APHR Exam and Practice Exam 2024-2025: Questions and Answers, Exams of Business Economics

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What is Globalizing? Very broad term for engaging in operations on an international scale An organization is using a legacy HRIS because long-standing employees are comfortable with the software and feel it continues to meet their data management needs. However, several new employees are having difficulty using the outdated user interface and are pushing to adopt an entirely new platform. What is a good solution for this situation? a) Contract with a vendor that offers interface layer technology to develop a new user interface while maintaining the existing system b) Get rid of the old system and invest in the latest HRIS before the current software becomes even more outdated than it already is c) Reassign the new employees to positions that already have more cutting edge software in place d) Create an organization-wide site where employees can submit anonymous feedback about using the current HRIS a) Contract with a vendor that offers interface layer technology to develop a new user interface while maintaining the existing system What part of SWOT analysis evaluates internal factors that affect an organization's performance? Strengths and weaknesses What does SWOT stand for? strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats What does "benchmarking" refer to in an HR context? Identifying and setting goals relative to other organizations' performance What factors data PESTLE analysis take into consideration?

Political, economic, social, technological, legal, and environmental trends that influence the organization What is the purpose of a root cause analysis? To determine the foundation-level reason as to why an overarching issue is occurring What are 2 popular search tools to find peer-reviewed, evidence-based research? a) CNN and FOX b) Medline and Yahoo News c) Google Scholar and PubMed d) People Quest and People Soft c) Google Scholar and PubMed Meeting, learning from , and socializing with colleagues within and outside of one's organization is know as which of the following practices? a) Networking b) Achieving work-life balance c) Formal Education d) Fraternizing a) Networking Lisa is an HR generalist that is posting a job online. She is proud of her company's benefits system and wants to highlight some of them in the posting. What types of benefits could she include in the job posting? a) Company-sponsored worksite wellness program, 401(k) matching up to 5% and an annual sponsored mindfulness retreat b) Job tasks, including the amount of time spent sitting each day c) Number of direct reports for the position d) An exact salary number a) Company-sponsored worksite wellness program, 401(k) matching up to 5% and an annual sponsored mindfulness retreat During new hire orientation, Joe wants to illustrate the company culture to new employees. What are some things he could share with them to show the organization's culture? a) Share that employees can choose to work remotely one day per week, that leadership sit with employees in an open workplace, and the last Friday of each month is used to celebrate an employee's personal heritage b) Share that new equipment will be delivered at the end of the month, and that he will follow up with each employee on assignment c) Share his personal career story, beginning from choosing a major in college d) Enroll employees in a required CPR/AED course

a) Share that employees can choose to work remotely one day per week, that leadership sit with employees in an open workplace, and the last Friday of each month is used to celebrate an employee's personal heritage Which best describes corporate social responsibility? a) Corporate social responsibility is a policy mandated by the government to coerce corporations to improve their communities b) Corporate social responsibility refers to the responsibility that corporations have toward shareholders c) Corporate social responsibility is an issue of ethics, pursued by corporations that see the health of their business as contingent upon the health of their community d) Corporate social responsibility refers to the social climate of the organization and the policies created to sustain the strength of that climate c) Corporate social responsibility is an issue of ethics, pursued by corporations that see the health of their business as contingent upon the health of their community CSR can be evaluated on which three P's of the "triple bottom line"? a) People, prizes and proxy b) Planet, profit and projects c) People, profit and prizes d) People, planet and profit d) People, planet and profit What's the purpose of a vision statement? A vision statement is a succinct explanation of how an organization planes to deliver quality products/services In regards to corporate social responsibility, the most common way for a corporation to assimilate into a community includes all of the following EXCEPT? a) The most common way for a corporation to pursue social responsibility is to establish alliances with respected members of the community and outside organizations b) The most common way for a corporation to pursue social responsibility is to deliver inexpensive goods and services for the commoniunity c) The most common way for a corporation to pursue social responsibility is hiring as many locals as possible d) The most common way for a corporation to pursue social responsibility is by maximizing their profits despite any consequences to the surrounding environment d) The most common way for a corporation to pursue social responsibility is by maximizing their profits despite any consequences to the surrounding environment

