APEA PREDICTOR EXAM LATEST EXAM 2024 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VER, Exams of Nursing

Download APEA PREDICTOR EXAM LATEST EXAM 2024 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VER and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

APEA PREDICTOR EXAM LATEST EXAM

2024 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED

ANSWERS | LATEST EDITION

When is the fetal biophysical profile often performed? ------ ---------------in the third trimester, often after week 28- What is a normal kick count in pregnancy? ------ -------- -------at least 10 kicks in a consecutive two hour period How much weight should an underweight woman gain in pregnancy? ------ ---------------28-40 pounds How much weight should a normal weight woman gain in pregnancy? ------ ---------------25-35 pounds How much weight should an overweight woman gain in pregnancy? ------

---------------15-25 pounds How much weight should an obese woman gain in pregnancy? ------ ---------------11-20 pounds In the majority of children, the first permanent teeth start to erupt at the age of 6 years. Which of the following are the first permanent teeth to erupt in this time period? A. First Molars B. Second Molars C. Lower or upper incisors D. Canines A. First Molars All of the following are classified as activities of daily living (ADLs) except: A. ability to feed self B. Ability to manage bladder and bowel elimination C. Personal hygiene and grooming D. Grocery Shopping D. Grocery shopping You note the following result on a routine urinalysis of a 37-year old primigravida who is at 30 weeks gestation. Leukocyte=trace, nitrite=negative, protein=2+, blood=negative. Her weight has increased by 5 lbs during the past week. Which of the following is most likely? A.HELLP syndrome

B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (pre-eclampsia) C. Eclampsia of pregnancy D. Primary hypertension B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (pre-eclampsia). Classic triad of symptoms of preeclampsia include hypertension, edema (weight gain), and proteinuria. The mother of a 12 month old infant reports to the nurse practitioner that her child had a high fever for several days, which spontaneously resolved. After the fever resolved, the child developed a maculopapular rash. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Fifth Disease (erythema infectiosum) B. Roseola infantum (exanthema subitum) C. Varicella D. Infantile maculopapular rashes B. Roseola Infantum (Exanthema subitum) A 70-year old male patient complains of a bright red-colored spot in his left eye for 2 days. He denies eye pain, visual changes, or headaches. He has a new onset of cough from a recent viral upper respiratory infection. The only medicine he is on Bayer aspirin, 1 tablet a day. Which of the following is most likely? A. Corneal abrasion B. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis C. Acute uveitis D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage. Bright red blood in a sharply defined area surrounded by normal-appearing conjunctiva indicates subconjunctival hemorrhage.

A woman is being evaluated by the nurse practitioner for complaints of dyspareunia. A microscopy slide reveals a large number of atrophic squamous epithelial cells. The vaginal pH is 4.0. There are very few leukocytes and no RBCs are seen on the wet smear. Which of the following is most likely? A. Atrophic vaginitis B. Bacterial Vaginosis C. Trichomoniasis D. This is a normal finding. A. Atrophic vaginitis. Symptoms of atrophic vaginitis include painful intercourse, atrophic squamous epithelial cells, and a decrease in pH. Vaginal atrophy is caused by lack of or imbalance of estrogen. Normal pH of the vagina is 4.0-5.0 (acidic) The most common type of skin malignancy is: A. Squamous cell cancer B. Basal skin cancer C. Melanoma D. Dysplastic nevi B. Basal skin cancer. It is several times more common that squamous cell skin cancer according to the NIH. Koplik's spots are associated with: A. Poxvirius infections B. Measles C. Kawasaki's disease

D. Reye's syndrome B. Measles. S/S include fever over 101, coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, rash, and koplik's spots on buccal mucosa At what level of prevention would you classify for lung cancer? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Primordial prevention D. primordial prevention. Screening for lung cancer is not currently recommended in the general population, but it is secondary prevention. A test called the visual fields by confrontation is used to evaluate for: A. Peripheral vision B. Central vision C. Visual acuity D. Accomodation A. Peripheral vision What is the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome? Administration of a glucocorticoid or ACTH. Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome is the most common type. Exogenous glucocorticoid administration produces a Cushing's Syndrome that is reversible by discontinuation of the medication.

