APEA PNP MyQbank Pathophysiology New Completed Questions with Rationales 2024, Exams of Nursing

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MyQbank

Pathophysiology

Completed Questions with

Rationales

1. A 45-year-old male presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. ECG shows ST elevation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Stable angina B. Pulmonary embolism C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Pericarditis

Correct Answer: C. Acute myocardial infarction

Rationale: ST elevation on ECG is indicative of an acute myocardial infarction, which requires immediate medical intervention.

2. A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Which pathophysiological process is most likely occurring? A. Glucagon deficiency B. Insulin resistance C. Beta-cell destruction D. Increased glycogen synthesis

Correct Answer: C. Beta-cell destruction

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to the symptoms observed.

3. A 60-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis complains of dry eyes and dry mouth. Which condition is she most likely experiencing? A. Sjögren's syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Fibromyalgia

Correct Answer: A. Sjögren's syndrome

Rationale: Sjögren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis that affects the glands responsible for tears and saliva, causing dry eyes and mouth.

4. A patient presents with a swollen, painful joint and is suspected of having gout. Which laboratory finding would confirm this diagnosis? A. Elevated WBC count B. Hyperuricemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Elevated CRP levels

Correct Answer: B. Hyperuricemia

Rationale: Gout is caused by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of urate crystals in joints, which causes inflammation and pain.

5. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and blurred vision. CT scan shows intracerebral hemorrhage. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Migraine B. Brain tumor C. Hypertensive crisis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Correct Answer: C. Hypertensive crisis

Rationale: A hypertensive crisis can lead to a spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage, which presents with sudden severe headache, nausea, and blurred vision.

6. A patient with chronic kidney disease is found to have elevated serum potassium levels. This condition is known as: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia

Correct Answer: B. Hyperkalemia

Rationale: Chronic kidney disease can result in impaired potassium excretion, leading to hyperkalemia, or high serum potassium levels.

7. A 70-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer is experiencing bone pain and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Osteoporosis B. Bone metastases

C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Paget's disease of bone

Correct Answer: B. Bone metastases

Rationale: Prostate cancer commonly metastasizes to bone, which can cause bone pain and elevate alkaline phosphatase levels.

8. A patient with asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for immediate relief? A. Inhaled corticosteroid B. Oral corticosteroid C. Short-acting beta agonist D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct Answer: C. Short-acting beta agonist

Rationale: Short-acting beta agonists provide quick relief of bronchoconstriction during an acute asthma exacerbation.

9. A patient presents with abdominal pain, jaundice, and dark urine. Labs reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Which condition is most likely? A. Acute hepatitis B. Cholelithiasis C. Pancreatic cancer D. Hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: B. Cholelithiasis

Rationale: These symptoms and lab findings are indicative of cholelithiasis, or gallstones, which can obstruct the bile duct and cause jaundice.

10. A patient with a recent deep vein thrombosis is started on anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following is a potential complication of this treatment? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Hemorrhage C. Hypercoagulability D. Venous insufficiency

Correct Answer: B. Hemorrhage

Rationale: Anticoagulation therapy increases the risk of bleeding, which can lead to hemorrhage as a complication.

11. A patient with a suspected peptic ulcer undergoes endoscopy. Biopsy reveals Helicobacter pylori infection. Which treatment is most appropriate? A. Proton pump inhibitor monotherapy B. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin C. Antacid monotherapy D. Lifestyle modifications only

Correct Answer: B. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor,

clarithromycin, and amoxicillin

Rationale: H. pylori infections are typically treated with a combination of antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor to reduce stomach acid and allow the ulcer to heal.

12. A patient with congestive heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which of the following medications would most likely be included in their treatment plan? A. Beta-blockers B. Calcium channel blockers C. Diuretics D. ACE inhibitors

Correct Answer: C. Diuretics

Rationale: Diuretics are used in the management of congestive heart failure to reduce fluid overload and alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea and orthopnea.

13. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is at increased risk for which of the following complications? A. Myocardial infarction B. Stroke C. Peripheral artery disease D. Venous thromboembolism

Correct Answer: B. Stroke

Rationale: Atrial fibrillation can lead to the formation of blood clots in the heart, which can then travel to the brain and cause a stroke.

14. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most likely to exhibit which of the following laboratory findings? A. Positive ANA test B. Negative rheumatoid factor C. Low ESR D. Elevated WBC count

Correct Answer: A. Positive ANA test

Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is a common finding in patients with SLE, an autoimmune disorder.

15. A patient with a thyroid nodule has an increased TSH level and a cold nodule on scintigraphy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Thyroid cyst B. Thyroid adenoma C. Thyroid carcinoma D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Correct Answer: C. Thyroid carcinoma

Rationale: An increased TSH level and a cold nodule on scintigraphy are suggestive of thyroid carcinoma, which requires further evaluation and management.

16. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is most likely to have which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) findings during an exacerbation?