What's the primary purpose of organizational branding? I. The intent of organizational branding is letting customers know when they walk into a store. II. One purpose of organizational branding is to establish a distinctive image for customers to automatically recognize III. Organizational branding allows entities to create a perception of the values and ethics for which it stands IV. Organizational branding focuses on promoting the benefits of the company in order to appeal to a target audience a) I,II and IV only b) I,III, and IV only c) II and III only d) I,II and III only d) I,II and III only What is the main purpose of a cost-benefit analysis? When evaluating a policy or program, a cost-benefit analysis empirically tests it efficacy to ensure that resources aren't squandered What are business metrics? Business metrics are quantifiable measures that describe the productive capacity of a policy, program or product All of the following are part of the core meaning of competitive advantage EXCEPT? a) A competitive advantage is the practice of constantly attempting to increase market share by exploiting advantages b) By constantly developing a labor force and technology, competitive advantage is pursued by al corporations in order to edge out competitors in the market c) It's mandatory that organizations pursue policies of competitive advantage because they all want to maximize output and increase market share d) Competitive advantage is a type of benefit that customers believe they could not get anywhere else d) Competitive advantage is a type of benefit that customers believe they could not get anywhere else Which of the following statements LEAST describes corporate governance? a) Corporate governance is the established policies, rules and standard that organizations follow in order to fulfill its vision and goal as a for-profit entity and a stakeholder in the broader community b) Public policy influences corporate governance, i.e Sarbanes-Oxley Act c) Corporate governance addresses rules, practices and institutions that protects and manages ecosystems in relation to the environment d) Corporate governance is necessary to establish an organization's self image and can be used as an instrument to restore institutional trust

c) Corporate governance addresses rules, practices and institutions that protects and manages ecosystems in relation to the environment What is corporate governance? Corporate governance is the system by which companies are directed and controlled. Boards of directors are responsible for the governance of their companies. The shareholders' role in governance is to appoint the directors and the auditors and to satisfy themselves that an appropriate governance structure is in place. What is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a federal law that established sweeping auditing and financial regulations for public companies. Lawmakers created the legislation to help protect shareholders, employees and the public from accounting errors and fraudulent financial practices. Which of the following is true about corporate restructuring? a) Corporate restructuring is intended to make a firm more competitive b) Corporate restructuring is a change in operations, legal code or ownership inside of a firm c) Corporate restructuring is only a euphemism for cutting labor and lowering wages d) The principle purpose of corporate restructuring is to increase profits for senior executives b) Corporate restructuring is a change in operations, legal code or ownership inside of a firm Which of the following best describes enterprises risk management (ERM)? a) Enterprise risk management is when each department crafted its own policies and procedures for handling sues of risk and loss b) Enterprise risk management policies are crafted only by senior executives and then handed down to all departments to follow c) Enterprise risk management is the process of establishing a broad but comprehensive protocol for handling issues of risk and loss d) Enterprise risk management is when a company participates in a high-risk situation in order to maximize profits for the good of the company c) Enterprise risk management is the process of establishing a broad but comprehensive protocol for handling issues of risk and loss All of the following is true about offshoring EXCEPT? a) Offshoring is typically done to reduce the cost of business b) Offshoring involves sifting business operations to a country where business can be conducted at lower costs c) The only beneficiary of offshoring is the company itself d) Offshoring is one aspect of corporate restructuring that permits a company to remain competitive

c) The only beneficiary of offshoring is the company itself What is offshoring? the practice of basing some of a company's processes or services overseas, so as to take advantage of lower costs. relocate (a business or department) to a foreign country to take advantage of lower costs. All of the following is necessary for an organization to pay attention to the legislative and regulatory environment EXCEPT? a) To anticipate Chang's and craft corporate governance policies that address new regulations and legislation b) to engage in lobbying efforts in order to fight proposed changes that could be damaging to the corporation c) To modify and make new legislative and regulatory changes more palatable d) To examine competitors and match their own legislation to that of other corporations d) To examine competitors and match their own legislation to that of other corporations Which definition most accurately explains a whistle-blower? a) A whistle blower is a person who reports any unethical information about an organization b) A whistle blower is a person hired by an organization to cover up illicit or unethical activities c) A whistle blower is a person who reports or publicizes any illegal or unethical information about the institution. Whistle blower status is only granted when the organization is private d) A whistle blower reports or publicizes any illegal or unethical information about the institution. Whistle blower status is only granted when the organization is public a) A whistle blower is a person who reports any unethical information about an organization Which of the following is NOT a key component of a business plan? a) Annual goals b) Projected growth targets c) Net income expectations d) Bonuses for executives d) Bonuses for executives A stakeholder is any actor that affects or can be affected by a business but doesn't own property of the business. Which of following groups of people are NOT stakeholder? a) Employees b) Surrounding business c) Shareholders d) The local community

