APEA WHNP MyQbank Women's Health New Completed Questions with Rationales 2024, Exams of Nursing

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APEA

Women’s Health

Completed Questions with

Rationales

1. A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles and hirsutism. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of androgens. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) B. Thyroid dysfunction C. Cushing's syndrome D. Premature ovarian failure

Correct Answer: A. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

Rationale: The combination of irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and elevated androgen levels is characteristic of PCOS, a common endocrine disorder in women of reproductive age.

2. A 45-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for menopausal symptoms. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of menopause? A. Hot flashes B. Vaginal dryness C. Increased menstrual bleeding D. Night sweats

Correct Answer: C. Increased menstrual bleeding

Rationale: Increased menstrual bleeding is not a typical symptom of menopause. Common symptoms include hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and night sweats due to decreased estrogen levels.

3. In the context of prenatal care, which screening test is recommended to identify chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus? A. Triple screen test B. Pap smear C. Transvaginal ultrasound D. Mammography

Correct Answer: A. Triple screen test

Rationale: The triple screen test measures three specific substances in the mother's blood and is used to evaluate the risk of certain chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome and trisomy 18.

4. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What is the initial management strategy? A. Insulin therapy B. Oral hypoglycemic agents C. Dietary modification and exercise D. Immediate delivery

Correct Answer: C. Dietary modification and exercise

Rationale: The initial management for gestational diabetes typically involves dietary modifications and exercise to control blood glucose levels. If these measures are insufficient, medication may be considered.

5. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a family history of osteoporosis is concerned about her bone health. Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis? A. X-ray B. Bone scan C. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan D. MRI

Correct Answer: C. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

Rationale: DEXA scan is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis as it accurately measures bone mineral density and helps assess fracture risk.

6. A 27-year-old woman presents with a palpable breast mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test? A. Breast MRI B. Mammography C. Ultrasound D. Biopsy

Correct Answer: C. Ultrasound

Rationale: For women under 30 with a palpable breast mass, ultrasound is the preferred initial diagnostic test due to denser breast tissue that can limit the effectiveness of mammography.

7. A 22-year-old woman is diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV). Which of the following HPV strains is most commonly associated with cervical cancer?

A. HPV- 6

B. HPV- 11

C. HPV- 16

D. HPV- 18

Correct Answer: C. HPV- 16

Rationale: HPV-16 is one of the high-risk strains of HPV and is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.

8. A 35-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) is seeking preventive advice. Which of the following lifestyle modifications is NOT recommended to reduce the risk of UTIs? A. Frequent urination B. Wiping from back to front after bowel movement C. Drinking cranberry juice D. Staying well-hydrated

Correct Answer: B. Wiping from back to front after bowel movement

Rationale: Wiping from back to front can introduce bacteria from the anal region into the urethra, increasing the risk of UTIs. The other options are recommended to reduce the risk.

9. A 40-year-old woman with no significant medical history has a baseline bone density T-score of - 1.0. What does this T-score indicate? A. Normal bone density B. Osteopenia

C. Osteoporosis D. Severe osteoporosis

Correct Answer: A. Normal bone density

Rationale: A T-score between - 1 and +1 is considered normal bone density. Osteopenia and osteoporosis are indicated by T-scores of - 1 to - 2. and less than - 2.5, respectively.

10. A 55-year-old woman is being evaluated for urinary incontinence. Which type of incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void? A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Functional incontinence

Correct Answer: B. Urge incontinence

Rationale: Urge incontinence, also known as overactive bladder, is characterized by a sudden, intense urge to urinate followed by an involuntary loss of urine.

11. A 29-year-old woman is planning to conceive and is concerned about the risk of transmitting genetic disorders. Which of the following tests is most appropriate for assessing her carrier status for common genetic conditions? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Karyotyping C. Carrier screening

D. Amniocentesis

Correct Answer: C. Carrier screening

Rationale: Carrier screening is a genetic test that can determine if an individual is a carrier for specific inherited disorders, which is valuable information for couples planning to conceive.