A patient with no significant medical history has vericose veins. She complains of '"aching legs". The intervention that will provide the greatest relief for her complaint is to: Elevate her legs periodically. The intervention that will provide the greatest relief for this patient is elevating her legs periodically. This will facilitate venous return. Use of support stockings will prolong the length of time she is able to stand in place, but will not provide relief after her legs begin aching. Support stockings should be applied prior to getting out of bed. A 25-yo female patient presents for a routine well-women exam. On physical exam, the NP notes a scant nipple discharge, absence of palpable mass, and absence of lymph node enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? Itraductal papilloma. Intraductal papilloma often presents as a non-tender mass with serous or bloody nipple discharge located in the ductal system near the areola. Breast cancer, although usually non-tender, may present with pain. Chest wall syndrome may present in some women as breast pain. Fibrocystic breast disease often presents with bilateral breast pain. According to the ANA, the role of the NP who provides primary health care is the: Direct nursing care role. The NP with a traditional nursing care role is a primary health care provider. Increasing numbers of nurse practitioners are assuming indirect roles such as educator, administrator, researcher, and consultant. An 8-mo male presents with hemarthrosis of both knees and hematuria. The parents give no history of trauma, but say " he has always bruised easily" The most likely diagnosis is:

A type of hemophilia. Hemophilia is usually diagnosed within the first year of life. It commonly presents with hemarthrosis, bleeding into soft tissue, hematuria, and prolonged bleeding times. The nurse practitioner is following a child with juvemile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) who has been previously diagnosed and is being managed for the disease by a pediatric rheumatologist. The mother asks for information about the child's long-term prognosis. The appropriate reply is that: most children with JRA achieve complete remission by adulthood, but its effects might cause lifelong limitations. Although the active disease does not continue into adulthood, the contractures, growth retardation, bone deformities, and visual impairment associated with JRA may lead to lifelong functional impairments. A comprehensive treatment program involving physical therapy, occupational therapy, nutrition, education, and regular opthalmologic care can limit residual functional limitations. Approximately 70% of the organisms found in canine oral and nasal fluids, and consequently in fresh dog bite wounds, are: Staphylococcus and Pasteurella multocida. All of these organisms are found in canine oral and nasal fluids, and cultured from fresh dog bite wounds, but the most common (70%) are Staph and Pasteurella multocida. Education of women with fibrocystic breast disease should include which of the following statements? Caffeine may trigger breast pain.

Avoidance of all methylxanthines (eg coffee, tea, chocolate) has been shown to reduce breast pain in women with fibrocystic breast disease. It is usually a benign condition, not a precursor of malignancy. Mammography is recommended once at age 35 years, at least every 1-2 years after age 40, and then annually beginning at age 50 years. Oral contraceptives may help reduce cyclical pain and swelling. Congenital heart disorders present with symptoms at: birth, infancy, or in childhood. A common misconception is that congenital disorders always present symptomatically at birth. They can present at various times throughout childhood and are classified as cyanotic or acyanotic. Cardiac disorders in infants and children may be acquired from rheumatic fever or kawasaki syndrome. A 21-yo patient presents with abdominal guarding, rigid abdominal musculature, rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, and leukocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? Appendicitis. McBurney's point is the RLQ abdominal landmark for the appendix. Rigid abdominal musculature, rebound tenderness, and positive psoas sign (inflamed psoas muscle), indicates inflammation of the peritoneum. Cholecystitis presents with RUQ pain and positive Murphy's inspriatory arrest. Ilcerative colitis presents with LLQ pain. Pain associated with pancreatitis is typically in the epigastric region. Atenolol (Tenormin) should be avoided in: a 43-yo female with asthma.

Atenolol is a beta blocker. It should be avoided in pateints with asthma or other bronchospastic conditions. These patients often require beta stimulation, not beta blockade. Although atenolol is a beta 1-selective agent, at higher doses beta 2 receptors (bronchial and vascular) are blocked. Beta blockers, specifically atenolol, are beneficial post-myocardial infarction because they have demonstrated a reduction in morbidity and mortality. All of the following interventions with pediatric patients are appropriate EXCEPT: Pre-medicate the patient prior to all painful interventions. Pre-medication is not warranted prior to all painful interventions. For example, premedication is not warranted prior to routine immunizations but it certainly is prior to suturing. Pain management should be an integral part of patient management. Infants with veliac disease (gluten eneteropathy) are at risk for multiple complications. The most urgen complication of this disease is: Intususseption or volvulus. Intuseusseption and volvulus are surgical emergencies. Delay releasing the invaginated or "telescoped" bowel (intususseption), or releasing the twisted bowel (volvulus) may result in tissue death and gangrene, perforation, peritonitis, and/or sepsis, and fatality. There is also a high rate of intususseption and volvulus among infants with cistic fibrosis. Which activities are NOT characteristic of preschool children? Always follow rules during playground games.