c) Shareholders What are stakeholder? A stakeholder is a party that has an interest in a company and can either affect or be affected by the business. The primary stakeholders in a typical corporation are its investors, employees, customers and suppliers. What is a shareholder? A shareholder, also referred to as a stockholder, is a person, company, or institution that owns at least one share of a company's stock, which is known as equity. Because shareholders are essentially owners in a company, they reap the benefits of a business' success. Which of the following best describes mergers and acquisitions (M&A)? a) Mergers occur temporarily in order to consolidate resources and beat out a competitor; acquisitions occur permanently b) Mergers occur when one company purchases another without a new company being formed. c) Merger occur when two companies combine to form a new one. Acquisitions occur when one company purchases another one without a new company being formed d) Mergers and acquisitions often occur temporarily in order to consolidate resources and beat out a competitor; then the actions are rescinded and the entities disband c) Merger occur when two companies combine to form a new one. Acquisitions occur when one company purchases another one without a new company being formed When performing a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed project, what is a project worker's salary an example of? A cost Each fiscal quarter within a fiscal year is an example of which of the following? a) Benchmarking b) A milestone c) Calendar divides d) A dependent variable b) A milestone Myra and Angela are 2 HR professionals who work in the same organization. Recently, Myra successfully implemented a sustainability initiative with the marketing department, where she helped them reduce the amount of paper they use. This led to saved paper, printing and labor costs as well as reduced physical waste. Angela would like to try this initiative with the Finance department, which is welcome to this idea. Hw can Angela begin to allocate resources for this project? a) Copy Myra's initiative as closely as possible, right down to the budget and timeline b) Use her best guess to document what she believes the finance department will need in order to

reduce their paper waste and provide a written copy to the manager c) Set up a meeting with Myra to discuss how she allocated resources and what went successfully as well as what did not go successfully and use this data to plan d) Ask the HR intern to devote all of c) Set up a meeting with Myra to discuss how she allocated resources and what went successfully as well as what did not go successfully and use this data to plan Michael leads an HR department at a federal agency. He is in the planning stage for the new fiscal year and is thrilled that he has created initiatives that are highly detailed and comprehensive and use the resources of contracts his agency currently has in place. He is very attracted to the outcomes of these initiatives. However, a presidential election is taking place in one month that will likely affect the contracts that are awarded to his agency. What can Michael do to protect his new fiscal year plans? a) Ensure that there is leftover money from the previous fiscal year to serve as a cushion should he not receive expected contracts b) Create backup plans for all of the contracts that may be affected, while calmly accepting that some changes may be unanticipated and out of his control c) Nothing, he has alley distributed them to employees and archived them on the organization's servers d) Find a new job b) Create backup plans for all of the contracts that may be affected, while calmly accepting that some changes may be unanticipated and out of his control Larry manages three HR employees. Jane is in charge of compensation and benefit tasks, Ira is in charge of risk management tasks, and Samir is in charge of recruitment and hiring. Samir has an illness that takes him out of the office for 6 weeks, and during this time, all recruitment and hiring processes freeze. This majorly impacts 2 other departments that were waiting on new employees to begin. How could this situation have best been prevented? a) Larry should have cross-trained his 3 employees to fill in for each other should emergencies come up b) Samir should have worked remotely to handle the candidates needed by the other 2 departments c) Larry should have filled in for Samir's role for the entire duration of his absence d) Ira should have analyzed Samir's workday operations to see if anything at work caused his illness a) Larry should have cross-trained his 3 employees to fill in for each other should emergencies come up What is the most crucial aspect of successfully implementing organizational changes? a) work ethic b) Leadership buy-in c) Highly compensated employees d) Terminating employees who do not agree b) Leadership buy-in Leadership buy-in promotes top-down change; without leaders in the company supporting new

