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APEA PREDICTOR /APEA PREDICTOR FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS BANK LATEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED|| ||BRANDNEW!!!|| Which of these instructions should be included in the teaching plan for the parents of a 10-month-old infant who is admitted to the hospital for failure to thrive? a. Advise the mother to make sure the infant drinks the entire bottle at each feeding. b. Encourage the mother to feed the infant slowly in a quiet environment. c. Teach the mother to position the infant on the abdomen following feedings. d. Instruct the mother to play actively with the infant during bottle feedings. - ANSWER-b. Encourage the mother to feed the infant slowly in a quiet environment. When a newborn is 48 hours old, a nurse notes that the child is jaundiced. The nurse should recognize which of these conditions as a probable cause of the newborn's jaundice?
a. Dehydration. b. Liver immaturity. c. ABO incompatibility. d. Gallbladder immaturity. - ANSWER-b. Liver immaturity. Which of these items should a nurse removed from the food tray of a client who is on a sodium-restricted diet? a. Packet of a salt substitute. b. Grapefruit juice. c. Container of jelly. d. Ketchup. - ANSWER-d. Ketchup. Which of these statements, if made by a client who had a total hip replacement, would indicate a correct understanding of the postoperative instructions? a. "I will stoop carefully to pick up items from the floor." b. "I will use a raised toilet seat in the bathroom." c. "I will bend forward when tying my shoes."
d. "It sounds like you are concerned with your diagnosis." - ANSWER-d. "It sounds like you are concerned with your diagnosis." Which of these interventions should plan for a child who is receiving chelation therapy for lead poisoning? a. Keeping an accurate record of intake and output. b. Instituting measures to prevent skeletal fractures. c. Maintaining isolation precautions. d. Maintaining strict bed rest. - ANSWER-a. Keeping an accurate record of intake and output. A nurse obtains these vital signs on an adult client. Which finding should the nurse follow-up first? a. Heart rate, 60/minute and regular. b. Respiration, 30/minute and deep. c. Temperature, 97.1 °F (36.2 °C) d. Blood pressure, 136/86 mm Hg - ANSWER-b. Respiration, 30/minute and deep.
When determining the duration of a uterine contraction, a nurse should measure the contraction from the: a. beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction. b. end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. c. beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. d. strongest point of one contraction to the strongest point of the next contraction. - ANSWER-a. beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction. A nurse should recognize which of these signs is a probably sign of pregnancy? a. Frequency of urination. b. Positive pregnancy test. c. Nausea in the morning. d. Abdominal distention. - ANSWER-b. Positive pregnancy test.
A nurse is caring for a client with burns and in reverse isolation. Which measures should the nurse include? a. Wearing disposable gloves when chaging the dressings. b. Having the client wear goggles when staff is in the room. c. Wearing a gown, mask, and gloves when providing care to the client. d. Disposing of the client's soiled laundry in a red bag. - ANSWER-c. Wearing a gown, mask, and gloves when providing care to the client. A physician has ordered 100 mg of Amoxicillin po for a child. The available liquid amoxicillin is 250 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should a nurse administer? a. 1. b. 1.5. c. 2. d. 2.5 - ANSWER-c. 2.
A nurse charts on all assigned clients at 2:00 P.M. The nurse then remembers something that happened at 9:00 A.M. to a client who was not charted. Which of these actions should the nurse take? a. Include the 9:00 A.M. scenario in the shift report. b. Enter the scenario after the original 2:00 P.M. charting and mark it as a "late entry". c. Put the information in the margin and indicate the accurate time placement by drawing an arrow. d. Draw a line through the previous charting with "error" and then re-record everything, including the new information. - ANSWER-b. Enter the scenario after the original 2:00 P.M. charting and mark it as a "late entry". While giving a bath to a client, a nurse notices that the client's back appear reddened. Which of these interpretations and additional assessments should the nurse make? a. The client's skin is sensitive to touch; lightly rub the client's chest area. b. The client has decreased circulation; palpate the peripheral pulses.
b. Polyuria. c. Diaphoresis. d. Flushed skin. - ANSWER-c. Diaphoresis. A client is eight hours postoperative after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of these observations, if noted by a nurse, indicates a complication? a. Hourly urine output of 90 mL. b. Reports of bladder spasms. c. BP 92/60 mm Hg, pulse rate 118/minute. d. Pink-tinged urine output. - ANSWER-c. BP 92/60 mm Hg, pulse rate 118/minute. A nurse should assess a child who has diabetes mellitus (type 1) for symptoms of hyperglycemia, which include: a. flushed skin and thirst. b. irritability and hunger. c. sweating and jitteriness. d. lethargy and tremors. - ANSWER-a. flushed skin and thirst.
Which of these laboratory test results should a nurse monitor for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy at a rate of 1,500 units per hour for the treatment of an acute pulmonary embolism? a. Partial thromboplastin time. b. Clot retraction time. c. Platelet levels. d. Bleeding time. - ANSWER-a. Partial thromboplastin time. Which of these techniques should a nurse use to assess for correct placement of a nasogastric tube prior to administering a feeding? a. Aspirate 10 mL contents and measure the pH. b. Slowly inject 50 mL of saline and observe for resistance. c. Inject 20 mL of water and listen for gurgling sounds. d. Observe for bubbles after submerging the end of the tube in a cup of water. - ANSWER-a. Aspirate 10 mL contents and measure the pH.
A client who is receiving radiation therapy has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to diminished taste perception and nausea. Which of these additional nursing diagnoses should a nurse consider for the client? a. Risk for aspiration. b. Ineffective protection. c. Risk for deficient fluid volume. d. Altered tissue perfusion. - ANSWER-c. Risk for deficient fluid volume. Which of these menus, if chosen by a parent of a child who has celiac disease, would indicate to a nurse that the parent understands the teaching about a gluten-free diet? a. Broiled steak, baked potato, and spinach. b. Pork chop, egg noodles, and green peas. c. Fried chicken, white roll, and mixed vegetables. d. Baked macaroni with cheddar cheese and corn. - ANSWER-a. Broiled steak, baked potato, and spinach.
Which of these statements, if made by a nurse, is non-therapeutic because it disregards a client's feelings and concerns? a. "You appear anxious and tense." b. "Everything will be okay." c. "I notice you're biting your nails." d. "I'm not sure I understand what you're saying." - ANSWER-b. "Everything will be okay." A client tells a nurse, "I am so scared about the interview tomorrow. I just know I will say the wrong thing and not get the job." Which of these responses, if made by the nurse, will create a communication barrier? a. "Would you like to practice the interview?" b. "Have you thought about some possible questions that may be asked in the interview?" c. "Tell me more about your concerns." d. "You need to relax, and everything will be fine." - ANSWER-d. "You need to relax, and everything will be fine."
At what week of pregnancy is the uterus palpable just above the pubic symphysis? - ANSWER-week 12 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus palpable halfway between the pubic symphysis and umbilicus? - ANSWER-week 16 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus at the umbilicus? - ANSWER-week 20 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus? - ANSWER-week 28 At what week of pregnancy is the fundus just below the xiphoid process? - ANSWER-week 34 Increased sweat production is a sign of what endocrine disorder?
What is Paget's disease? - ANSWER-there is localized increased bone turnover and blood flow resulting in the breakdown of bone and replacing it with weakened and highly vascular bone putting the indiv at increased risk of fractures How do we treat Paget's diseease? - ANSWER-bisphosphonates How should pregnant women wear their seatbelt? - ANSWER- with the shoulder strap like a normal person and then the groin strap below the belly and across the hips What is another name for fifth disease? - ANSWER-parvovirus aka slapped cheek disease aka erythema infectiosum Which type of prevention are vaccinations? - ANSWER-primary When should patients begin antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection? - ANSWER-as soon as it is detected, even if in the acute phase
PDE5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil) are contraindicated in which patient populations? - ANSWER-in those who are on any type of nitrate or triptan because it could result in hypotension What class of drug is sildenafil (viagra)? - ANSWER-a PDE inhibitor which can cause hypotension so you should do a full cardiac assessment before starting a patient on this and maybe do an EKG What are the symptoms of peripheral artery disease? - ANSWER- think P meaning pain, A meaning absent or weak pulses, eschar or shiny legs, intermittent claudication What is first line treatment for PAD? - ANSWER-walking and physical activity to improve circulation. second line is an aspirin or anti-platelet What should we tell our patients with PAD NOT to do? - ANSWER-do not elevate the feet; keep them down
How do we diagnose PAD? - ANSWER-an ABI < 7; doppler can also be used to diagnose as well but is the second choice What are s/s of peripheral vascular disease? - ANSWER-think V meaning volume overload aka edema, may ache or be uncomfortable but is not painful, bounding pulses, ruddy discoloration If a patient is on Coumadin but then they may need to go on an antibiotic for an infection and Bactrim is the drug of choice, what should you do? - ANSWER-Bactrim increases INR so we would want to decrease the coumadin dose while the patient is on this If a patient is on Coumadin but then they may need to go on Rifampin, what should you do? - ANSWER-Rifampin decreases INR so we'd want to increase the coumadin dose If a patient on coumadin's INR is 3.1-4 ,what should you do? - ANSWER-decrease the weekly dose by 5-10%