A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis

Rationale: COPD exacerbations often lead to hypoventilation, which can cause an accumulation of carbon dioxide and result in respiratory acidosis.

17. A patient with a known peanut allergy accidentally ingests a product containing peanuts. Which of the following is the most immediate treatment? A. Oral antihistamines B. Intramuscular epinephrine C. Corticosteroids D. Bronchodilators

Correct Answer: B. Intramuscular epinephrine

Rationale: Intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy to quickly reverse the allergic reaction.

18. A patient with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely exhibit which of the following laboratory findings? A. High serum ferritin B. Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) C. Elevated B12 levels

D. High hemoglobin concentration

Correct Answer: B. Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

Rationale: Iron-deficiency anemia typically presents with a low MCV, indicating microcytic anemia.

19. A patient with suspected inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) undergoes colonoscopy. Which finding would be more indicative of Crohn's disease rather than ulcerative colitis? A. Continuous colonic involvement B. Skip lesions C. Pseudopolyps D. Limited to the rectum

Correct Answer: B. Skip lesions

Which of the following best describes the term "pathophysiology"? A. Study of the causes of diseases B. Study of the changes in body functions resulting from disease C. Study of treatment plans for diseases D. Study of prevention strategies for diseases

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pathophysiology focuses on understanding the changes in bodily functions resulting from disease processes.

What is the primary function of the immune system in the human body? A. Regulation of body temperature B. Protection against foreign invaders C. Digestion of food D. Production of hormones

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The immune system's main role is to protect the body against pathogens and foreign substances. Which of the following is a common sign of inflammation? A. Increased heart rate B. Decreased body temperature C. Low white blood cell count D. Reduced pain sensation

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Inflammation often leads to an increased heart rate as the body responds to tissue damage. What is the hallmark symptom of Type 1 diabetes? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypertension C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypoglycemia

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by high blood sugar levels, known as hyperglycemia. Which of the following is a key characteristic of autoimmune diseases? A. They are caused by bacterial infections B. They result from an overactive immune response against the body's own tissues C. They are always curable with medication D. They primarily affect the digestive system

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Autoimmune diseases arise from the immune system attacking the body's own tissues. How is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) typically diagnosed? A. Blood test B. X-ray C. Pulmonary function tests D. Urinalysis

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose COPD by assessing lung function.

Which of the following is a common treatment approach for hypertension? A. Antibiotics B. Anticoagulants C. Beta-blockers D. Antihistamines

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Beta-blockers are often prescribed to manage hypertension by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. What is the primary goal of treatment in patients with heart failure? A. Increase blood pressure B. Improve cardiac output C. Lower cholesterol levels D. Reduce lung capacity

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The main aim of treating heart failure is to improve cardiac output to enhance blood circulation. Which of the following is a common symptom of a stroke? A. Chest pain B. Visual disturbances C. High blood sugar D. Joint stiffness

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Visual disturbances can be a symptom of a stroke, indicating potential brain damage. How does insulin resistance contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes? A. By causing low blood sugar levels B. By increasing insulin production C. By reducing the body's response to insulin D. By promoting weight loss

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Insulin resistance leads to reduced effectiveness of insulin in regulating blood sugar levels, a key feature of Type 2 diabetes. What is the primary mechanism of action of statins in managing hyperlipidemia? A. Increasing LDL cholesterol levels B. Decreasing HDL cholesterol levels C. Inhibiting cholesterol synthesis D. Enhancing triglyceride production

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Statins work by inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol in the body, thereby reducing overall cholesterol levels.

Which of the following is a common diagnostic test for identifying osteoporosis? A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Bone mineral density scan C. Thyroid function test D. Liver function test

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bone mineral density scans are used to diagnose osteoporosis by assessing bone density and strength. What is the primary goal of treatment for rheumatoid arthritis? A. Pain relief B. Increasing inflammation C. Promoting joint stiffness D. Enhancing bone growth

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Managing pain and inflammation is a key objective in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis to improve quality of life. Which of the following is a common symptom of chronic kidney disease? A. Hypotension B. Hematuria C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Decreased urine output

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Decreased urine output is often observed in patients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired kidney function. How does the body typically respond to anemia? A. By increasing red blood cell production B. By decreasing oxygen transport C. By improving blood viscosity D. By raising blood pressure

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Anemia triggers the body to produce more red blood cells to compensate for low hemoglobin levels and improve oxygen delivery. What is a common feature of asthma exacerbations? A. Decreased airway constriction B. Improved breathing capacity C. Increased mucus production D. Reduced coughing

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Asthma exacerbations are often characterized by increased mucus production in the airways, leading to breathing difficulties.