initiatives, it is highly unlikely that subordinate employees will embrace change. They are more likely to resist if they feel those in leadership positions do not find the change valuable. An employee sees a close colleague change numbers in an accounting spreadsheet to reflect incorrect values. The employee feels uncomfortable reporting the colleague, due to their friendship and close working relationship. However, the employee feels very concerned about the situation. What is one feasible resource that can help this employee in a situation like this? a) An anonymous and confidential HR hotline b) A close relationship with a supervisor c) An in-house coffee shop where the employee can go with the colleague to discuss their feelings about the situation d) Regular communication training sessions a) An anonymous and confidential HR hotline What is the best way for HR leaders to communicate acceptable and ethical behaviors in the workplace? a) Provide written protocols about what constitutes as ethical and unethical behavior b) Relay that employees are continuously monitored with in-house cameras, os they should be especially mindful of their work behavior c) Model acceptable and ethical behavior themselves, as much as possible d) Tell employees at their new hire orientation c) Model acceptable and ethical behavior themselves, as much as possible Modeling ethical behavior is the most effective way to show employees what is acceptable in the workplace. The other methods listed can help, but they may not be very effective on their own The CEO of a company holds bi—weekly meetings with his entire organization to relay new information about the company performance, trends, and personal opinion relating to the industry. What is this an example of? Transparency Transparency allows employees to know what is going on in most, if font all, aspects of the organization as it relates to their job. Hi transparency is associated with employees who feel valued, validated and report high morale. Where should an employee first encounter an organization's ethical standards and polices? a) At the new hire orientation b) During the first interview c) In the job posting for his or her role d) By reading a company press release c) In the job posting for his or her role

The job posting is the first place to share the company's mission, vision and ethical standards. This attracts candidates with similar values to apply. Ethical standards should be reviewed again during the interview process and the new hire orientation to ensure good fit and promote the values The Vice President of an organization has noticed that a particular employee, Ben, has been working extremely hard and has made positive impression on a large majority of the organization's leadership. The Vice President meets with Ben and asks him about is work. Ben shares all of the accomplishments that his team has achieved in the last quarter. What is Ben displaying during this meeting? a) Ego b) Individualist behavior c) Team-oriented culture d) Humility c) Team-oriented behavior Rather than speaking about all of his hard work and contributions, Ben chose to share his team's accomplishments without singling anyone out. This is a display of strong team-oriented culture in the workplace During a project meeting, Mary creates a table that includes a detailed description of every task needed for the project, a deliverable date for each task , and the owner of each task. Each member is able to access and update the table with status updates. What is Mary helping her team to do? a) Helping each member feel accountable b) Micromanaging c) Modeling ethical behavior d) Collecting data a) Helping each member feel accountable Soliciting feedback from stakeholders is an important part of which of the following process stages? a) Evaluation b) control c) Testing d) Documentation a) Evaluation Feedback is an important part of the evaluation stage, which examines if processes were implemented smoothly, effectively and provided value Which of the following is an exception to the concept of employment-at-will? a) An employee who decided to willing sever the employment relationship b) An employee who is terminated for whistleblowing or for reporting unlawful conduct by the employer

c) An employer who lets an employee go who does not have an employment contract d) An employee who is fired for willful misconduct b) An employee who is terminated for whistleblowing or for reporting unlawful conduct by the employer A truck driver kills a family's small child in an accident, and it is later uncovered that the truck driver lied on his employment application, had a history of unsafe driving, and has his license revoked twice. The employer was ultimately held responsible by the family's attorney for which of the following? a) Negligent retention b) Constructive discharge c) Negligent hiring d) Defamation c) Negligent hiring Which of the following activities is considered to be a fair labor practice? a) Hot cargo agreement b) Jurisdictional strike c) Secondary boycott d) Sympathy strike d) Sympathy strike All but Sympathy strike are considered to be unfair labor practice What is a sympathy strike? a strike in which the strikers have no direct grievance against their own employer but attempt to support or aid usually another group of workers on strike. What is a hot cargo agreement? Hot-cargo agreement is an agreement between an employer and a union in which the employer agrees not to handle or work on any freight or product coming from another person with whom the union has a dispute What is a jurisdictional strike? a concerted refusal to work undertaken by a union to assert its members' right to particular job assignments and to protest the assignment of disputed work to members of another union or to unorganized workers. What is a secondary boycott? industrial action by a union against a company on the grounds that does business with another company engaged in a labor dispute. Which of the following employees would not be eligible to vote in an upcoming union election?