Since preschoolers are just beginning to learn moral behaviors, they often cheat to win. While most preschoolers toilet independently, accidents occasionally occur and bed-wetting is not unusual. The use of a security item such as a blanket is common. A 38-yo pregnant patient at 18 weeks gestation, complains of feeling light-headed when standing. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the NP? Blood pressure normally decreases during pregnancy and can cause this symptom. Blood pressure normally decreases during pregnancy, reaching the lowest point during the second or third trimesters and rising there after. Patient education to rise slowly from sitting or lying is important. Low blood glucose may be the etiology, but an oral glucose tolerance test at this point is not indicated. A fasting blood glucose could be ordered, however, an electrocardiogram is not indicated. An 80 year old Caucasian female has heart failure. What symptom is an early indicator of failure? Weight gain. Early signs of heart failure include weight gain (the most sensitive indicator), S3 gallop, dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema. Moderate signs include nocturnal cough, tachycardia. Late signs include ascities, frothy sputum, and hypotension. A 6 yo had an acute onset of fever, pharyngitis, and headache 2 days ago. Today, he presents with cervical lymphadenopathy and sandpaper textured rash everywhere except on his face. A rapid streptococcal antigen test is positive. The remainder of the assessment in unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate action?

Scarlet fever; treat with antibiotics. This disease is due to infection with Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcus. The rash is thought to be due to a systemic reaction to the toxin produced by the microorganism. The rash fades with pressure and ultimately desquamates. A deep, nonblanching rash on the flexor surfaces of the skin is referred to as pastia lines. A patient has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. When should the nurse practitioner check the patient's TSH? 6 weeks. The half-life of levothyroxine, the treatment of choice for thyroid replacement, is 7 days. The earliest that meaningful changes will be observed is at 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the NP should wait a minimum of 4-6 weeks before checking the patient's TSH. A 15 yo malue has a history of cryptorchidism which was surgically repaired. Because of this information, it is essential for the nurse practitioner to teach him about: testicular self-examination. Cryptorchidism, even with surgical repair, is associated with increased risk for testicular cancer. The treatment of choice for chronic bacterial prostatitis (CBP) is: a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months. The treatment of chice is a flouroquinolone twice daily for 3 weeks to 4 months. The cure rate with Bactrim-DS is only about 30-40%.

A 25 yo female has a history of frequent candidal vaginal infections in the past year. She is in a monogamous sexual relationship and uses and IUD for contraception. Of the following, which is the most likely underlying conidition predisposing her to recurring candidal vaginitis? Diabetes. A common underlying cause of frequent infections is diabetes mellitus. Pregnancy increases the incidence of candidiasis, but is unlikely a factor with this patient. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the S3 heart sound? The sound is high-pitched and occurs just prior to the S1 heart sound. The S3 heart sound is low-pitched and occurs just after the S2 heart sound. It is produced by rapid ventricular filling and is best auscultated in the mitral area. It is a common finding with right-sided heart failure, rapid growth, and the last trimester of pregnancy. Following the finding of prostate gland abnormalities on DRE, the NP orders the appropriate labs. Whem preparing to review lab reports with the patient, the nurse practitioner knows all of the following are true EXCEPT: normal PSA is 10ng/ml or less. Normal PSA is 4ng/ml or less. PSA levels greater the 4 and less than 10 are associated with BPH. A 10 or greater PSA level suggests prostate cancer. Positive serum acid phosphatase is associated with malignancy of the prostate gland with bone metasasis. A 66 yo female presents to your clinic. She states that yesterday evening she had chest pain for 20-30 minutes. Which finding most strongly correlates with myocardial infarction?

Elevated Troponin I levels An elevated creatinine kinase (CK) is not diagnostic of a myocardial infarction (MI). CK may be elevated from an IM injection, surgery, ot any type of extensive skeletal muscle trauma or prolonged, strenuous physical exertion. ST segment depression on EKG usually indicates an ischemic myocardium, but, not necessarily, one post-MI. Elevated ST seghments reflect mycardial damage. MB bands are specific for myocardial smooth muscle. If these are elevated, the patient MAY HAVE had a very recent MI. The most accurate marker of cardiac damage, because it is more specific and sensitive than CK MB, is a troponin measurement. What is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia? hypothyroidism Hypothyroidism is a common secondary cause of hyperlipidemia. In the evaluation of a patient with hyperlipidemia, a TSH should always be checked and corrected before attempting treatment for hyperlipidemia. Other possible causes of seconday hyperlipidemia include pregnancy, excessive weight gain, excessive alcohol intake, insulin resistance or deficiency, obstructive liver disease, and uremia. Some medications can produce secondary hypothyroidism too: thiazide diuretics, some beta-blockers, oral contraceptives, and corticosteroids. A 35-yo male presents with a complaint of low pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced for of stream. The nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. The NP would appropriately collect all of the following specimens EXCEPT a: sterile in-and-out catheter urine specimen.

A sterile in-and-out catheter specimen would identify only organisms in the bladder and would not differentiate between bladder, kidney, or prostate site infection. The sequence for obtaining specimens when prostat infection is suspected is: 1. voided urethral urine, 2. Voided mid-stream bladder urine, and 3. voided post-prostate massage urine. A 24 yo female taking an oral contraceptive has missed her last 2 pills. What should the nurse practitioner advise her to do to minimize her risk of pregnancy? Double today's dose and tomorrow's dose and use a barrier method for the rest of the month. If 2 mills are missed on consecutive days, the next 2 days' doseages should be doubled and a barrier method recommended for the remainder of the cycle. A 50yo, non-smoker, with no co-morbidity presents to the clinica and is diagnosed with pna. His vital signs are normal except for temperature of 101.6 degrees. A sputum specimen is collected and sent for culture and sensitivity. What action should the nurse practitioner take today? Start Clarithromycin (Biaxin) 500mg 2 times a day for 10 to 14 days. Most treatment guidelines for outpatient pna in non-smokers without co-morbidity and 60 years of age or younger, recommend erythromycin or another macrolide like Biaxin. Pcn s indicated for patient swith pneumococcal pna and ciprofloxacin is recommended for Legionella species. A 38 year old patient is being treated the by the NP for heavy vaginal bleeding secondary to multiple uterine leiomyomas. Her uterus is greater than 12 weeks gestational size, her

hematocrit is 28%, and she has not responded to hormonal therapy. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention at this time? Obtain a gynecological consultation Gynecological consultation is recommended for a patient with a uterus greater that 12 weeks gestational size, significant anemia (hct <30),. o a normal endometrial biopsy with failure to respond to hormonal therapy. What maternal situation is considered an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding? Early HIV detection There are few absolute contraindications to breastfeeding. HIV infection and IV drug abuse are 2 contraindications. A 21 yo college student presents to the sudent health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner should suspect: gonococcal conjunctivitis. A purulent and copious discharge should alert the nurse practitioner to the likely possibility of gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitis. Noth require systemic anitbiotic treatment and immediate referral to an opthalmologist for evaluation. Babies should begin oral iron supplementation: 4-6 months of age. Generally, full term infants who are breadt-fed have sufficient stores of iron to last through the first 4-6 months of life. Earlier supplementation may be m=necessary for premature infants, infants who are breastyfed exclusively beyond the first 6 months of age, and infants who begin drinking cow's milk prior to 1 year of age.

Which item is NOT implicated in erectile dysfunction (ED)? Urinary tract infection (UTI) Many systemic disease like diabetes, hypo/hyperthyroidism, Cushing's syndrome can result in ED> Many medications can cause ED, particularly the antihypertensives (Vasotec) and the antidepressants (Paxil). Other activities like heavy smoking, drug abuse, and alcoholism can also lead to ED. Expected spriometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include: Increased total lung capacity (TLC). Residual volume is increased, Volume Capacity is decreased, FEV-1 in decreased, and total lung capacity is increased with emphysema. RV, VC, and FEV-1 spirometry readings are the same whether COPD is due to chronic emphysema or chronic bronchitis, however, TLC is normal or only slightly increased with chronic bronchitis. Physical exam findings consistent with emphysema include all of the following EXCEPT: pallor and cyanosis of the mucosa and nailbeds. Pallor and cyanosis is typical of chronic bronchitis (type B COPD, the "blue boater"_. Emphysema (Type A COPD, the "pink puffer") is not associated with pallor or cyanosis. Increased AP dianeter produces a "barrel chest". The normal chest is elliptical whereas the barrel chest is round. The muscles of the thorax appear thin and wasted while the accessory muscles of respiration are hypertrophied. Breath sounds are minished and cough is weak and ineffective. Which laboratory test is useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion?