Which of the following is a primary risk factor for the development of Alzheimer's disease? A. High physical activity levels B. Smoking C. Healthy diet D. Advanced age

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Advanced age is a significant risk factor for Alzheimer's disease, with incidence increasing with older age. How does insulin play a role in glucose regulation in the body? A. By increasing blood sugar levels B. By promoting glucose uptake by cells C. By inhibiting pancreatic function D. By reducing insulin resistance

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, helping to regulate blood sugar levels within normal ranges. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson's disease? A. Muscle rigidity B. Increased coordination C. Enhanced speech clarity

D. Improved balance

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Parkinson's disease is often associated with muscle rigidity, causing stiffness and difficulty with movement. What is the primary mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? A. Increasing blood pressure B. Inhibiting pain and inflammation pathways C. Promoting blood clotting D. Enhancing immune response

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: NSAIDs work by inhibiting pain and inflammation pathways in the body, providing relief from these symptoms. Question 1: Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological process of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus? A) Increased insulin secretion with hyperglycemia B) Insulin resistance resulting in hyperglycemia C) Decreased glucagon secretion leading to hypoglycemia D) Impaired glucose uptake in muscle cells

Correct Answer: B) Insulin resistance resulting in hyperglycemia

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, where the body's cells do not respond effectively to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Question 2: What is the primary cause of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B) Pneumonia C) Severe sepsis D) Inhaled toxins

Correct Answer: C) Severe sepsis

Rationale: ARDS is often caused by a severe systemic inflammatory response, such as sepsis, leading to widespread inflammation and lung injury. Question 3: Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? A) Bradypnea B) Productive cough C) Hyperresonance on percussion

D) Wheezing

Correct Answer: B) Productive cough

Rationale: In COPD, a persistent, productive cough is a common symptom due to increased mucus production and airway inflammation. Question 4: What is the characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi? A) Bull's eye rash (Erythema migrans) B) Petechial rash C) Maculopapular rash D) Vesicular rash

Correct Answer: A) Bull's eye rash (Erythema migrans)

Rationale: The classic early sign of Lyme disease is the bull's eye rash, known as Erythema migrans, which appears at the site of the tick bite. Question 5: Which of the following lab findings is indicative of a patient with Hypothyroidism? A) Low TSH levels B) High free T4 levels

C) Elevated thyroid peroxidase antibodies D) Decreased cholesterol levels

Correct Answer: A) Low TSH levels

Rationale: In hypothyroidism, the body produces elevated levels of TSH to stimulate the thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of circulating thyroid hormones such as T4. Question 6: In Heart Failure, which of the following medications is classified as an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? A) Furosemide B) Lisinopril C) Spironolactone D) Carvedilol

Correct Answer: B) Lisinopril

Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as Lisinopril are commonly prescribed in heart failure to reduce the production of angiotensin II, thereby decreasing vasoconstriction and reducing fluid retention. Question 7: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

A) Ascending muscle weakness B) Rigidity and bradykinesia C) Resting tremors D) Intention tremors

Correct Answer: A) Ascending muscle weakness

Rationale: GBS is characterized by rapidly progressing, ascending muscle weakness and paralysis due to the immune system attacking the peripheral nerves. Question 8: Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming the presence of Pulmonary Embolism? A) D-dimer assay B) Chest X-ray C) CT Pulmonary Angiography D) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

Correct Answer: C) CT Pulmonary Angiography

Rationale: CT Pulmonary Angiography provides detailed imaging of the pulmonary arteries, allowing for the detection of blood clots in the lungs, making it the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism. Question 9:

Which of the following is a common treatment modality for Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) B) Glucocorticoids C) Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) D) Topical corticosteroids

Correct Answer: C) Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

Rationale: DMARDs are the cornerstone of treatment for RA as they work to modify the course of the disease and reduce joint damage. Question 10: What is the primary mechanism of action of Statin medications in the management of hyperlipidemia? A) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase B) Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase C) Promotion of bile acid sequestration D) Activation of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs)

Correct Answer: A) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase

Rationale: Statins exert their lipid-lowering effects by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, a key enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, leading to a reduction in circulating LDL cholesterol levels.

Question 11: Which of the following is a classic symptom of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)? A) Hematemesis B) Dysphagia C) Regurgitation of sour fluid D) Bloating

Correct Answer: C) Regurgitation of sour fluid

Rationale: GERD is characterized by regurgitation of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus, leading to symptoms such as heartburn and sour fluid regurgitation. Question 12: What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin in the treatment of venous thromboembolism? A) Inhibition of factor Xa B) Direct thrombin inhibition C) Vitamin K antagonism D) Anticoagulation by enhancing antithrombin activity

Correct Answer: C) Vitamin K antagonism

Rationale: Warfarin functions by antagonizing the effects of vitamin K, thereby inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, leading to anticoagulation. Question 13: Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a patient with Multiple Sclerosis (MS)? A) Positive Romberg sign B) Hypertonicity C) Intention tremors D) Optic neuritis

Correct Answer: D) Optic neuritis

Rationale: Optic neuritis, inflammation of the optic nerve resulting in vision changes, is a common early symptom of MS due to the autoimmune destruction of myelin surrounding the nerve fibers. Question 14: What is the primary treatment modality for a patient with a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori infection? A) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy B) Antibiotic therapy C) Antacid therapy D) H2 receptor antagonist therapy