - Correct answer Systems are made up of nodes that are linked together behaviorally, physically, or functionally. Three levels of objectives and tasks used in EBAO planning (PLN-403, SOB 3a) - Correct answer - Operational Objectives - Tactical Objectives - Tactical Tasks Relationship between the three levels of objectives and tasks (PLN-403, SOB 3b) - Correct answer OOs are supported by TOs which are supported by TTs. (lol, "TTs") Measure of Effectiveness (PLN-403, SOB 3c) - Correct answer Determine how well effects are being produced and how successful those effects are in accomplishing the desired *objectives*. "Are we doing the right things?" Measure of Performance (PLN-403, SOB 3c) - Correct answer Measure achieved friendly actions that are tied to measuring a *task's* performance or accomplishment. "Are we doing things right?" Two primary methods for prioritizing targets/JDPIs. (PLN-401) - Correct answer - Task Prioritized Nominations - Targeting Category Nominations Targeting Category Nominations (PLN-401) - Correct answer A prioritization within a prioritization. Consists of: - Alpha - Bravo - Charlie