12. A 60-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding one year after menopause. Which of the following is the most important initial diagnostic procedure? A. Pelvic ultrasound B. Endometrial biopsy C. Pap smear D. Hysteroscopy

Correct Answer: B. Endometrial biopsy

Rationale: Postmenopausal bleeding can be a sign of endometrial cancer. An endometrial biopsy is essential to rule out malignancy.

13. A 25-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following is NOT a common feature of PCOS? A. Insulin resistance B. Multiple ovarian cysts C. Regular menstrual cycles D. Hyperandrogenism

Correct Answer: C. Regular menstrual cycles

Rationale: Women with PCOS typically have irregular menstrual cycles due to hormonal imbalances. Regular cycles are not a common feature of PCOS.

14. A 48-year-old woman is undergoing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. Which of the following is a potential risk associated with long-term HRT? A. Decreased risk of breast cancer B. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease C. Improved bone density D. Reduced hot flashes

Correct Answer: B. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease

Rationale: Long-term use of HRT has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer, although it can reduce menopausal symptoms and improve bone density.

15. A 38-year-old woman with a history of endometriosis is experiencing chronic pelvic pain. Which of the following management options is typically considered first-line treatment? A. Hysterectomy B. Opioid analgesics C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists

Correct Answer: C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Rationale: NSAIDs are often the first-line treatment for managing chronic pelvic pain associated with endometriosis due to their anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties.

16. A 33-year-old woman is considering contraception options. Which of the following methods provides the highest efficacy in preventing pregnancy? A. Oral contraceptive pills B. Condoms C. Intrauterine device (IUD) D. Natural family planning

Correct Answer: C. Intrauterine device (IUD)

Rationale: IUDs are one of the most effective forms of reversible contraception with a very low failure rate when used correctly.

17. A 26-year-old woman is diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which of the following STIs is caused by a virus and is incurable? A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) D. Syphilis

Correct Answer: C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Rationale: HIV is a viral infection that currently has no cure, although it can be managed with antiretroviral therapy. The other listed STIs are caused by bacteria and can be cured with antibiotics.

18. A 42-year-old woman is being screened for breast cancer. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with an increased risk of breast cancer? A. Early menarche B. Late menopause C. Breastfeeding D. Family history of breast cancer

Correct Answer: C. Breastfeeding

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing cervical cancer? A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection B) Smoking C) Early menarche D) Regular pap smear screenings

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Regular pap smear screenings are essential for early detection of cervical cancer, not a risk factor for its development. In polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which hormone imbalance is commonly observed? A) Increased estrogen levels B) Decreased luteinizing hormone (LH) levels C) Elevated testosterone levels

D) Low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: PCOS is characterized by elevated testosterone levels, contributing to its symptoms. Which contraceptive method provides the highest efficacy in preventing pregnancy? A) Condoms B) Oral contraceptives C) Intrauterine devices (IUDs) D) Diaphragms

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: IUDs have one of the lowest failure rates among contraceptive methods. What is the most common cause of infertility in women? A) Ovulatory dysfunction B) Tubal factor infertility C) Endometriosis D) Uterine abnormalities

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ovulatory dysfunction accounts for a significant proportion of female infertility cases.

Which of the following is a symptom of endometriosis? A) Heavy menstrual bleeding B) Painful intercourse C) Amenorrhea D) Breast tenderness

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Painful intercourse is a common symptom experienced by women with endometriosis. What is the recommended age for initiating mammography screening in average-risk women? A) 35 years B) 40 years C) 45 years D) 50 years

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends starting mammography screening at age 40 for average-risk women. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is known to cause genital warts? A) Chlamydia B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

C) Gonorrhea D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: HPV infection is associated with the development of genital warts. What is the first-line treatment for menopausal vasomotor symptoms? A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) C) Clonidine D) Gabapentin

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hormone replacement therapy is the primary treatment for menopausal vasomotor symptoms. Which condition is characterized by the presence of excess hair growth in a male pattern in women? A) Hirsutism B) Hyperthyroidism C) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) D) Cushing's syndrome