Serial quantitative beta-huma chorionic gonadotropin levels. Serial quantitative beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the most useful for diagnosing spontaneous abortion. The levels progressively decline. The most acceoted recommendation regarding skin cancer prevention is: avoidance of excessive sun exposure. Avoidance of excessive sun exposure is the most accepted recommendation for prevention of skin cancer. All the other items are recommended by particular groups, but are not as widely accepted. Clinicians should remain alert for suspicious lesions in fair-skinned men and women >65 years, those with atypical moles, those with > 50 moles. These groups have a substantially increased risk for melanoma. What prophylaxis medication is recommended for the patient under 35 years of age with a positive ppd? isoniazid (INH) The CDC recommends administration of isoniazid to persons under 35 years of age with a positive PPD. The goal of this treatment is to prevent progression from latent infection to active infection. The other medications are used to treat active TB, but not for prophylaxis. The diagnosis of Meniere's disease is based on: The exclusion of other pathologies. Most cases of Meniere's disease are idiopathic and the diagnosis is based on the exclusion of other pathologies. Central vertigo is present with many vestibular problems. Low frequency hearing loss is more commonly associated with Meniere's disease. MRI is helpful to rule out acoustic neurome, but not to diagnose Meniere's disease.

The reason beta-adrenergic blockers should be avoided in patients with diabetes is because they may: Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Beta blockers may mask the peripheral signs of hypoglycemia like jitteriness and tachycardia. However, beta blockers will not mask diaphoresis. Therefore diabetics on betablockers should be taught to look for this specific symptom as a possible indication of hypoglycemia. An adult female patient is seeking information about her ideal weight. She is 5 feet 7 inches tall. Using the "height-weight formula" what is her ideal body weight? 135 lbs The height-weight formula is a quick method of determining ideal weight. Females allow 100 lbs for the first 5 feet of height plus 5 lbs for each additional inch. Males allow 106 lbs for the first 5 feet plus 6 lbs for each additional inch. This method can only be used as an estimate because it does not account for body composition or age. The nurs practitioner is caring for a 19 year old female college student with iron deficiency anemia secondary to heavy menstrual bleeding. An appropriate INITIAL treatment for this patient is: Oral ferrous sulfate. With iron deficiency anemia, iron stores of the body must be replenished as well as the underlying cause corrected. A daily iron supplement is used initially. The most common form is ferrous sulfate. Intramuscular iron dextran is usually not needed, but may be

required in the presence of a malabsorption disorder, inflammatory bowel disease, intolerance to oral iron, or blood loss too great to be compensated by oral iron. A male patient with chronic atrial fibrillation takes a generic brand of Coumadin (warfarin). He should report all of these to his health care provider EXCEPT: one missed dose of warfarin. This patient takes warfarin for prevention of emboli secondary to chronic atrial fibrillation. According to the NHLBI and ACCP, warfarin is the standard of care when anticoagulation is required for this condition. Warfarin is a drug with a narrow therapeutic index. This means that fluctuation in its level (increased or decreased) can potentiall cause big changes in its therapeutic effect. Consequently, warfarin levels are checked frequently to maintain therapeutic levels. If changes such as medication substitutions occur, warfarin levels should be checked in 3-7 days. Levels should be checked minimally every 4-6 weeks once regulation has occurred. While it is important NOT to omit doses of warfarin, this is the least important of all the choices because the effect of warfarin lasts beyond 24 hours. Which of the following medication or medication class that does NOT have dizziness or vertigo as potential adverse side effects? Meclizine (Antivert) Dizziness is associated with a sensation of body movement when there is no body movement occurring. (The person is spinning and the room is not). Vertigo is the sensation that the person is still and the room is spinning. There is no associated muscle weakeness or visual disturbance with either of these conditions. The most common causes are related to drug ingestion, hypotension, inner or middle ear pathology, and positional vertigo. Dizziness is an adverse reaction associated with certain antibiotics (gentomycin and

strptomycin) and high-dose salicylates. Vertigo is associated with certain inner ear pathology such as labyrinthitis and Meniere's disease. Meclizine is a long-acting antihistamine which is used to treat chronic vertigo. A PPD is considered positive at 5 millimeters or more for which population? Confirmed or suspected HIV infection, injecting drug users, close contacts of a TB case, persons with a chest X-ray suggestive of TB A PPD greater than or equal to 10 mm is considered positive for injecting drug users known to be HIV negative, occupants of long-term care facilities, age less than 4 years, groups with a high prevalance for TB, the medically underserved, and healthcare workers. A PPD is considered positive at 15mm or more in those with no known risk factors. Considering mortality statistics for the adolescent age group. education targeted toward this group should first focus on: alcohol abuse. Alcohol is the most commonly used psychoactive substance in the United States today. It has been used by about 90% of adolescents by 16 years of age. Motor vehicle accidents related to driving under the influence of alcohol are the leading cause of death in the 15- year old age group. A patient with moderate persistent asthma will probably be most effectively managed with daily: inhaled steroids and long acting bronchodilators.

