APEA 3P Pathophysiology Exam (New Questions with Rationales) 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download APEA 3P Pathophysiology Exam (New Questions with Rationales) 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! APEA 3P Pathophysiology New Questions with Rationales 2024 1. A 50-year-old male presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. ECG shows ST elevation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Stable angina B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Pericarditis D. Pulmonary embolism Correct Answer: B. Acute myocardial infarction Rationale: ST elevation on ECG is indicative of an acute myocardial infarction, which requires immediate medical intervention. 2. A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with increased thirst, urination, and an elevated blood glucose level. Which pathophysiological process is primarily responsible for these symptoms? A. Insulin resistance B. Decreased insulin production C. Glucagonoma D. Somatostatinoma Correct Answer: B. Decreased insulin production Rationale: In type 1 diabetes mellitus, the pancreatic beta cells are destroyed, leading to decreased insulin production and subsequent hyperglycemia. 7. A 45-year-old female presents with weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate to evaluate for the suspected condition? A. Fasting blood glucose B. Thyroid function tests C. Serum electrolytes D. Cortisol levels Correct Answer: B. Thyroid function tests Rationale: These symptoms are suggestive of hypothyroidism, and thyroid function tests would be the most appropriate initial diagnostic study. 8. A patient with asthma experiences an acute exacerbation. Which pathophysiological mechanism is primarily involved in the narrowing of the airways? A. Alveolar collapse B. Bronchoconstriction C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Pleural effusion Correct Answer: B. Bronchoconstriction Rationale: Asthma exacerbations involve bronchoconstriction, leading to narrowed airways and difficulty breathing. 9. A patient presents with a productive cough and fever. A chest X-ray shows a lobar consolidation. Which organism is the most common cause of this presentation? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Legionella pneumophila Correct Answer: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae Rationale: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia, which typically presents with lobar consolidation on imaging. 10. A patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible for these symptoms? A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D Correct Answer: A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is caused by thiamine deficiency, often seen in alcohol abuse. 11. A patient presents with a swollen, painful joint and is suspected of having gout. Which diagnostic study would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis? A. Serum uric acid level B. Joint X-ray C. Synovial fluid analysis D. Rheumatoid factor Correct Answer: C. Synovial fluid analysis Rationale: Synovial fluid analysis can reveal monosodium urate crystals, which are diagnostic of gout. 12. A patient with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with sudden onset of severe back pain. A CT scan shows an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which risk factor is most strongly associated with this condition? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperlipidemia C. Smoking D. Obesity Correct Answer: C. Smoking Rationale: Smoking is a strong risk factor for the development of an abdominal aortic aneurysm due to its effects on vascular health. 13. A patient presents with a red, warm, swollen joint and fever. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Osteoarthritis B. Septic arthritis C. Gout D. Rheumatoid arthritis Correct Answer: B. Septic arthritis A. Lumbar puncture B. CT scan of the head C. Blood cultures D. MRI of the spine Correct Answer: A. Lumbar puncture Rationale: These symptoms are suggestive of meningitis, and a lumbar puncture is critical for diagnosis and determining the causative organism. Which of the following best describes the process of cellular adaptation in response to stress? A) Hypertrophy B) Hyperplasia C) Metaplasia D) Dysplasia Correct Answer: C) Metaplasia Rationale: Metaplasia involves the reversible change of one cell type to another in response to chronic irritation or stress. What is the primary pathogenic mechanism of Type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells B) Insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion C) Deficiency of insulin D) Genetic mutation in insulin receptors Correct Answer: B) Insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance and inadequate insulin secretion. Which diagnostic study is essential for confirming the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A) Chest X-ray B) Echocardiogram C) D-dimer assay D) Doppler ultrasound Correct Answer: D) Doppler ultrasound Rationale: Doppler ultrasound is the gold standard for diagnosing DVT due to its high sensitivity and specificity. What is the hallmark manifestation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A) Wheezing B) Dyspnea C) Productive cough D) Chest pain Correct Answer: B) Dyspnea Rationale: Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is a key symptom of COPD due to airflow limitation. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis? A) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol B) Low blood pressure C) Physical activity D) Smoking Correct Answer: D) Smoking Rationale: Smoking is a major risk factor for atherosclerosis due to its detrimental effects on vascular health. In the context of Alzheimer's disease, which neurofibrillary tangle is predominantly composed of? A) Amyloid-beta plaques B) Tau protein C) Synaptic vesicles D) Dopamine receptors Correct Answer: B) Tau protein Rationale: Neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer's disease are primarily composed of abnormal tau protein. Which of the following conditions is associated with excess production of growth hormone in adulthood? A) Cushing's syndrome B) Acromegaly Which of the following diagnostic tests is essential for confirming the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A) Electroencephalogram (EEG) B) Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis C) Thyroid function tests D) Carotid ultrasound Correct Answer: B) Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis Rationale: Examination of cerebrospinal fluid can reveal characteristic abnormalities in MS. In the context of heart failure, which medication class is commonly prescribed to reduce preload and afterload? A) Beta-blockers B) Calcium channel blockers C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors D) Diuretics Correct Answer: C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Rationale: ACE inhibitors help reduce both preload and afterload, improving cardiac function in heart failure. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is characteristic of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A) Excessive mucus production in the airways B) Damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane C) Vasoconstriction of pulmonary blood vessels D) Hyperactivity of bronchial smooth muscle Correct Answer: B) Damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane Rationale: ARDS is characterized by increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane leading to pulmonary edema. What is the primary etiology of peptic ulcers in the majority of cases? A) Excessive gastric acid production B) Helicobacter pylori infection C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use D) Stress and anxiety Correct Answer: B) Helicobacter pylori infection Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers in most cases. Which of the following diagnostic studies is crucial for evaluating suspected pulmonary embolism? A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lungs B) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan C) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan D) Arterial blood gas analysis Correct Answer: B) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan Rationale: V/Q scan is commonly used to assess pulmonary perfusion in suspected pulmonary embolism. In the context of acute kidney injury, which type is characterized by a sudden decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) due to decreased renal perfusion? A) Prerenal B) Intrarenal C) Postrenal D) Renal Correct Answer: A) Prerenal Rationale: Prerenal acute kidney injury results from decreased renal perfusion, leading to a rapid decline in GFR. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate metabolism? A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) Growth hormone D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Correct Answer: A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Rationale: PTH plays a key role in calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the body. D) Environmental pollution Correct Answer: B) Smoking Rationale: Smoking is the primary cause of COPD, leading to chronic inflammation and damage to the airways and alveoli. 4. Which of the following manifestations is characteristic of hypothyroidism? A) Weight loss B) Tachycardia C) Cold intolerance D) Excessive sweating Correct Answer: C) Cold intolerance Rationale: In hypothyroidism, decreased thyroid hormone levels lead to a slowed metabolism and poor heat production, resulting in intolerance to cold temperatures. 5. In the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus, which of the following processes is disrupted? A) Insulin secretion is increased B) Insulin resistance develops C) Glucose uptake is enhanced D) Pancreatic beta cells are hyperactive Correct Answer: B) Insulin resistance develops Rationale: Insulin resistance is a key feature of type 2 diabetes where the body's cells become less responsive to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. 6. Which imaging modality is commonly used to diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) B) X-ray C) Ultrasound D) Computed tomography (CT) scan Correct Answer: C) Ultrasound Rationale: Ultrasound is a non-invasive and accurate imaging technique used to detect blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, such as in cases of DVT. 7. What is the primary etiology of peptic ulcer disease? A) Alcohol consumption B) Helicobacter pylori infection C) Chronic stress D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) use Correct Answer: B) Helicobacter pylori infection Rationale: The majority of peptic ulcers are caused by infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which leads to inflammation and ulcer formation in the stomach or duodenum. 