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hirsutism refers to excess hair growth in a male pattern in women. What is the most common type of ovarian cancer? A) Endometrioid carcinoma B) Mucinous carcinoma C) Serous carcinoma D) Clear cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Serous carcinoma is the most common type of ovarian cancer. Which contraceptive method is contraindicated in women with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A) Combined oral contraceptives B) Condoms C) Progestin-only pills D) Copper IUD

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women with a history of DVT due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. What is the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A) Chlamydia trachomatis

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Mycoplasma genitalium D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia trachomatis is a common causative agent of pelvic inflammatory disease. Which type of breast cancer is most commonly hormone receptor-positive? A) Triple-negative breast cancer B) HER2-positive breast cancer C) Luminal A breast cancer D) Basal-like breast cancer

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Luminal A breast cancer is typically hormone receptor- positive. Which condition is characterized by the presence of tissue similar to the endometrium outside the uterus? A) Adenomyosis B) Leiomyoma C) Endometrial hyperplasia D) Endometriosis

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Endometriosis involves the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus. What is the leading cause of death in women in the United States? A) Breast cancer B) Cardiovascular disease C) Lung cancer D) Stroke

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death among women in the United States. Which condition is associated with the presence of abnormal cells on the surface of the cervix? A) Cervical dysplasia B) Cervical polyps C) Cervicitis D) Cervical stenosis

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cervical dysplasia refers to the presence of abnormal cells on the cervix. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for confirming polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A) Transvaginal ultrasound B) Serum hormone levels C) Pelvic exam D) Rotterdam criteria

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The Rotterdam criteria are used to diagnose PCOS based on clinical and ultrasound findings. Which factor is NOT associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporosis? A) Family history of osteoporosis B) Smoking C) Regular weight-bearing exercise D) Low dietary calcium intake

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Regular weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. What is the recommended first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis in pregnant women? A) Metronidazole B) Clindamycin C) Fluconazole

D) Azithromycin

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis in pregnant women. Which condition is characterized by the presence of excessive uterine bleeding unrelated to structural abnormalities? A) Menorrhagia B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C) Polymenorrhea D) Hypomenorrhea

Correct Answer: B

1. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptives (COCs)? A. Estrogen inhibits ovulation by suppressing FSH and LH release. B. Progestin thins the endometrium to prevent implantation. C. Estrogen thickens cervical mucus to inhibit sperm penetration. D. Progestin increases bone resorption to maintain bone density.

Correct Answer: C. Estrogen thickens cervical mucus to inhibit sperm

penetration. Rationale: Estrogen in COCs acts on the cervical mucus to create a hostile environment for sperm penetration, aiding in contraceptive efficacy.

2. A 28-year-old woman presents with primary dysmenorrhea. Which medication can be used as a first-line treatment option for pain relief? A. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) B. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) C. GnRH agonists D. Danazol

Correct Answer: B. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)

Rationale: COCs are often recommended as a first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea due to their ability to reduce prostaglandin production and suppress ovulation.

3. Which screening test should be recommended annually for sexually active women under the age of 25 to detect Chlamydia trachomatis infections? A. Pap smear B. HIV testing C. Urine-based nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) D. Endometrial biopsy

Correct Answer: C. Urine-based nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

Rationale: NAAT is the preferred method for screening for Chlamydia trachomatis infections in sexually active young women, as it is highly sensitive and specific.

4. In a woman with suspected polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which laboratory finding would be most consistent with the diagnosis? A. Low serum levels of testosterone B. Elevated LH:FSH ratio C. Normal fasting glucose levels D. Decreased anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) levels

Correct Answer: B. Elevated LH:FSH ratio

Rationale: An elevated LH:FSH ratio (>2:1) is a common finding in women with PCOS due to disrupted feedback mechanisms and ovarian dysfunction.

5. A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of perimenopause. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the vasomotor symptoms commonly experienced during this transition? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Correct Answer: A. Estrogen

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency is a key factor in the development of vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats during perimenopause and menopause.

6. Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for evaluating pelvic organ prolapse and determining severity? A. Pelvic ultrasound B. MRI of the pelvis C. Pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POP-Q) examination D. Urodynamic testing

Correct Answer: C. Pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POP-Q)

examination Rationale: The POP-Q examination provides a standardized and comprehensive assessment of pelvic organ prolapse, guiding treatment decisions based on the severity and extent of prolapse.

7. A 30-year-old nulliparous woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. Which medication is recommended as a first-line treatment to reduce menstrual blood loss? A. Tranexamic acid B. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) C. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Correct Answer: B. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)

Rationale: LNG-IUS is an effective and well-tolerated option for managing heavy menstrual bleeding in women without structural abnormalities or contraindications to intrauterine devices.

8. Which condition is characterized by cyclic breast pain and tenderness that typically occurs in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? A. Fibroadenoma B. Mastitis C. Breast cancer D. Fibrocystic changes

Correct Answer: D. Fibrocystic changes

Rationale: Fibrocystic changes in the breast are a common benign condition that can present with cyclic breast pain and tenderness associated with hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.

9. A 35-year-old woman with a history of endometriosis is seeking contraceptive options. Which method is recommended for managing endometriosis-related pain and reducing disease progression? A. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) B. Progestin-only pill (POP) C. Copper intrauterine device (IUD) D. Barrier methods (e.g., condoms)

Correct Answer: A. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)

Rationale: COCs are a first-line option for managing endometriosis-related pain by suppressing menstruation, reducing inflammation, and slowing disease progression.

10. Which of the following is an indication for the use of non-hormonal therapies in the management of menopausal symptoms? A. Hormone-sensitive breast cancer B. Severe osteoporosis C. Endometriosis D. Ovarian cysts

Correct Answer: A. Hormone-sensitive breast cancer

Rationale: Non-hormonal therapies are recommended for menopausal symptom management in women with a history of hormone-sensitive breast cancer to avoid estrogen exposure and potential cancer recurrence.

11. Which physical finding is characteristic of lichen sclerosus, a chronic inflammatory skin condition affecting the vulvar area? A. White papules on the labia minora B. Erythematous plaques with satellite lesions C. Smooth white patches with minimal or absent hair follicles D. Pustules and vesicles on the perineum

Correct Answer: C. Smooth white patches with minimal or absent hair

follicles

Rationale: Lichen sclerosus typically presents as smooth white patches on the vulvar skin with a loss of normal architecture, often affecting the labia minora and perineum.

12. Which surgical procedure is commonly performed for the treatment of stress urinary incontinence by providing support to the urethra and bladder neck? A. Anterior colporrhaphy B. Midurethral sling placement C. Sacrocolpopexy D. Uterosacral ligament suspension

Correct Answer: B. Midurethral sling placement

Rationale: Midurethral sling placement is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that provides support to the urethra and bladder neck, effectively treating stress urinary incontinence.

13. A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. Which non-hormonal treatment option can be recommended for managing these menopausal symptoms? A. Vaginal estrogen cream B. Osphena (ospemifene) tablets C. Lubricants and vaginal moisturizers D. Bioidentical hormone therapy

Correct Answer: C. Lubricants and vaginal moisturizers

Rationale: Lubricants and vaginal moisturizers are non-hormonal options for relieving symptoms of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia in menopausal women, enhancing comfort and sexual function.

14. Which histopathological feature is characteristic of atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium and distinguishes it from hyperplasia without atypia? A. Presence of back-to-back glands B. Crowded glandular architecture C. Nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia D. Surface involvement without glandular complexity

Correct Answer: C. Nuclear enlargement and hyperchromasia

Rationale: Atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium is defined by the presence of nuclear atypia, including nuclear enlargement, hyperchromasia, and abnormal mitotic figures, indicating an increased risk of concurrent or future endometrial carcinoma.

15. Which risk factor is associated with an increased likelihood of developing ovarian germ cell tumors, such as dysgerminoma or immature teratoma? A. Nulliparity B. Family history of breast cancer C. Prior pelvic radiation therapy D. BRCA1 mutation