A patient with moderate persistent asthma has symptoms daily. He is best managed with daily medications of inhaled corticosteroids and long acting bronchdilators. Oral leukotriene blockers may be added to this regimen. A child has just scalded her index finger with hot water at home. The mother calls the NP within 5 minutes of the injury. All of the following are appropiate instructions for the mother regarding the care of the patient with a 2nd degree burn EXCEPT: Applying butter, cooking oil, or lanolin for pain relief. Flushing first or second degree burn with cool water is appropriate to prevent further thermal injury and to provide pain relief. Oil should NEVER be applied to a burn injury. Consider consultation for burns in patients who are under 10 years of age and over 50 years of age. Physician referral is recommended for all 3rd degree burns, for 2nd and 3rd degree burns involving more than 10% of the body surface area, any deep thickness burns involving more than 2% of the body surface area, and burns involving the face. What is the recommended treatment for cat scratch disease? usually self-limiting and presents with lymphadenopathy that goes away on it's own; severe cases may benefit from azithromycin What is the most common cause of traveler's diarrhea? e coli What bacteria is responsible for causing cat scratch disease? bartonella henselae

What are the 4 different components of tetralogy of fallot? overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and a ventricular septal defect What does the murmur auscultated in tetralogy of fallot sound like? systolic murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border What does the murmur auscultated in a ventricular septal defect sound like? systolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border Where is the aorta best auscultated? at the second ICS to to the right of the sternum Where is the pulmonary artery best auscultated? at the second ICS to the left of the sternum What is a scotoma? a blind spot or aura that obstructs part of your vision Is presbyopia nearsightedness or farsightedness? farsightedness meaning it can be harder to see things up close, such as reading a newspaper and may need to hold it farther away or use reading glasses Is myopia nearsightedness or farsightedness? nearsightedness meaning it is hard to see things far away

Do cataracts cause myopia or presbyopia? myopia; meaning nearsightedness and they make things blurry that are farther away which is why driving at night becomes difficult What is the USPSTF's recommendation on scoliosis screening for adolescents? insufficient When should adolescent girls be screened for scoliosis? as early as 10 years old and then again at age 12 When should adolescent boys be screening for scoliosis? between age 12-13 What is Auspitz sign? the appearance of small bleeding points after successive layers of scale have been removed from the surface of psoriatic papules or plaques A positive Auspitz sign is indicative of what? psoriasis When are pregnant women screening for gestational diabetes? week 24-28 What is round ligament pain?

a deep, sharp, stabbing or stretching sensation that begins or worsens with movement and can be unilateral or bilateral. This is a normal and benign part of pregnancy What are the components of the fetal biophysical profile? nonstress test (heart rate monitoring), amniotic fluid analysis, fetal movements, fetal tone, and fetal breathing How is the fetal biophysical profile performed? via ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring When is the fetal biophysical profile often performed? in the third trimester, often after week 28-32 What is a normal kick count in pregnancy? at least 10 kicks in a consecutive two hour period How much weight should an underweight woman gain in pregnancy? 28-40 pounds How much weight should a normal weight woman gain in pregnancy? 25-35 pounds How much weight should an overweight woman gain in pregnancy? 15-25 pounds

How much weight should an obese woman gain in pregnancy? 11-20 pounds Underweight and normal weight woman should be gaining how much weight per week in their second and third trimesters? 1 pound Overweight and obese women should be gaining how much weight per week in their second and third trimesters? 0.5 pounds What is the biggest risk associated with scabies? secondary infection due to itching What do scabies look like on the skin? red papular bumps that have s shaped burrows on them; may have fluid coming from them Sickle cell anemia is what type of anemia? normocytic How is sickle cell anemia diagnosed? hemoglobin electrophoresis Which age group is rheumatic fever most common in? children ages 5-15