APEA My Question Bank MSN571/MSN572 Updated 2024/2025 Questions and Answers with complete, Exams of Community Health

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APEA My Question Bank

MSN571/MSN572 Updated

2024/2025 Questions and

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solution– United States

University

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APEA MyQBank MSN571/MSN572 – United States University Principles of Pharm The ratio of minimum effective concentration (MEC) to minimum toxic concentration (MTC) of a drug is the: therapeutic window. When two medications are taken at the same time, causing them to chelate, this is known as a(n): absorption interaction. The primary site of drug metabolism is the: liver. The change in charge within a cell membrane due to an influx of sodium ions causes: depolarization. Activation of alpha-1 receptors does NOT: inhibit insulin release. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein that binds to medications? Gamma globulins The term that describes the movement of a drug among parts of the body is: distribution. If a 100-mg drug is administered and has a half-life of 6 hours, the percentage of the drug that will be in the system 18 hours later is:

12.5%.

The intentional pharmacologic blockade of synaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction is often used to: paralyze muscles in a patient who is intubated. Neurotransmitters are considered: chemical substances. Electrical synapse differs from chemical synapse in that signal transmission: can occur in both directions. The process whereby a drug's activity is altered in order to prepare it for excretion is known as: biotransformation. Pharmacokinetics is: the effect the body has on the drug. The correct order of the transmission of a neurotransmitter is presynaptic preparation followed by the: arrival of action potential, release of transmitter, receptor interaction, and the termination of transmitter action.

In preparation for an action potential, synthesis of the transmitter occurs during the: presynaptic preparation. Which of the following actions triggers a rise in membrane or action potential of a cell? Opening of the voltage gated sodium ions The process by which cells ingest extracellular fluid and its contents, including protein-bound medications, is known as: pinocytosis. The process by which the body breaks down and converts a medication into active chemical substances is known as: metabolism. Distribution of a drug is determined by the: reversible transfer of drug from one location to another within the body. The ion that is most critical in the release of the neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron is: calcium. The term NOT associated with the pharmacokinetics of a drug is: pharmacodynamics. Which of the following is considered an inhibitory neurotransmitter? Glycine The relationship between an effect of a drug and the amount of drug given is known as: dose response curve. In the pharmacokinetics of a drug, the rate of metabolism: varies widely among patients. The translocation of a drug from one side of the biological barrier to another is NOT completed through the process of: laxation. Therapeutic indices of a drug should be determined from a serum sample obtained during: at steady state of the drug. Which of the following is NOT included in the neuron structure? Riboflavin The most common method by which drugs are chemically altered within the liver is: oxidation. The elimination phase of pharmacokinetics is the time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by:

50%.

After a drug is metabolized by the liver and enters the bile, it is most likely to be: fecally excreted. A chemical synapse differs from an electrical synapse in that the signal transmission: requires a neurotransmitter.

Fick's Law of Diffusion describes drug mobility as the: passive diffusion of non-ionized drugs down a concentration gradient from an area of high concentration to low concentration. The amino acid found in dairy products, fish and eggs is tyrosine. The amino acid from which tyrosine is made is: phenylalanine. The pharmacodynamics of a medication would NOT be affected by: absorption. Pharmacodynamic interactions that occur when two drugs act on distinct receptors is known as: heterodynamic competitors. The correct sequence of the movement of a drug through the body is: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion. The first-pass effect contributes to the oral bioavailability of a drug by: decreasing the amount of drug that is actually delivered into general circulation after passing through the gastrointestinal system and the liver. To calculate approximately how long it will take to reach steady state of a drug, the clinician should multiply the half-life of the drug times:

Drugs that accumulate in tissues: keep blood levels of drug from decreasing rapidly. When one drug displaces another drug from the binding sites on proteins, causing an increase in the amount of "free" drug, this is known as: distribution interactions. Which of the following enzymes does NOT affect the first-pass effect of an orally administered drug? Salivary enzymes The scientific study of origin, composition, mode of action, therapeutic use and toxicology is known as: pharmacology. The protein-bound part of a drug is: inactive and acts as a reservoir. To elicit an effective bioavailability response, drugs with a high affinity for a receptor site need to be delivered: in lower doses. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter within the parasympathetic nervous system? Acetylcholine

The signal transduction process that carries transmitters (e.g., steroid hormones) to distant sites via the circulatory system is known as: endocrine. Acetylcholine works at the neuromuscular junction to activate: skeletal muscles. The fusion of the synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic plasma membrane is preceded by the influx of: calcium ions.