8. Which of the following laboratory tests is most indicative of liver function? A) Serum amylase B) Total protein and albumin levels C) Troponin D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Correct Answer: B) Total protein and albumin levels Rationale: Total protein and albumin levels are markers of liver function, reflecting the synthetic capacity of the liver to produce proteins. 9. In the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis, which cells are primarily implicated in the autoimmune response? A) T lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes C) Natural killer (NK) cells D) Neutrophils Correct Answer: A) T lymphocytes Rationale: Ischemia, caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, can result in necrosis of cardiac cells if not promptly treated, leading to irreversible damage seen in MI. 14. Which of the following diagnostic studies is essential for confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE)? A) Blood culture B) Sputum culture C) D-dimer assay D) Serum lipase level Correct Answer: C) D-dimer assay Rationale: A D-dimer assay is a blood test that measures the presence of fragments released during the breakdown of blood clots, aiding in the diagnosis of PE when clinical suspicion is high. 15. What is the primary etiology of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A) Viral infection B) Food allergies C) Autoimmune response D) Bacterial overgrowth Correct Answer: C) Autoimmune response Rationale: IBD, including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, is characterized by an abnormal immune response targeting the gastrointestinal tract, leading to chronic inflammation. 16. Which diagnostic modality is commonly used to assess bone mineral density in osteoporosis? A) Serum calcium levels B) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan C) Thyroid scan D) Renal ultrasound Correct Answer: B) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan Rationale: DXA scanning is the gold standard for measuring bone mineral density and diagnosing osteoporosis by evaluating bone strength and risk of fractures. 17. In the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease, which type of protein accumulates in the brain leading to neuronal damage? A) Tau protein B) Amyloid beta C) Insulin D) Dopamine Correct Answer: B) Amyloid beta Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, abnormal accumulation of amyloid beta protein leads to the formation of plaques in the brain, contributing to neuronal dysfunction and cognitive decline. 18. Which of the following manifestations is commonly observed in patients with acute pancreatitis? A) Hypotension B) Bradycardia C) Severe abdominal pain D) Hyperglycemia Correct Answer: C) Severe abdominal pain Rationale: Severe abdominal pain, often radiating to the back, is a hallmark symptom of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation and autodigestion of pancreatic tissue. 19. What is the primary etiology of asthma? A) Pollen exposure B) Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction C) Air pollution D) Allergic inflammation and bronchospasm Correct Answer: D) Allergic inflammation and bronchospasm Rationale: Sepsis is a systemic immune response to bacterial infection, leading to widespread inflammation, tissue damage, and organ dysfunction if not promptly treated. 24. Which of the following diagnostic tests is essential for confirming the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) B) Prothrombin time (PT) C) Venous duplex ultrasound D) C-reactive protein (CRP) Correct Answer: C) Venous duplex ultrasound Rationale: Venous duplex ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging study commonly used to diagnose DVT by visualizing blood flow and detecting clots in the deep veins of the extremities. 25. In the pathophysiology of chronic heart failure (CHF), which mechanism contributes to impaired cardiac function? A) Excessive preload B) Decreased afterload C) Impaired contractility D) Enhanced cardiac output Correct Answer: C) Impaired contractility Rationale: Impaired contractility, often due to myocardial damage or dysfunction, is a key factor in the development of CHF as it reduces the heart's ability to pump blood effectively. 26. Which of the following manifestations is commonly seen in patients with acute renal failure? A) Polyuria B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypernatremia Correct Answer: B) Hyperkalemia Rationale: Acute renal failure can lead to impaired potassium excretion, resulting in hyperkalemia, which poses a significant risk for cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. 27. What is the primary etiology of gout? A) Vitamin D deficiency B) Elevated uric acid levels C) Altered thyroid function D) Excessive calcium intake Correct Answer: B) Elevated uric acid levels Rationale: Gout is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and acute arthritis attacks, typically triggered by elevated serum uric acid levels. 28. Which diagnostic study is essential for evaluating the presence of acid- fast bacilli in suspected cases of tuberculosis (TB)? A) Rapid strep test B) Gram stain C) Acid-fast stain D) Western blot Correct Answer: C) Acid-fast stain Rationale: Acid-fast staining is a specific laboratory test used to identify the presence of mycobacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, in clinical samples to confirm the diagnosis of TB. 29. In the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy, which type of glomerular damage is often observed? A) Glomerulosclerosis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Glomerulitis D) Glomerulonecrosis Correct Answer: A) Glomerulosclerosis