a) An employee who is temporarily laid off b) An employee who is out sick with the flu c) An employee who is out on military leave right before the elections d) A staff member who is out of the office on a medical leave of absence and who will not be returning to work d) A staff member who is out of the office on a medical leave of absence and who will not be returning to work Under the Taft-Hartley Act, which of the following is illegal? a) Creating a company-sponsored labor union b) An employee deciding to contribute to a charity instead of paying union dues, due to their religious objection c) An employer filing an unfair labor practice charge against a union d) A union representing nonunion employees in the bargaining unit a) Creating a company-sponsored labor union What is the Taft-Hartley Act? is a United States federal law that restricts the activities and power of labor unions. Which of the following is a true statement regarding a modified duty assignment? a) A modified duty assignment is a temporary reassignment that seeks to accommodate employees who are recovering from illness or injury b) A modified duty assignment is a permanent arrangement of work to accommodate employees who are injured c) In order to make more money, a modified duty assignment is more work given to employees who ask for it d) Injured employees must accept a modified duty assignment and be examined by a licensed physician to be cleared for the assignment. a) A modified duty assignment is a temporary reassignment that seeks to accommodate employees who are recovering from illness or injury Which of the following most accurately describes a procurement policy? a) A procurement policy is a strategy that employers use to find the most qualified employees b) A procurement policy is an organization's strategy to obtain and secure goods and services in an orderly and beneficial way to minimize cost and maximize savings c) A procurement policy is an analysis of an organization's inventory in order to determine what supplies are needed d) A procurement policy is any action that an organization takes to find a new location b) A procurement policy is an organization's strategy to obtain and secure goods and services in an orderly and beneficial way to minimize cost and maximize savings

What is a hazard communication program, and is it legally binding? A hazard communication program is a mandate from OSHA that requires employers to inform employees when they are working with hazardous materials and the nature of each material and is legally binding To reduce operating costs, a company decided to maintain its domestic headquarters but open an overseas manufacturing plant. What is the best word to describe this move? Offshoring What is offshoring? Refers to the relocation of some or all of an organization's processes to an international location, either internally or through third party vendors What is outsourcing? Refers to moving an organization's processes outside the company by contracting third party vendors; outsourcing can take place either domestically or internationally What is Downsizing? An organization downsizes when it reduces its operations and eliminates previously staffed positions

1. As a type of resource, human capital refers to: a. the wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions within an organization. b. executive talent within an organization. c. the tax-deferred value of an employee's 401(k) plan. d. employee characteristics that add economic value to the organization.
2. Human capital includes all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Training b. Profitability c. Relationships d. Intelligence

3. When an organization is able to perform an activity to a greater degree than its competitors for an extended period of time, it is said to have a: a. differentiated focus. b. sustainable competitive advantage. c. core competency. d. low-cost competitive advantage.
4. Under the principle of employment at will, the employer may terminate employment: a. after two-weeks' notice. b. at any time without notice. c. immediately after written notice. d. at the end of the current day's shift with or without written notice.
5. Glass ceilings refer to: a. the intangible barriers that often keep female and minority employees from moving up the corporate ladder, particularly into management positions. b. the new, open office environments designed to enhance the free flow of ideas and communications. c. the trend of long-term employees to "top-out" on the pay scale, reducing their motivation and productivity. d. the overall decrease in employee privacy due to increased use of surveillance devices and methods within the workplace.
6. The process of identifying the numbers and types of employees the organization will require in order to meet its objectives is known as: a. strategic planning. b. change management. c. human resource planning. d. work analysis.
7. Communicating, negotiating, and team development are examples of ____ skills. a. leadership b. decision-making c. human relations d. technical
8. Ethics refer to: a. one's religious and political values and beliefs. b. what is required by law. c. what is acceptable to the company. d. the fundamental principles of right and wrong.
9. Which of the following is not a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for practices to be ethical?

a. Managers must treat employees as family. b. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people. c. Employment practices must respect basic human rights of privacy, due process, and free speech. d. Managers must treat employees and customers equitably and fairly.

10. The primary and largest organization for HRM professionals is the: a. American Management Association (AMA). b. American Compensation Association (ACA). c. Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM). d. Personnel Management Association (PMA).
11. Human resources provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage because they are: a. valuable. b. rare. c. not easily imitated. d. All of the above
12. Which process involves acquiring knowledge, skills, and behaviors that improve employees' ability to meet the challenges of a variety of new or existing jobs? a. Development b. Training c. Orientation d. Coordinating
13. The process of ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals is called: a. job analysis. b. strategic management. c. quality assurance. d. performance management.
14. Which term refers to all people willing and able to work? a. Labor force b. Internal labor force c. External labor force d. Knowledge workers
15. Changing employee values and life stages will require organizations to develop HRM practices that: a. emphasize stability and life-long employment. b. provide more opportunity for individual contribution and entrepreneurship. c. require fewer job skills and responsibilities per job. d. stress pay and production rather than the quality of nonwork activities and family life.