Cardiovascular Direct thrombin inhibitors such as dabigatran (Pradaxa) are NOT indicated for: patients with prosthetic heart valves. Loop diuretics such as bumetanide (Bumex): are more commonly used in patients with a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is indicated for the treatment of: chronic angina. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) lower blood pressure by: blocking the vasoconstricting and sodium retention effects of angiotensin II. The mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) in lowering blood pressure is to: inhibit the binding of angiotensin II to receptor sites on vascular smooth muscles. Increased adverse events are likely with the concomitant use of angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as ramipril (Altace) and: irbesartan (Avapro). Acetaminophen (Tylenol) use in infants and children is: calculated at 10- mg/kg/dose with a maximum of 4 g/24 hours. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is classified as a(n): low molecular weight heparin. An angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that is indicated for the treatment of hypertension in children younger than 6 years old is: candesartan (Atacand). Triamterene (Dyrenium), a diuretic, should not be used in the presence of: anuria. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) should be discontinued if: symptoms of biliary colic are present. A patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for edema secondary to heart failure. The patient should be informed that furosemide (Lasix) may cause: hyponatremia. Initial and routine monitoring of patients receiving spironolactone (Aldactone) includes: serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. The medication that produces vasodilation and thus lowers blood pressure by inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II is: enalapril (Vasotec).

Bile acid sequestrants to treat hypercholesterolemia should be dosed: 1 hour before or 4 hours after other medications. Aliskiren (Tekturna), used in the treatment of essential hypertension, is classified as a(n): direct renin inhibitor. An adverse reaction to angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) used in the treatment of hypertension is: angioedema. Nitroglycerin tablets that are dispensed to the patient should be stored: In an amber, tightly capped bottle. The mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in lowering blood pressure is to: inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the serum. Nitrates cause vasodilation of veins and coronary arteries by: relaxing vascular smooth muscles to lower preload. Dabigatran (Pradaxa), an anticoagulant, is also classified as a: direct thrombin inhibitor. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (i.e. verapamil) may be safely used in patients with: chronic stable angina. Patients who are started on olmesartan (Benicar) should be advised to report: diarrhea and weight loss. The onset of anticoagulation action for warfarin (Coumadin) is: 24-72 hours. Ranolazine (Ranexa) exerts antianginal and anti-ischemic effects by: reducing sodium concentrations and calcium influx, thus decreasing oxygen consumption. It is safe to use ranolazine (Ranexa) concomitantly with: amlodipine (Norvasc). The maximum benefits of fibrates on triglyceride reduction occur at approximately: 6 weeks. The generic name for Lopressor is: metoprolol tartrate. When prescribing nitroglycerin for the treatment of angina, the first-pass effect bioavailability should be considered with: oral nitroglycerin 2.5 mg ER. The negative inotropic activity of nifedipine (Adalat CC) that leads to an exacerbation of heart failure may be further pronounced if combined with: beta-blockers. Avoid concomitant use of oral digoxin (Lanoxin) and: famotidine (Pepcid).

Clopidogrel (Plavix), an anticoagulant, may be coadministered with: aspirin (Ecotrin). Fibric acid derivatives such as fenofibrate (Tricor) should be discontinued if: high-density lipoprotein decreases from 50 mg/dL to 10 mg/dL. To reduce the flushing effects caused by nifedipine (Adalat CC), it should be taken with: low-fat meals. Cardioselective beta-blockers: specifically block beta-1 receptors. Which of the following drugs blocks the action of aldosterone in order to produce diuresis? Spironolactone (Aldactone) Which beta-blocker is highly variable in bioavailability, has a shorter plasma half-life, is mostly lipid- soluble, and is almost completely absorbed by the small intestine? Metoprolol (Lopressor) For the patient receiving dabigatran (Pradaxa) who needs anticoagulation reversal, the nurse practitioner knows that: idarucizumab (Praxbind) is the emergency reversal agent. An example of a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker is: amlodipine (Norvasc). The diuretic that blocks the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle to produce diuresis is: furosemide (Lasix). Negative inotropes are indicated for patients diagnosed with: atrial fibrillation. Bile acid sequestrants such as colesevelam (Welchol): bind to bile acids and excrete them in feces, forcing the liver to use cholesterol to produce more bile acids. Concomitant use of beta-blockers with digitalis glycosides can increase the risk of: bradycardia. Baseline and periodic monitoring for patients receiving hydralazine (Apresoline) should include serum: complete blood count. Thiazide diuretics are indicated for the treatment of: hypertension. The side effect profile of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) is similar to the side effects of: angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors. The brand name for hydralazine is: Apresoline. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is highly protein bound and has a duration of: 48 hours.

Reduced doses of lovastatin (Mevacor) are recommended when used concomitantly with: verapamil (Calan). Of the angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) used in the treatment of hypertension, the one with the longest biological half-life at 24 hours is: telmisartan (Micardis). Ranolazine (Ranexa) is indicated in the treatment of: chronic angina. A 3-year-old patient has a history of congenital heart disease. To reduce the afterload and decrease right and left atrial pressures, the drug of choice should be: captopril (Capoten). A 52-year-old man is receiving metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor) after a myocardial infarction. This patient should be educated to: avoid abruptly stopping the medication. Statins lower cholesterol by: competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. A disadvantage of vitamin K antagonists for anticoagulation is their: numerous medication interactions. The peak effect of enalapril (Vasotec), an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, occurs in: 5 hours. A common side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors used in the treatment of hypertension is: a dry cough. The brand name for isosorbide dinitrate is: Isordil. Baseline and follow-up monitoring of ranolazine (Ranexa) should include: serum BUN, creatinine and ECG. Which medication is considered a cholesterol absorption inhibitor? Ezetimibe (Zetia) Gemfibrozil (Lopid), for the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia, is classified as a: fibric acid. A common side effect of cardioselective beta-blockers such as labetalol (Trandate) is: shortness of breath. A common side effect of angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) such as candesartan (Atacand) is: hyperkalemia. An example of a cardioselective beta-blocker used in the treatment of heart failure is: metoprolol (Lopressor). Aliskiren (Tekturna) should not be administered concurrently with: angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

A common side effect of niacin (Niaspan) is: flushing.

What is the maximum half-life elimination of warfarin (Coumadin)? 60 hours Beta-blockers such as atenolol (Tenormin) should not be used in patients with: variant (Prinzmetal) angina.

Hematology When taking corticosteroids for the treatment of immune thrombocytopenia, stopping them abruptly could result in: an adrenal crisis. The most common side effect of ferrous sulfate is: constipation. Patients taking supplemental iron should be advised to take tetracycline antibiotics at least: 2 hours before or after the iron. Patients taking corticosteroids long-term for the treatment of immune thrombocytopenia should be instructed to: limit sodium intake. Another name for vitamin B12 is: cyanocobalamin. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) is primarily stored in the: liver. After correcting a decreased hemoglobin in a patient who has iron deficiency anemia, oral iron supplementation should be continued for at least: 12 weeks. Which food should be avoided when taking corticosteroids for the treatment of lymphoma? Grapefruit juice. Folic acid (vitamin B9) is used to treat: macrocytic anemia. Folic acid (vitamin B9) is: a water-soluble vitamin.