16. Regardless of their background and age, most employees value: a. the ability to challenge the status quo. b. more simplistic tasks requiring fewer skills. c. managerial positions. d. work that leads to self-fulfillment.
17. Managing cultural diversity involves: a. enforcing EEO rules. b. creating separate career tracks for employees with families. c. establishing a strong affirmative action policy. d. creating a workplace where employee differences are accepted and valued.
18. Which one of the following statements regarding workforce skills is not true? a.The increasing use of computers to do routine tasks has shifted the kinds of skills needed by employees in the U.S. economy. b. More and more employers are looking for employees with solid technical skills rather than knowledge-based or interpersonal skills. c. The gap between skills needed and skills available has decreased U.S. companies' abilities to compete because they sometimes lack the skills to upgrade technology, reorganize work, and empower employees. d. While many of the desired skills require higher levels of education, some are at the most basic level, such as getting to work on time and working hard.
19. Which one of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company's social system (people and how they interact) and its technical system (equipment and processes)? a. Outsourcing b. Self-service system c. High-performance work system d. Total quality management
20. Empowerment is defined as: a. the movement of women and minorities into managerial positions. b. giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions. c. leading employees by the strength of one's charisma. d. the act of continually learning and improving one's skills and abilities.
21. The use of employee empowerment has had what effect upon recruiting? a. It has created an international labor market. b. It has substantially enhanced employment opportunities for women and minorities. c. It has shifted the focus away from technical skills to general cognitive and interpersonal skills. d. It has significantly reduced recruiting costs.
22. Increasingly, HR professionals are being viewed as:

a. legal compliance officers. b. an administrative unit or function. c. experts in designing and delivering HR systems. d. strategic partners.

23. Which one of the following terms describes a company-wide effort to continuously improve the way people, machines, and systems accomplish work? a. Outsourcing b. Self-service system c. High-performance work system d. Total quality management
24. When two companies become one, it is termed a: a. partnership. b. consolidation. c. merger. d. joint venture.
25. The process whereby organizations lay off employees with outdated skills or cut whole businesses in declining markets while simultaneously building businesses and employee bases in newer, higher- growth markets is known as: a. downsizing. b. churning. c. outsourcing. d. surgical reductions.
26. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called: a. knowledge workers. b. immigrants. c. expatriates. d. nationalists.
27. When an organization undertakes a complete review of its critical work processes to make them more efficient and to be able to deliver higher quality, it is engaging in: a. outsourcing. b. high-performance work system design. c. total quality management. d. reengineering.
28. Electronic sales among manufacturers, retailers, wholesalers, and construction firms represent what type of e-business? a. Business-to-consumer b. Business-to-business

c. Consumer-to-consumer d. Business-to-distributor

29. Employees realize that many companies are no longer able to provide long-term employment security. As a result, employees now want: a. increased pay. b. less demanding work. c. employability. d. written employment contracts.
30. John is an HR consultant who runs and operates his own business from his home. He is often hired by businesses to present one- or two-day workshops on various topics within his field of expertise. John is a/an: a. on-call worker. b. independent contractor. c. temporary worker. d. contract company worker.
31. Which one of the following is not a way that the executive branch can affect the laws that govern our country? a. By drawing up regulations detailing how to abide by the laws. b. By enforcement of laws, pursuing only the kinds of cases the President wants. c. By regulating the activities of federal contractors through executive orders. d. By passing laws that determine what is legal and illegal.
32. Which legislative/regulatory actions are under the direct control of the President? a. Constitutional amendments b. Judicial decisions c. Legislation d. Executive orders
33. Which one of the following requires organizations holding federal contracts to engage in affirmative action to hire women and minorities? a. Executive Order 11246 b. Title VII c. Civil Rights Act of 1991 d. Vocational Rehabilitation Act
34. The Civil Rights Acts of 1866 and 1871 still play an active role in employment rights cases because they: a. cover age discrimination, an employment category not covered by the 1964 Civil Rights Act. b. are now recognized worldwide, applying to all businesses regardless of country of origin. c. allow plaintiffs to recover both compensatory and punitive damages.

d. not only cover race, color, religion, sex, age, disability, and national origin, but sexual orientation as well.

35. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows men and women performing the same job to be paid differently as a result of: a. merit. b. seniority. c. quantity or quality of production. d. All of the above
36. Which of the following is true of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? a. The act is enforced by the U.S. Department of Labor. b. The act applies to organizations with 15 employees or more. c. The act applies only to those employees working 35 or more weeks a year. d. The act applies to organizations with 50 employees or more.
37. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals based on all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Age b. Race c. Religion d. National origin
38. Which one of the following is not true of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973? a. The act covers executive agencies, contractors, and subcontractors that receive more than $10, annually from the federal government. b. The act requires organizations to engage in affirmative actions for qualified individuals. c. The act enhances employment for individuals with disabilities. d. The act is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
39. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers: a. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. b. that offer disability plans to handle pregnancy concerns as they would any other disability. c. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. d. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child.
40. The Americans with Disability Act covers individuals who: a. have serious disabilities—such as epilepsy, blindness, or paralysis—that affect their ability to perform major life activities, such as walking, learning, and working. b. have a history of disability, such as someone who has had cancer but is currently in remission. c. are regarded as having a disability, such as an individual who is severely disfigured and is denied employment because an employer fears negative reactions from others. d. All of the above

41. In contrast to most other EEO laws, the Americans with Disability Act: a. applies to all U.S. employers regardless of the number of employees employed. b. covers employment practices such as job application procedures, hiring, firing, promotions, compensation, and training, but does not include activities such as advertising, leave, and fringe benefits. c. goes beyond prohibiting discrimination to require that employers take steps to accommodate individuals covered under the act. d. has resulted in the largest number of charges filed with the EEOC.
42. One of the major changes in EEO law under the Civil Rights Act of 1991 is: a. the limitation of damage awards to lost pay and benefits. b. the inclusion of Hispanics as a protected group. c. the addition of compensatory and punitive damage awards. d. the inclusion of all businesses regardless of size.
43. Which one of the following is not true of the Civil Rights Act of 1991? a. The amount of punitive damages depends on the size of the organization charged with the discrimination. b. The act extended coverage to sexual harassment, sexual orientation, and reverse discrimination. c. The act amends the CRA of 1866, the CRA of 1964, the ADEA of 1967, and the ADA of 1990. d. Punitive damages are awarded only in cases of intentional discrimination or with malice or reckless indifference to the employee's federally protected rights.
44. Which one of the following is not true of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994? a. Employers must reemploy workers who leave jobs to fulfill military duties for up to five years. b. Employers must reemploy workers in the job they would have held if they had not left to serve, including the same seniority, status, and pay. c. Disabled veterans have up to two years to recover from injuries received during their service or training, and employers must make reasonable accommodation for a remaining disability. d. Depending upon the length of service, service members have up to two years to apply for reemployment.
45. Which one of the following is not true of Executive Order 11478? a. The order covers all federal agencies, contractors, and subcontractors doing at least $10,000 worth of business with the federal government. b. The U.S. Office of Personnel Management ensures compliance at the government level, while relevant agencies ensure the compliance of contractors and subcontractors. c. The order requires covered entities to base all employment policies on merit and fitness, not on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. d. Covered entities must take affirmative action toward employing Vietnam veterans (those serving between August 5, 1964, and May 7, 1975).
46. The EEOC is not the enforcement agency for which one of the following acts?

a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 b. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Right Act of 1994 c. Equal Pay Act of 1963 d. Americans with Disability Act of 1990

47. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the EEOC? a. Writing new EEO laws b. Information gathering c. Investigation and resolution d. Issuance of guidelines
48. An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency must file the complaint within ____ days of the incident. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 180
49. An individual who files a discrimination complaint with the EEOC or other governmental agency must give that agency how long before filing suit in federal court? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 100 days
50. Which one of the following organizations is required to file an EEO-1 form? a. Any organization engaged in interstate commerce. b. An organization with 100 or more employees. c. An organization that has been in existence for less than three years. d. An organization doing business overseas.
51. The set of guidelines issued jointly by the EEOC and other government agencies involved in employment rights enforcement responsibilities are known as the: a. Uniform Commercial Code. b. Code of U.S. Employment Practices. c. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures. d. Procedural Guidelines for Title VII.
52. The three basic components of an affirmative action plan include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Utilization analysis b. Measurement tools c. Goals and timetables d. Action steps