Gastroenterolo gy Which therapy should be initiated in a patient with moderate Clostridium difficile infection who has failed to respond to treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl)? Oral vancomycin (Vancocin) Which of the following medications used for the treatment of GERD works by neutralizing hydrochloric (HCI) acid in the stomach to rapidly increase gastric pH? Calcium carbonate (Tums) Which of the following medications is classified as an antihistamine and a phenothiazine? Promethazine (Phenergan) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto- Bismol)? Penicillin allergy Which of the following is NOT a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist? Prochlorperazine (Compazine) The scopolamine patch should be applied: behind the ear. The recommended duration of therapy for eradication of Helicobacter pylori is: 14 days. The plasma elimination half-life of esomeprazole (Nexium) is: 1-1.5 hours. The most commonly reported side effects of oral ondansetron (Zofran) are: headache and constipation. The most commonly reported side effect of metronidazole and clarithromycin combination therapy for Helicobacter pylori is: metallic taste. The medication that suppresses vestibular end-organ receptors and inhibits activation of central cholinergic pathways is: meclizine (Antivert). The medication class indicated for the intermittent (on-demand) relief of mild gastroesophageal reflux is: antacids. The length of treatment for oral metoclopramide should NOT exceed: 12 weeks. The following medication should NOT be administered concomitantly with clopidogrel (Plavix): omeprazole (Prilosec). The following medication should NOT be administered concomitantly with clopidogrel (Plavix): omeprazole (Prilosec). The first-line regimen for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) plus: amoxicillin and clarithromycin. The dose of prochlorperazine should be initiated at the lowest dose and titrated slowly in: a 70-year-old man. The class of medications most useful in the treatment of chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting is the: serotonin receptor antagonists. The brand name of prochlorperazine maleate is: Compazine. The brand name of pantoprazole is: Protonix. The brand name of metoclopramide, an antiemetic, is: Reglan. The brand name of famotidine is: Pepcid. The brand name for esomeprazole is: Nexium. The antiemetic that does NOT have potential to cause QT prolongation is: promethazine (Phenergan). The antibiotics in triple therapy for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori should be twice daily.

administered: Side effects related to transdermal scopolamine may include: urinary retention. Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) is indicated for the treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with: motion sickness. Rabeprazole (Aciphex), used in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux, is classified as a(n): proton pump inhibitor. Proton pump inhibitors (PPls), such as pantoprazole (Protonix), block gastrointestinal acid secretion by: inhibiting the hydrogen-potassium ATPase transport enzyme. Promethazine (Phenergan), a 1st generation antihistamine, is contraindicated in the presence of: asthma.

Promethazine (Phenergan) should not be used in children younger than 2 years due to: respiratory depression. Prior to the initiation of long-term treatment with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and periodically during therapy, the nurse practitioner should monitor serum: magnesium. Patients should be advised to remove the scopolamine patch if an adverse reaction occurs, such as: confusion. Pantoprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, given with antibiotics for triple therapy treatment of Helicobacter pylori should be administered: twice daily. Oral promethazine used for the treatment of nausea and vomiting should be administered as needed every: 4 hours. Oral metoclopramide is contraindicated in the patient diagnosed with: epilepsy. Ondansetron (Zofran) is available as: oral elixir, tablets, soluble film, disintegrating tablets, intramuscular and intravenous solution. Ondansetron (Zofran) dosage should be adjusted in patients: with hepatic impairment. Metoclopramide (Reglan), an antiemetic, increases gastric motility by: blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and enhancing the action of acetylcholine. Lubiprostone (Amitiza), used in the treatment of chronic constipation, is contraindicated in patients who have: suspected mechanical bowel obstruction. Infliximab (Remicade), a tumor necrosis factor inhibitor, is: used to treat Crohn's disease in children. In the patient with an allergy to penicillin, treatment of Helicobacter pylori would include a proton pump inhibitor plus: metronidazole and clarithromycin. In addition to metoclopramide (Reglan), another prokinetic drug used to improve gastric motility is: erythromycin base (Ery-Tab). Hyperosmotic agents and saline laxatives should be avoided or used with caution in patients who have: heart failure. Histamine receptor antagonists (H2RA), such as famotidine (Pepcid), inhibit acid secretions by: blocking the parietal cells (acid- producers) from responding to histamine. Helicobacter pylori is naturally resistant to: trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). For patients who didn't respond to an initial course of triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori, an alternate regimen should be prescribed. It would include a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and: metronidazole and tetracycline. Due to potential for extrapyramidal symptoms, oral metoclopramide (Reglan) should sertraline (Zoloft).

NOT be administered concomitantly with: Corticosteroids, used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis, usually do NOT: increase the effectiveness of antibiotics. Corticosteroids, used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis, are produced by the: adrenal glands. Anticholinergic agents reduce nausea and vomiting by antagonizing the: muscarinic receptors. A patient who has failed two courses of therapy for Helicobacter pylori should: receive reinforced education about compliance with medications. A 54-year-old man is diagnosed with diabetic gastroparesis. The drug that will promote gastrointestinal tract motility and produce an antiemetic effect is: metoclopramide (Reglan).

Endocrine Insulins recommended for use in insulin pump delivery systems include: Apidra and Humalog. Patients receiving insulin detemir (Levemir) are at higher risk for developing: hypokalemia. Patients should be advised to take glimepiride (Amaryl): in the morning with breakfast. Maximum plasma concentrations of glucagon, after intramuscular injection, are observed in approximately: 15 minutes. Patients who use insulin glargine (Lantus) should be advised: to inspect for visible particles or color change before administration. When patients administer regular insulin (Humulin R U-500), they should be taught: (^) 10 units of Humulin R U-500 is equal to 10 units on a U-500 insulin syringe. Prior to the administration of methimazole (Tapazole), the nurse practitioner should obtain a baseline: complete blood count. The combination of metformin (Glucophage) and glyburide (Diabeta) for the treatment of Type 2 diabetes is: highly efficacious with moderate risk of hypoglycemia. Aspart (NovoLog) should be administered: 10 minutes prior to a meal. Undertreatment of hypothyroidism in pediatric patients may lead to: cretinism. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) such as pioglitazone (Actos) reduce A1C by levels by: 0.7%. A patient is receiving a fast-acting insulin to decrease post-prandial blood sugars. If the bedtime blood sugar is elevated, the patient should be advised to increase the fast-acting insulin dose at: dinner. Which of the following side effects may be caused by methimazole (Tapazole)? Hypothyroidism Pioglitazone hydrochloride (Actos) is contraindicated in patients with: heart failure. A patient is started on a sulfonylurea (i.e., glyburide). The nurse practitioner informs the patient that sulfonylureas are likely to: reduce microvascular events. Patients taking thiazolidinedione (TZD) medications should be monitored for: fluid retention and weight gain. Which statement about metformin (Glucophage) is correct? It should be temporarily discontinued for radiologic studies with iodinated contrast. In addition to hemoglobin AlC, patients receiving metformin (Glucophage) should be monitored for: renal function, liver function and vitamin B12 levels. Gynecomastia is NOT likely to be caused by: clonazepam. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may be blunted by: beta-blockers. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is indicated in the treatment of: hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine use in the first trimester of pregnancy: may require an increase in dose. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors reduce blood glucose by: increasing urinary glucose excretion. Patients taking dipeptidyl-peptidase-4 (DDP-IV) inhibitors for the treatment of Type 2 diabetes do NOT routinely need to be monitored for: weight loss. Which of the following medications may cause gynecomastia? enalapril (Vasotec). Insulin detemir (Levemir): may be administered once or twice daily. The mechanism of action by which metformin (Glucophage) improves glucose decreased intestinal absorption of

tolerance is: glucose.

Victoza (liraglutide), a glucagon-like peptide-1 for the treatment of Type 2 diabetes, may potentially decrease the effectiveness of: oral contraceptives. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is best administered: on an empty stomach, first thing in the morning. DPP IV inhibitors such as alogliptin (Nesina): suppress glucagon secretion and increase insulin secretion. Which of the following is an intermediate-acting insulin? Insulin NPH (Humulin N) The expected hemoglobin AlC reduction for patients who are started on a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor such as sitagliptin (Januvia) is:

0.6%.

Due to the mechanism of action of meglitinides used in the treatment of Type 2 diabetes, they should be administered: at meal time. Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin? Aspart (NovoLog) In addition to hypoglycemia, rapid-acting insulins may cause: hypokalemia. Methimazole for the treatment of Graves' disease is contraindicated in patients: who are pregnant. The most frequent side effect of metformin (Glucophage) is: diarrhea. Metformin (Glucophage) is a: biguanide. The generic name for Victoza is: liraglutide. A patient is started on exenatide (Byetta) for Type 2 diabetes. Byetta should be discontinued if the patient exhibits: persistent abdominal pain, radiating to the back. Exenatide (Byetta) is classified as: glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1). Because of the mechanism of action, patients should be instructed to administer exenatide (Byetta): twice daily, within 1 hour prior to morning and evening meals. Sulfonylureas such as glyburide (Micronase) are extensively metabolized: in the liver. A 48-year-old patient is started on metformin (Glucophage) for Type 2 diabetes (T2DM). The maximum expected hemoglobin AC reduction after initiation of this medication is:

2%.

The mechanism of action of methimazole (Tapazole) is to: block synthesis of thyroxine and triiodothyronine (T3). A patient who has Addison's disease has received a prescription for fludrocortisone. Fludrocortisone acts by: regulating salt and water balance. The most common serious side effect associated with glimepiride (Amaryl) is: hypoglycemia. A patient who is started on a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), such as Victoza, should be informed that this class of medications may: increase satiety.

The most commonly reported side effect of the GLP-1 medication class is: nausea. Thiazolidinedione (TZD) medications: increase insulin sensitivity. Patients who are receiving radioiodine therapy for hyperthyroidism should be advised to: avoid contact with young children for several days. Radioiodine therapy is safe to administer to: a 30-year-old-man who desires natural fatherhood. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors such as acarbose (Precose) are contraindicated in patients with: inflammatory bowel disorders. The onset of action of short-acting insulins is: 30 minutes. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is NOT indicated in the treatment of: pediatric patients with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Men’s Health

A 45-year-old man is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the symptomatic treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient should be advised that: his medication should not be handled by a pregnant or lactating relative. Doxycycline (Doryx) is LEAST effective in the treatment of: Escherichia coli. Concomitant administration of sildenafil (Viagra) should be avoided with: ketoconazole. A 55-year-old man with benign prostatic hypertrophy has overflow incontinence. The first-line treatment is: tamsulosin (Flomax). Which of the following is NOT a fluoroquinolone used to treat prostatitis? Keflex. A 65-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). Potential side effects are: orthostatic hypotension and dizziness. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): block alpha adrenergic receptors. Patients who are on prolonged fluoroquinolones (i.e. ciprofloxacin) for the treatment of chronic prostatitis should be advised to immediately report: diarrhea or sudden ankle pain. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as tadalafil (Cialis) for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, should be used with caution in patients who have: sickle cell anemia. Which of the following is an alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia? Doxazosin (Cardura) Doxycycline (Doryx) is classified as a: tetracycline. To avoid esophageal irritation, patients taking doxycycline (Doryx) for the treatment of epididymitis should be advised to: avoid taking just before bed. A 24-year-old man patient treated for epididymitis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be advised that: partner therapy is recommended. Ciprofloxacin, used for the treatment of bacterial prostatitis, is a potent CYP1A2 inhibitor and is absolutely contraindicated with other CYP1A2 inhibitors. An example of another CYP1A2 inhibitor is: tizanidine (Zanaflex). Levofloxacin (Levaquin), used to treat acute bacterial prostatitis, is a: fluoroquinolone. Concomitant administration of sildenafil (Viagra) and tamsulosin (Flomax) may result in: symptomatic hypotension. Empiric treatment of epididymitis in a 28-year-old sexually active man is: doxycycline (Doryx) and ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Patients receiving 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors should see maximum efficacy at approximately: 6 months. A 60-year-old man who is treated with tamsulosin (Flomax) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) should NOT be treated concomitantly with: sildenafil (Viagra). A 65-year-old man who is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is exhibiting doxazosin (Cardura). progressive symptoms. To reduce these symptoms, prescribe: Doxazosin (Cardura)

Due to the risk of severe hypotension, patients who are taking sildenafil (Viagra) should be advised to avoid: nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). PDE-5 inhibitors, such as vardenafil (Levitra), are indicated in the treatment of: erectile dysfunction. Fluoroquinolones used to treat prostatitis are NOT effective against: Enterococcus faecalis. A 20-year-old man with phimosis should be instructed to apply betamethasone (Sernivo) 0.05% cream at least twice daily for: 6 weeks. In the treatment of prostatitis, antibiotics that do NOT penetrate well into the prostate and seminal fluids include: cephalosporins.