53. Which of the following is not one of the three theories of discrimination under Title VII? a. Reverse discrimination b. Disparate treatment c. Disparate impact d. Reasonable accommodation
54. In which one of the following cases would compensatory and punitive damages least likely be available to a plaintiff? a. A woman sues for not being hired as a result of her score on a standardized test that had adverse impact against women. b. A woman sues because she is turned down for a job from which the company specifically bars women. c. A minority applicant sues a firm for being turned down for a job because he is told "we need someone that looks 'all-American.'" d. A disabled employee is refused employment in favor of an equally qualified applicant for whom the firm would not have to make an accommodation.
55. Which of the following cases would most likely be subject to a lawsuit filed under the disparate treatment theory of discrimination? a. A group of females are laid off due to a downturn in business. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected on the basis of a psychological test. c. A black applicant is turned down for a job based on a handwriting analysis. d. A woman with school-aged children is rejected on the assumption that she will frequently be absent from work.
56. A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) must be: a. an industry-wide, recognized practice. b. a necessary, rather than a preferred, characteristic of the job. c. court-approved. d. All of the above
57. Which one of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact? a. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative action plan. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test. c. A white applicant is told he will not be hired because "we don't like whites here." d. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer.
58. In which type of case is most of the debate focusing on the discriminatory consequences rather than the intent to discriminate? a. Disparate treatment b. Disparate impact c. Reasonable accommodation d. Retaliation

59. Assume you hired 25 of 50 white applicants; how many of the 40 black applicants must you hire in order not to have adverse impact? a. 25 b. 20 c. 16 d. 15
60. In a disparate impact case, what is the most likely defense to be offered by the defendant? a. Job relatedness b. Bona fide occupational qualification c. Production of a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason d. Showing a pretext for discrimination
61. Which one of the following statements is not true of affirmative action? a. It was originally conceived as a way of taking extra effort to attract and retain minority employees. b. It may be either voluntary or court-imposed. c. The practice is being challenged under a concept called reverse discrimination. d. Americans favor affirmative action, especially when programs use quotas.
62. Which one of the following terms refers to an employer's obligation to do something to enable an otherwise qualified person to perform a job? a. Reverse discrimination b. Equal opportunity c. Reasonable accommodation d. General duty clause
63. Under the Americans with Disability Act, an "undue hardship" has been defined as an action: a. deemed by the employer to be an inconvenience. b. requiring significant difficulty or expense. c. which represents a cost greater than the employee's first-year salary. d. deemed to be too costly to the "average" business within the industry.
64. When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sex, or threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sex, this is referred to as: a. disparate treatment. b. disparate impact. c. hostile working environment harassment. d. quid pro quo harassment.
65. A male employee, over the objections of his female colleagues, continues to display a highly suggestive calendar within his office. This is likely to result in a charge of: a. disparate treatment. b. disparate impact.

c. hostile working environment harassment. d. quid pro quo harassment.

66. Which one of the following is not true of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA Act)? a. It is the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety. b. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year and that are involved in interstate commerce. c. Under the act, covered employers must keep records of work-related injuries and illnesses and post an annual summary of these records. d. Enforcement responsibilities for the act are divided between the Department of Labor and the Department of Health.
67. Which of the following is not a right granted to workers under the Occupational Safety and Health Act? a. Request an inspection b. Have a dangerous substance identified c. Have an employee wellness program d. Have employer violations posted at the work site
68. Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, OSHA can do all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Conduct unannounced workplace inspections. b. Assess fines ranging from $20,000 for violations that result in the death of an employee to $1,000 for less serious violations. c. Close a workplace that represents an imminent danger. d. Issue citations and require that they be posted in a prominent place near the location of the violations.
69. Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, organizations must do all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Have material safety data sheets for chemicals that employees are exposed to within the workplace. b. Provide medical and life insurance coverage to all employees exposed to hazardous chemicals within the workplace. c. Ensure that all containers of hazardous chemicals are labeled with information about the hazard. d. Train employees in the safe handling of all chemicals.
70. The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service is termed: a. ergonomics. b. work flow design. c. job analysis. d. industrial engineering.
71. The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the:

a. outputs of a particular work unit. b. work relationships within the work unit. c. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit. d. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product.

72. Jobs in functional organizations tend to be: a. organized around products or customer groups. b. broad based and rapidly changing. c. more holistic, with workers involved in teams. d. narrow and specialized in scope.
73. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as: a. job analysis. b. work flow analysis. c. industrial engineering. d. job evaluation.
74. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? a. Job specification b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job design
75. Which one of the following is not true of KSAOs or their use? a. KSAOs are observable only when individuals are carrying out the TDRs of the job. b. KSAOs include knowledge, skills, abilities, and outcomes. c. Accurate information about KSAOs is especially important for making decisions about who will fill a job. d. Information about KSAOs should come from a combination of people performing the job, people supervising or planning for the job, and trained job analysts.
76. Which one of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the time spent on various job tasks? a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates
77. Which of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the importance of various job duties? a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates