APHR Exam and Practice Exam 2024-2025: Questions and Answers, Exams of Business Economics

Download APHR Exam and Practice Exam 2024-2025: Questions and Answers and more Exams Business Economics in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e APHR EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM 2024-2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS|ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE What is Globalizing? Very broad term for engaging in operations on an international scale An organization is using a legacy HRIS because long-standing employees are comfortable with the software and feel it continues to meet their data management needs. However, several new employees are having difficulty using the outdated user interface and are pushing to adopt an entirely new platform. What is a good solution for this situation? a) Contract with a vendor that offers interface layer technology to develop a new user interface while maintaining the existing system b) Get rid of the old system and invest in the latest HRIS before the current software becomes even more outdated than it already is c) Reassign the new employees to positions that already have more cutting edge software in place d) Create an organization-wide site where employees can submit anonymous feedback about using the current HRIS a) Contract with a vendor that offers interface layer technology to develop a new user interface while maintaining the existing system What part of SWOT analysis evaluates internal factors that affect an organization's performance? Strengths and weaknesses What does SWOT stand for? strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats What does "benchmarking" refer to in an HR context? Identifying and setting goals relative to other organizations' performance What factors data PESTLE analysis take into consideration? 2 | P a g e Political, economic, social, technological, legal, and environmental trends that influence the organization What is the purpose of a root cause analysis? To determine the foundation-level reason as to why an overarching issue is occurring What are 2 popular search tools to find peer-reviewed, evidence-based research? a) CNN and FOX b) Medline and Yahoo News c) Google Scholar and PubMed d) People Quest and People Soft c) Google Scholar and PubMed Meeting, learning from , and socializing with colleagues within and outside of one's organization is know as which of the following practices? a) Networking b) Achieving work-life balance c) Formal Education d) Fraternizing a) Networking Lisa is an HR generalist that is posting a job online. She is proud of her company's benefits system and wants to highlight some of them in the posting. What types of benefits could she include in the job posting? a) Company-sponsored worksite wellness program, 401(k) matching up to 5% and an annual sponsored mindfulness retreat b) Job tasks, including the amount of time spent sitting each day c) Number of direct reports for the position d) An exact salary number a) Company-sponsored worksite wellness program, 401(k) matching up to 5% and an annual sponsored mindfulness retreat During new hire orientation, Joe wants to illustrate the company culture to new employees. What are some things he could share with them to show the organization's culture? a) Share that employees can choose to work remotely one day per week, that leadership sit with employees in an open workplace, and the last Friday of each month is used to celebrate an employee's personal heritage b) Share that new equipment will be delivered at the end of the month, and that he will follow up with each employee on assignment c) Share his personal career story, beginning from choosing a major in college d) Enroll employees in a required CPR/AED course 5 | P a g e c) Corporate governance addresses rules, practices and institutions that protects and manages ecosystems in relation to the environment What is corporate governance? Corporate governance is the system by which companies are directed and controlled. Boards of directors are responsible for the governance of their companies. The shareholders' role in governance is to appoint the directors and the auditors and to satisfy themselves that an appropriate governance structure is in place. What is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a federal law that established sweeping auditing and financial regulations for public companies. Lawmakers created the legislation to help protect shareholders, employees and the public from accounting errors and fraudulent financial practices. Which of the following is true about corporate restructuring? a) Corporate restructuring is intended to make a firm more competitive b) Corporate restructuring is a change in operations, legal code or ownership inside of a firm c) Corporate restructuring is only a euphemism for cutting labor and lowering wages d) The principle purpose of corporate restructuring is to increase profits for senior executives b) Corporate restructuring is a change in operations, legal code or ownership inside of a firm Which of the following best describes enterprises risk management (ERM)? a) Enterprise risk management is when each department crafted its own policies and procedures for handling sues of risk and loss b) Enterprise risk management policies are crafted only by senior executives and then handed down to all departments to follow c) Enterprise risk management is the process of establishing a broad but comprehensive protocol for handling issues of risk and loss d) Enterprise risk management is when a company participates in a high-risk situation in order to maximize profits for the good of the company c) Enterprise risk management is the process of establishing a broad but comprehensive protocol for handling issues of risk and loss All of the following is true about offshoring EXCEPT? a) Offshoring is typically done to reduce the cost of business b) Offshoring involves sifting business operations to a country where business can be conducted at lower costs c) The only beneficiary of offshoring is the company itself d) Offshoring is one aspect of corporate restructuring that permits a company to remain competitive 6 | P a g e c) The only beneficiary of offshoring is the company itself What is offshoring? the practice of basing some of a company's processes or services overseas, so as to take advantage of lower costs. relocate (a business or department) to a foreign country to take advantage of lower costs. All of the following is necessary for an organization to pay attention to the legislative and regulatory environment EXCEPT? a) To anticipate Chang's and craft corporate governance policies that address new regulations and legislation b) to engage in lobbying efforts in order to fight proposed changes that could be damaging to the corporation c) To modify and make new legislative and regulatory changes more palatable d) To examine competitors and match their own legislation to that of other corporations d) To examine competitors and match their own legislation to that of other corporations Which definition most accurately explains a whistle-blower? a) A whistle blower is a person who reports any unethical information about an organization b) A whistle blower is a person hired by an organization to cover up illicit or unethical activities c) A whistle blower is a person who reports or publicizes any illegal or unethical information about the institution. Whistle blower status is only granted when the organization is private d) A whistle blower reports or publicizes any illegal or unethical information about the institution. Whistle blower status is only granted when the organization is public a) A whistle blower is a person who reports any unethical information about an organization Which of the following is NOT a key component of a business plan? a) Annual goals b) Projected growth targets c) Net income expectations d) Bonuses for executives d) Bonuses for executives A stakeholder is any actor that affects or can be affected by a business but doesn't own property of the business. Which of following groups of people are NOT stakeholder? a) Employees b) Surrounding business c) Shareholders d) The local community 7 | P a g e c) Shareholders What are stakeholder? A stakeholder is a party that has an interest in a company and can either affect or be affected by the business. The primary stakeholders in a typical corporation are its investors, employees, customers and suppliers. What is a shareholder? A shareholder, also referred to as a stockholder, is a person, company, or institution that owns at least one share of a company's stock, which is known as equity. Because shareholders are essentially owners in a company, they reap the benefits of a business' success. Which of the following best describes mergers and acquisitions (M&A)? a) Mergers occur temporarily in order to consolidate resources and beat out a competitor; acquisitions occur permanently b) Mergers occur when one company purchases another without a new company being formed. c) Merger occur when two companies combine to form a new one. Acquisitions occur when one company purchases another one without a new company being formed d) Mergers and acquisitions often occur temporarily in order to consolidate resources and beat out a competitor; then the actions are rescinded and the entities disband c) Merger occur when two companies combine to form a new one. Acquisitions occur when one company purchases another one without a new company being formed When performing a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed project, what is a project worker's salary an example of? A cost Each fiscal quarter within a fiscal year is an example of which of the following? a) Benchmarking b) A milestone c) Calendar divides d) A dependent variable b) A milestone Myra and Angela are 2 HR professionals who work in the same organization. Recently, Myra successfully implemented a sustainability initiative with the marketing department, where she helped them reduce the amount of paper they use. This led to saved paper, printing and labor costs as well as reduced physical waste. Angela would like to try this initiative with the Finance department, which is welcome to this idea. Hw can Angela begin to allocate resources for this project? a) Copy Myra's initiative as closely as possible, right down to the budget and timeline b) Use her best guess to document what she believes the finance department will need in order to 10 | P a g e The job posting is the first place to share the company's mission, vision and ethical standards. This attracts candidates with similar values to apply. Ethical standards should be reviewed again during the interview process and the new hire orientation to ensure good fit and promote the values The Vice President of an organization has noticed that a particular employee, Ben, has been working extremely hard and has made positive impression on a large majority of the organization's leadership. The Vice President meets with Ben and asks him about is work. Ben shares all of the accomplishments that his team has achieved in the last quarter. What is Ben displaying during this meeting? a) Ego b) Individualist behavior c) Team-oriented culture d) Humility c) Team-oriented behavior Rather than speaking about all of his hard work and contributions, Ben chose to share his team's accomplishments without singling anyone out. This is a display of strong team-oriented culture in the workplace During a project meeting, Mary creates a table that includes a detailed description of every task needed for the project, a deliverable date for each task , and the owner of each task. Each member is able to access and update the table with status updates. What is Mary helping her team to do? a) Helping each member feel accountable b) Micromanaging c) Modeling ethical behavior d) Collecting data a) Helping each member feel accountable Soliciting feedback from stakeholders is an important part of which of the following process stages? a) Evaluation b) control c) Testing d) Documentation a) Evaluation Feedback is an important part of the evaluation stage, which examines if processes were implemented smoothly, effectively and provided value Which of the following is an exception to the concept of employment-at-will? a) An employee who decided to willing sever the employment relationship b) An employee who is terminated for whistleblowing or for reporting unlawful conduct by the employer 11 | P a g e c) An employer who lets an employee go who does not have an employment contract d) An employee who is fired for willful misconduct b) An employee who is terminated for whistleblowing or for reporting unlawful conduct by the employer A truck driver kills a family's small child in an accident, and it is later uncovered that the truck driver lied on his employment application, had a history of unsafe driving, and has his license revoked twice. The employer was ultimately held responsible by the family's attorney for which of the following? a) Negligent retention b) Constructive discharge c) Negligent hiring d) Defamation c) Negligent hiring Which of the following activities is considered to be a fair labor practice? a) Hot cargo agreement b) Jurisdictional strike c) Secondary boycott d) Sympathy strike d) Sympathy strike All but Sympathy strike are considered to be unfair labor practice What is a sympathy strike? a strike in which the strikers have no direct grievance against their own employer but attempt to support or aid usually another group of workers on strike. What is a hot cargo agreement? Hot-cargo agreement is an agreement between an employer and a union in which the employer agrees not to handle or work on any freight or product coming from another person with whom the union has a dispute What is a jurisdictional strike? a concerted refusal to work undertaken by a union to assert its members' right to particular job assignments and to protest the assignment of disputed work to members of another union or to unorganized workers. What is a secondary boycott? industrial action by a union against a company on the grounds that does business with another company engaged in a labor dispute. Which of the following employees would not be eligible to vote in an upcoming union election? 12 | P a g e a) An employee who is temporarily laid off b) An employee who is out sick with the flu c) An employee who is out on military leave right before the elections d) A staff member who is out of the office on a medical leave of absence and who will not be returning to work d) A staff member who is out of the office on a medical leave of absence and who will not be returning to work Under the Taft-Hartley Act, which of the following is illegal? a) Creating a company-sponsored labor union b) An employee deciding to contribute to a charity instead of paying union dues, due to their religious objection c) An employer filing an unfair labor practice charge against a union d) A union representing nonunion employees in the bargaining unit a) Creating a company-sponsored labor union What is the Taft-Hartley Act? is a United States federal law that restricts the activities and power of labor unions. Which of the following is a true statement regarding a modified duty assignment? a) A modified duty assignment is a temporary reassignment that seeks to accommodate employees who are recovering from illness or injury b) A modified duty assignment is a permanent arrangement of work to accommodate employees who are injured c) In order to make more money, a modified duty assignment is more work given to employees who ask for it d) Injured employees must accept a modified duty assignment and be examined by a licensed physician to be cleared for the assignment. a) A modified duty assignment is a temporary reassignment that seeks to accommodate employees who are recovering from illness or injury Which of the following most accurately describes a procurement policy? a) A procurement policy is a strategy that employers use to find the most qualified employees b) A procurement policy is an organization's strategy to obtain and secure goods and services in an orderly and beneficial way to minimize cost and maximize savings c) A procurement policy is an analysis of an organization's inventory in order to determine what supplies are needed d) A procurement policy is any action that an organization takes to find a new location b) A procurement policy is an organization's strategy to obtain and secure goods and services in an orderly and beneficial way to minimize cost and maximize savings 15 | P a g e a. Managers must treat employees as family. b. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people. c. Employment practices must respect basic human rights of privacy, due process, and free speech. d. Managers must treat employees and customers equitably and fairly. 10. The primary and largest organization for HRM professionals is the: a. American Management Association (AMA). b. American Compensation Association (ACA). c. Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM). d. Personnel Management Association (PMA). 11. Human resources provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage because they are: a. valuable. b. rare. c. not easily imitated. d. All of the above 12. Which process involves acquiring knowledge, skills, and behaviors that improve employees' ability to meet the challenges of a variety of new or existing jobs? a. Development b. Training c. Orientation d. Coordinating 13. The process of ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals is called: a. job analysis. b. strategic management. c. quality assurance. d. performance management. 14. Which term refers to all people willing and able to work? a. Labor force b. Internal labor force c. External labor force d. Knowledge workers 15. Changing employee values and life stages will require organizations to develop HRM practices that: a. emphasize stability and life-long employment. b. provide more opportunity for individual contribution and entrepreneurship. c. require fewer job skills and responsibilities per job. d. stress pay and production rather than the quality of nonwork activities and family life. 16 | P a g e 16. Regardless of their background and age, most employees value: a. the ability to challenge the status quo. b. more simplistic tasks requiring fewer skills. c. managerial positions. d. work that leads to self-fulfillment. 17. Managing cultural diversity involves: a. enforcing EEO rules. b. creating separate career tracks for employees with families. c. establishing a strong affirmative action policy. d. creating a workplace where employee differences are accepted and valued. 18. Which one of the following statements regarding workforce skills is not true? a.The increasing use of computers to do routine tasks has shifted the kinds of skills needed by employees in the U.S. economy. b. More and more employers are looking for employees with solid technical skills rather than knowledge-based or interpersonal skills. c. The gap between skills needed and skills available has decreased U.S. companies' abilities to compete because they sometimes lack the skills to upgrade technology, reorganize work, and empower employees. d. While many of the desired skills require higher levels of education, some are at the most basic level, such as getting to work on time and working hard. 19. Which one of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company's social system (people and how they interact) and its technical system (equipment and processes)? a. Outsourcing b. Self-service system c. High-performance work system d. Total quality management 20. Empowerment is defined as: a. the movement of women and minorities into managerial positions. b. giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions. c. leading employees by the strength of one's charisma. d. the act of continually learning and improving one's skills and abilities. 21. The use of employee empowerment has had what effect upon recruiting? a. It has created an international labor market. b. It has substantially enhanced employment opportunities for women and minorities. c. It has shifted the focus away from technical skills to general cognitive and interpersonal skills. d. It has significantly reduced recruiting costs. 22. Increasingly, HR professionals are being viewed as: 17 | P a g e a. legal compliance officers. b. an administrative unit or function. c. experts in designing and delivering HR systems. d. strategic partners. 23. Which one of the following terms describes a company-wide effort to continuously improve the way people, machines, and systems accomplish work? a. Outsourcing b. Self-service system c. High-performance work system d. Total quality management 24. When two companies become one, it is termed a: a. partnership. b. consolidation. c. merger. d. joint venture. 25. The process whereby organizations lay off employees with outdated skills or cut whole businesses in declining markets while simultaneously building businesses and employee bases in newer, higher- growth markets is known as: a. downsizing. b. churning. c. outsourcing. d. surgical reductions. 26. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called: a. knowledge workers. b. immigrants. c. expatriates. d. nationalists. 27. When an organization undertakes a complete review of its critical work processes to make them more efficient and to be able to deliver higher quality, it is engaging in: a. outsourcing. b. high-performance work system design. c. total quality management. d. reengineering. 28. Electronic sales among manufacturers, retailers, wholesalers, and construction firms represent what type of e-business? a. Business-to-consumer b. Business-to-business 20 | P a g e 41. In contrast to most other EEO laws, the Americans with Disability Act: a. applies to all U.S. employers regardless of the number of employees employed. b. covers employment practices such as job application procedures, hiring, firing, promotions, compensation, and training, but does not include activities such as advertising, leave, and fringe benefits. c. goes beyond prohibiting discrimination to require that employers take steps to accommodate individuals covered under the act. d. has resulted in the largest number of charges filed with the EEOC. 42. One of the major changes in EEO law under the Civil Rights Act of 1991 is: a. the limitation of damage awards to lost pay and benefits. b. the inclusion of Hispanics as a protected group. c. the addition of compensatory and punitive damage awards. d. the inclusion of all businesses regardless of size. 43. Which one of the following is not true of the Civil Rights Act of 1991? a. The amount of punitive damages depends on the size of the organization charged with the discrimination. b. The act extended coverage to sexual harassment, sexual orientation, and reverse discrimination. c. The act amends the CRA of 1866, the CRA of 1964, the ADEA of 1967, and the ADA of 1990. d. Punitive damages are awarded only in cases of intentional discrimination or with malice or reckless indifference to the employee's federally protected rights. 44. Which one of the following is not true of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994? a. Employers must reemploy workers who leave jobs to fulfill military duties for up to five years. b. Employers must reemploy workers in the job they would have held if they had not left to serve, including the same seniority, status, and pay. c. Disabled veterans have up to two years to recover from injuries received during their service or training, and employers must make reasonable accommodation for a remaining disability. d. Depending upon the length of service, service members have up to two years to apply for reemployment. 45. Which one of the following is not true of Executive Order 11478? a. The order covers all federal agencies, contractors, and subcontractors doing at least $10,000 worth of business with the federal government. b. The U.S. Office of Personnel Management ensures compliance at the government level, while relevant agencies ensure the compliance of contractors and subcontractors. c. The order requires covered entities to base all employment policies on merit and fitness, not on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. d. Covered entities must take affirmative action toward employing Vietnam veterans (those serving between August 5, 1964, and May 7, 1975). 46. The EEOC is not the enforcement agency for which one of the following acts? 21 | P a g e a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 b. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Right Act of 1994 c. Equal Pay Act of 1963 d. Americans with Disability Act of 1990 47. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the EEOC? a. Writing new EEO laws b. Information gathering c. Investigation and resolution d. Issuance of guidelines 48. An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency must file the complaint within ____ days of the incident. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 180 49. An individual who files a discrimination complaint with the EEOC or other governmental agency must give that agency how long before filing suit in federal court? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 100 days 50. Which one of the following organizations is required to file an EEO-1 form? a. Any organization engaged in interstate commerce. b. An organization with 100 or more employees. c. An organization that has been in existence for less than three years. d. An organization doing business overseas. 51. The set of guidelines issued jointly by the EEOC and other government agencies involved in employment rights enforcement responsibilities are known as the: a. Uniform Commercial Code. b. Code of U.S. Employment Practices. c. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures. d. Procedural Guidelines for Title VII. 52. The three basic components of an affirmative action plan include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Utilization analysis b. Measurement tools c. Goals and timetables d. Action steps 22 | P a g e 53. Which of the following is not one of the three theories of discrimination under Title VII? a. Reverse discrimination b. Disparate treatment c. Disparate impact d. Reasonable accommodation 54. In which one of the following cases would compensatory and punitive damages least likely be available to a plaintiff? a. A woman sues for not being hired as a result of her score on a standardized test that had adverse impact against women. b. A woman sues because she is turned down for a job from which the company specifically bars women. c. A minority applicant sues a firm for being turned down for a job because he is told "we need someone that looks 'all-American.'" d. A disabled employee is refused employment in favor of an equally qualified applicant for whom the firm would not have to make an accommodation. 55. Which of the following cases would most likely be subject to a lawsuit filed under the disparate treatment theory of discrimination? a. A group of females are laid off due to a downturn in business. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected on the basis of a psychological test. c. A black applicant is turned down for a job based on a handwriting analysis. d. A woman with school-aged children is rejected on the assumption that she will frequently be absent from work. 56. A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) must be: a. an industry-wide, recognized practice. b. a necessary, rather than a preferred, characteristic of the job. c. court-approved. d. All of the above 57. Which one of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact? a. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative action plan. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test. c. A white applicant is told he will not be hired because "we don't like whites here." d. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer. 58. In which type of case is most of the debate focusing on the discriminatory consequences rather than the intent to discriminate? a. Disparate treatment b. Disparate impact c. Reasonable accommodation d. Retaliation 25 | P a g e a. outputs of a particular work unit. b. work relationships within the work unit. c. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit. d. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product. 72. Jobs in functional organizations tend to be: a. organized around products or customer groups. b. broad based and rapidly changing. c. more holistic, with workers involved in teams. d. narrow and specialized in scope. 73. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as: a. job analysis. b. work flow analysis. c. industrial engineering. d. job evaluation. 74. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? a. Job specification b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job design 75. Which one of the following is not true of KSAOs or their use? a. KSAOs are observable only when individuals are carrying out the TDRs of the job. b. KSAOs include knowledge, skills, abilities, and outcomes. c. Accurate information about KSAOs is especially important for making decisions about who will fill a job. d. Information about KSAOs should come from a combination of people performing the job, people supervising or planning for the job, and trained job analysts. 76. Which one of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the time spent on various job tasks? a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 77. Which of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the importance of various job duties? a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 26 | P a g e 78. Which one of the following statements about the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is false? a. It requires trained job analysts to complete it. b. It is a standardized, commercial instrument. c. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job. d. It is one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs. 79. Which job analysis method entails rating the job in terms of the extent to which it requires each of 52 cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory abilities? a. Job Element Method b. Task Analysis Inventory c. Fleishman Job Analysis Method d. Position Analysis Questionnaire 80. When job analysis information is used to judge the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, the HR activity is termed: a. performance evaluation. b. training and development. c. job evaluation. d. work redesign. 81. Which one of the following approaches to job design entails performing time-and-motion studies? a. Motivational b. Industrial engineering c. Ergonomic d. Perceptual 82. The objective of job enlargement is to: a. make the job less repetitive and more interesting. b. increase the intrinsic aspects of the job. c. decrease the complexity of the job. d. increase the number of task performed. 83. If the Company XYZ requires its employees to be at work between the hours of 10 a.m. to 3 p.m., but allows employees to decide whether they will work their additional hours before or after this time period, it is using which one of the following? a. Job sharing b. Flextime c. Compressed workweek d. Telework 84. A schedule in which full-time workers complete their weekly hours in fewer than five days is termed a: 27 | P a g e a. right-to-work workweek. b. compressed workweek. c. substandard workweek. d. flexible workweek. 85. The first step in the human resource planning process is: a. forecasting labor demand and supply. b. goal setting. c. program implementation. d. program evaluation. 86. In personnel forecasting, the HR professional tries to: a. predict the number and types of legal challenges the company is likely to face within the year. b. develop HR policies and practices in response to anticipated moves by major competitors. c. determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources. d. anticipate trends within the HR field which are most likely to impact the success of current company operations. 87. For the past ten years, Regent Food, Inc., has sold its prepackaged meals exclusively to the airline industry. Following the loss of several airline accounts in the past year, the company landed substantial accounts (40 percent of current business) with two major railways and the U.S. government. These new clients need somewhat different products, which require a more labor-intensive production process. Under these circumstances, it would be most appropriate to use which one of the following approaches in forecasting the company's labor demand for the upcoming year? a. Statistical b. Judgmental c. Transitional matrix d. Trend analysis 88. Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution, but the disadvantage of being high in human suffering? a. Downsizing b. Retirement c. Retraining d. Work sharing 89. Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus is a relatively slow solution, but offers the benefit of being low in the human suffering? a. Work sharing b. Demotion c. Early retirement d. Transfers 30 | P a g e 102. Cost per hire is: a. useful in establishing the efficiency of a recruiting source. b. lower for private employment agencies than for public employment agencies. c. lower for executive recruits than for clerical recruits. d. a measure of applicant quality. 103. For most companies, the first step in the personnel selection process is: a. verification of the applicant's qualifications through reference and background checks. b. determining the best recruitment source. c. screening the applications received to determine which candidates meet the basic requirements for the job. d. preparation of a job description. 104. Which one of the following indicates how free a measure is from random error? a. Reliability b. Validity c. Generalizability d. Utility 105. The extent to which performance on the selection measure (i.e., the predictor) is associated with performance on the job is called: a. reliability. b. validity. c. generalizability. d. utility. 106. The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is: a. legal if the discrimination is unintentional. b. legal if the employer can demonstrate that its customers prefer employees who do well on the selection measure. c. legal if the employer can show that the method is job related and consistent with a business necessity. d. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances. 107. Which of the following statements is false? a. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, preemployment questions may not investigate disabilities. b. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 explicitly prohibits race and sex norming. c. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before using a third party to check the candidate's credit history or references. d. Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers may no longer hire individuals who do not hold U.S. citizenship. 108. Which one of the following interview questions is not permitted under the Americans with Disabilities Act? 31 | P a g e a. Can you meet the attendance requirements for this job? b. How long did you work at your last place of employment? c. How many days of work did you miss in your last job because you were sick? d. Can you perform the essential functions of this job with or without accommodation? 109. Which one of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews? a. How old are you? b. What organizations or groups do you belong to? c. Have you ever been arrested? d. Have you ever worked under a different name? 110. Which one of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews? a. What schools have you attended? b. Do you have any disabilities? c. What is your ancestry? d. What is your religion? 111. Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers: a. must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States. b. must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service within 30 days of the applicant's date of hire. c. may legally discriminate against a person on the basis of national origin and citizenship status. d. must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship. 112. Employers use application blanks for all but one of the following reasons. Name the exception. a. They are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants. b. They ensure that the organization controls the content of the information received and the manner in which it is presented. c. They are not subject to validation requirements. d. They allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants. 113. Organizations typically use resumes: a. as substitutes for interviews. b. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further. c. to identify which candidates meet minimum requirements for education and experience. d. to get around EEO restrictions, since the information provided is voluntary in nature. 114. Generally, the organization checks references: a. only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is "suspect." b. immediately after the applicant submits a resume. c. after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job. d. for all applicants. 32 | P a g e 115. Should a former employer give a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learn of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for: a. lack of validity. b. misrepresentation. c. defamation. d. negligent omission. 116. Which one of the following tests assesses how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities? a. Personality inventories b. Cognitive ability c. Achievement d. Aptitude 117. A typing test for an administrative assistant job is an example of a: a. spatial abilities test. b. perceptual accuracy test. c. work sample test. d. mechanical test. 118. An assessment center: a. is a place where job applicants undergo rigorous psychological analysis. b. is relatively inexpensive. c. uses multiple selection methods to rate either applicants or job incumbents on their managerial potential. d. is a selection method generally used for clerical and secretarial positions. 119. A legal means to screen candidates who might be security risks is to administer a/an: a. polygraph (lie detector) test. b. paper-and-pencil honesty test. c. fitness-for-duty test. d. in-basket test. 120. Employers should ensure that their drug testing programs conform to all but one of the following guidelines. Name the exception. a. Be routinely administered to all clerical and managerial employees. b. Be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job. c. Be part of a wider organizational program that provides rehabilitation counseling. d. Be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive and allows for strict confidentiality of results. 121. During an interview for a sales position, you are asked the following question: "Suppose one of your clients refuses to speak to you after you lost one of his orders; what would you do to regain his business?" What type of interview format is being used? 35 | P a g e c. People tend to benefit most from long practice sessions, rather than from ongoing shorter sessions. d. Feedback on trainees' performance should focus on specific behaviors and be delivered as soon as possible after the trainees practice or demonstrate what they have learned. 135. Measures of training success generally include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Trainee satisfaction with the program b. Knowledge or abilities learned c. Trainer satisfaction with the program d. Improvements in individual and organizational performance 136. The most accurate way to evaluate the training program is to: a. use only a pretest. b. measure performance, knowledge, or attitudes among all employees before the training; train only part of the employees; and then, after the training, measure performance again, comparing the results of the two groups. c. conduct pretests and posttests on all trainees, comparing their performance, knowledge, or attitudes before and after the training. d. use only a posttest. 137. Training designed to prepare employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships is known as: a. orientation. b. cross-training. c. role playing. d. development. 138. Which of the following is not a purpose of performance management systems? a. Administrative b. Developmental c. Investigative d. Strategic 139. Which performance management evaluation criterion is concerned with maximizing the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance? a. Reliability b. Acceptability c. Specificity d. Validity 140. The consistency among the different individuals who evaluate the employee's performance is known as: a. internal consistency reliability. b. interrater reliability. 36 | P a g e c. interrater validity. d. test-retest reliability. 141. The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them is called: a. reliability. b. validity. c. specificity. d. acceptability. 142. Which one of the following is not a comparative performance appraisal technique? a. Mixed-standards scale b. Simple ranking c. Forced distribution d. Paired comparison 143. The technique that ranks employees into predetermined categories or groups according to performance is called: a. forced distribution. b. alternation ranking. c. paired comparison. d. ranking. 144. The most frequently used attribute approach to performance management is: a. behaviorally anchored rating scales. b. mixed standard scales. c. behavioral observation scales. d. graphic rating scales. 145. If a manager considers one employee at a time and circles a number or a word to signify the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular trait, he or she is using a: a. critical incidents approach. b. mixed standard scale. c. behavioral observation scale. d. graphic rating scale. 146. The performance management approach that requires managers to keep a record of specific examples of effective and ineffective performance is the: a. behaviorally anchored rating scale. b. graphic rating scale. c. critical incidents technique. d. organizational behavior modification method. 37 | P a g e 147. Which performance management technique involves the identification of a large number of critical incidents, the classification of these incidents into performance dimensions, and the rank ordering of these incidents into levels of performance? a. Behaviorally anchored rating scales b. Graphic rating scales c. Critical incidents d. Organizational behavior modification 148. The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the: a. behaviorally anchored rating scale. b. behavioral observation scale. c. graphic rating scale. d. mixed standard scale. 149. In what type of system are annual goals established and passed down through the organization? a. Productivity measurement and evaluation systems b. Management by objectives c. Assessment centers d. Organizational behavior modification 150. The type of performance management system where a company assembles performance data on an individual from most or all of his or her contacts within and outside the company is known as: a. the critical incidents technique. b. behavioral observation scales (BOS). c. management by objectives (MBO). d. 360-degree performance appraisals. 151. The ABC Company wishes to collect performance data on its outside sales staff, particularly in terms of their interpersonal skills and behaviors. The company would best use all but one of the following sources. Name the exception. a. Customers b. Supervisors c. Peers d. Self 152. Subordinates, as a source of performance information, are generally most appropriate when the performance results are to be used for: a. administrative purposes. b. investigative purposes. c. strategic purposes. d. developmental purposes. 40 | P a g e c. Role playing d. In-basket exercise 166. When using performance appraisals for development, all of the following are important except: a. managers must be trained in giving frequent performance feedback. b. employees should be evaluated on traits rather than on behavioral considerations. c. managers should monitor employees' progress in carrying out their action plans. d. employees must gain a clear understanding of the differences between current performance and expected performance. 167. Most employee development occurs through: a. performance appraisals. b. job experiences. c. mentoring programs. d. job enlargement. 168. Job rotation involves: a. adding challenges or new responsibilities to the employee's current job. b. moving the employee through a series of job assignments in one or more of the functional areas of the company. c. allowing the employee to work full-time in a temporary position at another company. d. allowing the employee to switch between two different jobs within the company on a daily or weekly basis. 169. An engineer accepting an assignment as a shift supervisor in order to develop his or her management skills is an example of a/an: a. lateral demotion. b. sabbatical. c. downward move. d. externship. 170. Providing employees with the opportunity to get away from the day-to-day stresses of their job and acquire new skills and perspectives is known as a/an: a. transfer. b. expatriate assignment. c. sabbatical. d. externship. 171. A mentor is generally an: a. employee's peer who provides friendship and guidance. b. employee's manager who provides feedback on performance. c. employee's family member who provides emotional and financial support. d. experienced, productive senior employee who provides feedback and coaching. 41 | P a g e 172. Which one of the following is not true of mentoring? a. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when the length of the program and level of contact expected are left to the discretion of the mentor and protégé. b. Most mentoring relationships develop informally as a result of interests or values shared by the mentor and protégé. c. Employees most likely to seek and attract a mentor are emotionally stable, have the ability to adapt their behavior to different situations, and have a high need for power and achievement. d. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when they are voluntary and participants understand the details of the program. 173. A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to motivate him or her, help him or her develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a: a. role model. b. coach. c. good Samaritan. d. high-potential employee. 174. In the career management process, the employee is primarily responsible for all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Identifying goals and a timetable to reach them b. Identifying company resources needed to reach goals c. Identifying developmental needs d. Identifying what skills are realistic to develop 175. Which one of the following is not true of the glass ceiling? a. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job experiences, and developmental relationships, such as mentoring. b. Research has found gender differences in access to job experiences involving transitions and creating change. c. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and minorities. d. Research shows male managers receive more assignments involving high levels of responsibility than do female managers of similar ability and managerial level. 176. Succession planning results in all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Ensures that senior management systematically conduct a review of leadership talent in the company. b. Provides a set of developmental experiences that managers must complete to be considered for top- management positions. c. Assures that top-level management talent is available. d. Identifies a specific replacement for each managerial position within the company. 177. All of the following are true of succession planning except: a. high-potential employees typically participate in fast-track development programs that involve education, executive mentoring and coaching, and job rotation. 42 | P a g e b. high-potential employees may receive special assignments, like serving on committees and making presentations. c. job assignments are based on what's available and of most interest to the high-potential employee. d. an objective of fast-track development programs is to help retain managerial talent within the company. 178. The employment-at-will doctrine: a. has gotten stronger in recent years. b. is related to voluntary turnover. c. has eroded significantly in recent years. d. None of the above 179. An employee refuses an employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The employer subsequently discharges the worker for "not following orders." In a wrongful discharge suit, the employee is likely to argue which one of the following exceptions to the at-will-employment doctrine? a. Equal employment b. Public policy c. Implied contract d. Reverse discrimination 180. HR professionals can best help organizations avoid (and defend against) charges of wrongful discharge through all but one of the following activities. Name the exception. a. Designing jobs with low mental and physical skill demands to ensure low employee turnover. b. Establishing and communicating policies for handling employee misbehavior. c. Training managers to avoid making promises before or during employment that imply job security. d. Writing and reviewing employee handbooks to avoid statements which might be interpreted as employment contracts. 181. In response to an employee's arrest, a company would best: a. discharge the employee immediately. b. conduct an investigation to determine the employee probability of guilt. c. place the employee on a leave of absence. d. ignore the situation since it is not a company-related matter. 182. Generally speaking, the contents of employees' e-mail and voice-mail messages on companies' systems are: a. private, protected communications. b. not private, protected communications. c. protected and private only if they are directed to parties outside of the company. d. protected and private if job-related. 183. The Workers' Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act requires that: 45 | P a g e c. $570.00. d. $577.50. 196. Which group of employees is not exempt from the Fair Labor Standards Act? a. Professionals b. Administrative personnel c. Unionized employees d. Outside sales personnel 197. Exempt status under the FLSA depends on: a. the employee's job responsibilities and salary. b. the employee's basis of pay (hourly, piecework, or salaried). c. the employee's job title. d. the date of hire. 198. Which piece of U.S. legislation, along with the 1931 Davis-Bacon Act, legislated that federal contractors pay employees no less than the prevailing wage within the work area? a. The FLSA b. The Walsh-Healy Act c. The Equal Pay Act d. The Employment Standards Act 199. The federal government tracks trends in the nation's cost of living with a measure known as the: a. Consumer Price Index. b. Living-Wage Index. c. Gross National Product. d. Inflation Index. 200. A company that views employees as resources is most likely to use a/an ____-market pay rate. a. at b. below c. above d. variable 201. The procedure through which an organization compares its own practices to those of successful competitors is known as: a. gainsharing. b. commercial intelligence. c. benchmarking. d. profiling. 202. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that: a. companies may ban discussions about pay within the workplace. b. employees must be free to talk about pay in the workplace. 46 | P a g e c. issues relating to discussions about pay must be negotiated between management and labor. d. policies regarding discussions about pay are outside of its regulatory control. 203. An example of a typical compensable factor is: a. social status. b. education. c. longevity. d. gender. 204. A market pay-policy line: a. is developed after pay grades have been established. b. can be generated using a statistical procedure called regression analysis. c. requires market-pay-rate data on all jobs in the organization. d. reflects the pay structure in the company as well as the market. 205. A drawback of pay grades is that they: a. increase the administrative burden of managing the compensation system. b. result in decreased promotional opportunities for employees. c. result in some jobs being underpaid and others being overpaid. d. increase costs of surveying the market. 206. Since organizations want some flexibility in setting the pay for individuals in accordance with the employees' qualifications and performance, they generally add ____ to their pay structures. a. pay grades b. pay ranges c. pay differentials d. cost-of-living increases 207. After establishing a pay range of $8.25 to $11.50 for Positions A - F, you discover that the company's pay rate for Position B is $7.75. The pay for Position B represents a: a. red-circle rate. b. skill-based job. c. green-circle rate. d. newly created position within the company. 208. When an organization reduces the number of levels in its job structure by combining some of its pay grades, it is engaged in: a. outsourcing. b. broad banding. c. rightsizing. d. benchmarking. 209. Skill-based pay systems have all but one of the following potential disadvantages. Name the exception. 47 | P a g e a. Increased bureaucracy and paperwork b. Difficulty in obtaining market data c. Decreased worker flexibility d. Employees "topping out" 210. The compa-ratio: a. measures the degree to which actual pay is consistent with the pay policy. b. is defined as average pay for the grade divided by the minimum pay for the grade. c. can range from 0 to 100 percent. d. uses data from market-pay surveys. 211. Given a pay range of $1,800 to $2,500 for Grade 1 and an average pay within the grade of $2,065, the grade's compa-ratio is: a. 0.83. b. 0.87. c. 0.96. d. 1.04. 212. Organizations select incentives based on their: a. costs. b. expected influence on performance. c. fit with the organization's broader HR and company policies and goals. d. All of the above 213. Pay specifically designed to energize, direct, or control employees' behavior is known as: a. empowerment pay. b. indirect pay. c. incentive pay. d. exempt pay. 214. An employee produces 10 components in an hour and earns $8 per hour, while an employee who produces 12 components earns $9.60 ($.80 x 12). This is an example of: a. a straight piecework plan. b. a commission plan. c. a differential piece rate plan. d. straight salary plan. 215. Which one of the following is not true of piecework pay plans? a. Piecework rates have a direct link between how much work the employee does and the amount the employee earns. b. Piecework incentive plans are most suited for organizations with complex jobs, employee empowerment, and team-based problem solving. c. Piecework plans, despite their motivational value, are relatively rare. d. Piecework plans are easy for employees to understand and most employees see them as fair. 50 | P a g e 229. Which one of the following is not true of ESOPs? a. ESOPs are the most common form of employee ownership. b. When employees are ready to leave the organization, they may sell the stock to the organization or (if a publicly traded company) on the open market. c. Along with tax and financing advantages, ESOPs give employers a way to build pride in and commitment to the organization. d. ESOP funds are backed by the Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation. 230. Organizations customize their balanced scorecards according to their: a. markets. b. products. c. objectives. d. All of the above 231. Which one of the following has not been an underlying reason for the growth in employer-provided benefits? a. The tax treatment of benefits is often more favorable for employees than the tax treatment of wages and salaries. b. The cost advantage of group rates that employers often receive over individuals. c. The explosive growth in the number of small businesses within the United States. d. The ability of employers to assemble creative benefits packages that set them apart in the competition for talent. 232. Which one of the following employer-provided benefits is not required by law? a. Social Security b. Disability insurance c. Family and medical leave d. Unemployment insurance 233. The unemployment insurance program is financed largely through federal and state taxes on: a. employees and employers. b. employers only. c. employees only. d. all taxpayers. 234. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave after childbirth or adoption b. Reinstatement to the same (or a comparable) job upon one's return to work c. Medical insurance to any employee who has one or more years of full-time service d. Up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave to care for a seriously ill parent, spouse, or child 235. To take unpaid family leave under the provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act, employees must meet all but one of the following. Name the exception. 51 | P a g e a. Have worked for an employer with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius b. Have worked at least 15 hours per week c. Have worked for the employer for one year or more d. Not be among the top 10 percent of highest paid executives 236. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers: a. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. b. who offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability. c. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. d. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. 237. Due to increasing diversity within the workplace, many employers are extending benefits to: a. independent contractors. b. domestic partners. c. extended family members. d. anyone living within the employee's household. 238. The purpose of floating holidays is to allow employees to: a. extend a Tuesday or Thursday holiday into a long weekend. b. decide which national holidays they wish to observe with pay. c. take time off for personal reasons (with the approval of the supervisor). d. allow international employees to observe legal holidays within their country of assignment. 239. Which one of the following is not true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985? a. Employers must permit employees to extend their health insurance coverage for up to 36 months following a "qualifying event." b. Qualified employees must have access to the same services as employees who have not lost their health insurance. c. Employers must continue to pay the cost of premiums for qualified employees. d. Qualifying events include, among others, termination (except for gross misconduct), a reduction in hours that leads to the loss of health insurance, and death. 240. Which one of the following is not true of health maintenance organizations (HMOs)? a. Costs tend to be less than for traditional health insurance. b. Services are provided on a prepaid basis. c. Employees may select physicians of their choice. d. Payment of physicians is on a flat-salary basis. 241. PPOs differ from HMOs in all but one of the following ways. Name the exception. a. PPOs provide benefits on a reduced-fee, per-call basis rather than on a prepaid basis. b. PPO employees are not required to use only preselected plan service providers, as in HMOs. c. PPOs are less expensive plans than HMOs. d. PPOs have more in common with traditional fee-for-service plans than do HMOs. 52 | P a g e 242. Which one of the following statements about flexible spending accounts is not true? a. They may be used to cover only employee (not dependents') health-care expenses. b. They permit pretax employee contributions. c. Contributions to the accounts may not exceed $5,000 per year and must be designated in advance. d. Funds must be used by the plan's yearend or they revert to the employer. 243. Which of the following is not true of employee wellness programs? a. The programs are preventive in nature. b. The programs manage health-care costs by reducing employees' needs for services. c. The programs are either active or passive, with active programs costing less than passive programs. d. The programs generally target specific health risks, such as high blood pressure, smoking, and obesity. 244. Which type of retirement plan guarantees a specified level of retirement income? a. 401(k) plan b. Defined contribution plan c. Money purchase plan d. Defined benefit plan 245. Which of the following statements concerning the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) is not true? a. It was created by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974. b. It provides a basic benefit, not necessarily a complete benefit replacement, if the employer experiences financial difficulties. c. It provides employee protection for both defined benefit and defined contribution pension plans. d. It is funded by a fee assessed on each plan participant. 246. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 accomplished all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Established rights relating to vesting b. Required employers to offer supplemental retirement plans c. Provided portability of retirement savings d. Increased the responsibility of pension plan trustees 247. Within a 401(k) plan, who has the responsibility for investing the employee's contributions? a. The employee b. The employer c. ERISA rules specify how investments must be made d. The financial institution handling the account 248. Which one of the following is true of defined contribution plans? a. They shift the investment risk to the employer. b. They present greater administrative challenges to employers. 55 | P a g e private sector. d. Total union membership now stands at about 30 percent of all employment. 262. The decline in union membership can be attributed to all but one of the following factors. Name the exception. a. The growing number of women and youth in the service sector of the economy. b. The growth among blue-collar workers, especially middle-aged workers. c. The growth in the number of employers fighting union organizing efforts. d. The large job growth in the South, where workers are less likely to join unions. 263. Which one of the following is not true of the effects of unions on company performance? a. As a result of the type of pay system favored by unions, employees are more inclined to cooperate than compete with one another. b. Most studies show that union workers are less productive than nonunion workers. c. On average, union members receive higher wages and more generous benefits than nonunion workers, and evidence shows that unions have a negative effect on profits. d. Union membership can reduce turnover by giving employees a route for resolving problems. 264. The pay system most frequently used in a union setting is a(n): a. incentive system. b. merit system. c. bonus system. d. seniority system. 265. What type of union security arrangement is considered to be the strongest for maintaining a viable and secure union membership organization?\ a. Agency shop b. Maintenance of membership c. Open shop d. Union shop 266. Which type of union security provision is illegal under provisions of the NLRA? a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Closed shops d. Open shops 267. Which one of the following union security provisions is permitted within a right-to-work state? a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Maintenance of membership d. None of the above 56 | P a g e 268. Which one of the following pieces of legislation actively supported collective bargaining by setting forth the rights of employees, including the right of self-organization, to form, join, or assist labor organizations, to bargain collectively through representatives of their own choosing, and to engage in other concerted activities for the purpose of collective bargaining? a. The Landrum-Griffin Act b. The Civil Rights Act c. The Wagner Act d. The Taft-Hartley Act 269. Protected activities under the NLRA include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Union organizing b. Joining a union, whether it is recognized by the employer or not c. Refraining from activity on behalf of the union d. Advance notice by employers of plant shutdowns 270. The National Labor Relations Board has the power to do all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Set aside the results of an election b. Levy punitive damages c. Order reinstatement of employees, with or without back pay d. Issue cease-and-desist orders to halt unfair labor practices 271. Under the NLRA, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of management except: a. spying or pretending to spy on union meetings. b. refusing to meet with employees' representatives because the employees are on strike. c. discussing the disadvantages of union membership with employees. d. threatening to close down a plant if organized by a union. 272. Under the Taft-Hartley Act, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of the union except: a. calling or visiting employees at home for the purpose of promoting union membership or activities. b. mass picketing in such numbers that nonstriking employees physically cannot enter the workplace. c. threatening employees with physical injury or job loss if they do not support union activities. d. terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, and the state mediation service (where one exists). 273. Which piece of legislation could be described as a Bill of Rights for union members because of its focus on the internal affairs of unions and their leaders? a. The Wagner Act b. The Taft-Hartley Act c. The Landrum-Griffin Act d. The Civil Service Reform Act 274. The purpose of the National Labor Relations Board is to: 57 | P a g e a. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company records regarding the negotiation and enforcement of all contract provisions and related labor-relation activities. b. conduct and certify representation elections, to determine the employees who are eligible to participate in organizing activities and bargaining units, and to prevent unfair labor practices. c. draft, hold a hearing on, and promulgate rules and regulations regarding union-management relations. d. All of the above 275. Which one of the following employee groups is most likely to be excluded by the NLRB from participating in organizing activities and being a member of the bargaining unit? a. Employees in multiple facilities within a single employer. b. Employees covered by multiple employers. c. Employees with certain supervisory duties. d. Employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees. 276. What percent of employers in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election? a. 30 percent b. 50 percent c. 35 percent d. 51 percent 277. Conduct during a union organizing campaign that may lead to an election result being set aside include all of the following except: a. threats of loss of jobs or benefits by an employer or union to influence votes. b. making campaign speeches to assembled groups of employees on company time less than 24 hours prior to an election. c. a grant of benefits or a promise of benefits as a means of influencing votes. d. the use of consultants or lawyers on the part of either an employer or union. 278. A card-check provision: a. allows the employer, on behalf of the union, to automatically deduct union dues from the employees' paychecks. b. is an agreement that if a certain percentage—by law, at least a majority—of employees sign an authorization card, the employer will recognize their union representation. c. allows union membership which is not linked to an employee's workplace and which does not provide representation in collective bargaining, but does provide union affiliation and services, such as discounts on health and life insurance or credit cards. d. is a formal and binding pledge by the employer not to oppose organizing efforts elsewhere in the company. 279. Which one of the following statements is true of the decertification process? 60 | P a g e a. consists of a group of exceptional employees whose productivity is aided by advances in technology. b. is a combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. c. is a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data. d. is a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization's human resources. 293. High-performance work systems emphasize: a. training. b. development. c. career management. d. All of the above 294. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Lower costs and improved profits b. High-quality goods and services c. Lower employee involvement and job satisfaction d. Higher employee productivity and efficiency 295. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. a. Higher employee turnover b. Higher customer satisfaction c. Greater knowledge sharing d. Increased innovation 296. One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to: a. use an at-will-employment policy. b. design work so that it is performed by teams. c. increase pay levels above those of major competitors. d. employ a promotion-from-within policy. 297. An organization in which people continually expand their capacity to achieve the results they desire is known as a/an: a. e-learning organization. b. adaptive organization. c. learning organization. d. next-generation organization. 298. In high-performance organizations, employees tend to experience: a. burnout. b. job dissatisfaction. 61 | P a g e c. isolation. d. job satisfaction. 299. Because much human resource information is confidential, organizations engaging in e-HRM are: a. continuously limiting the amount and type of information made available to company personnel. b. increasingly placing company-specific information on a secure intranet with links to resources on the broader Internet. c. consolidating information into a single file and restricting access to this database to only top-level personnel within the company. d. placing confidentiality notices online, which must be "accepted" before the employee gains access to the restricted file. 300. The first step in an HR audit is to: a. conduct an external analysis of the company's product- and labor-market environments. b. identify key functions and key performance measures of business performance and customer satisfaction that will indicate success within each HRM function. c. gather information through organizational documents, customer surveys, employee attitude surveys, and other instruments and tools. d. evaluate performance data to determine levels of success and develop action plans to correct any deficiencies in performance. The federal minimum wage is currently set at $7.25/hour. However, in the state of Maryland, where Rachel's ice cream parlor resides, the minimum wage is currently set somewhat higher at $8.25/hour. Which statement below accurately reflects the rate at which Rachel's new employees starting out at the minimum wage would receive? a) The new employees will receive $7.25/hour. When the federal minimum wage is set lower than a state's minimum wage, an employer can go with the lower rate of pay as its standard b) The new employees will receive $8.25/hour. When a state's minimum wage is higher than the federal minimum wage, an employer must use the higher state minimum wage as its standard c) The new employees will receive $7.75/hour, which is an average of the federal minimum wage and the state's minimum wage d) Rachel's ice cream parlor does not have enough employees to fall under the guidelines of the Fair Labor Standard b) The new employees will receive $8.25/hour. When a state's minimum wage is higher than the federal minimum wage, an employer must use the higher state minimum wage as its standard Which of the following individuals would qualify for non-exempt status under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? a) An employee whose position does not require specialized education b) An individual who supervises the work of 2 or more staff members c) A employee who must use independent judgement in their daily work d) An employee who earns more than $455 per week 62 | P a g e a) An employee whose position does not require specialized education Brainpower Read More What is the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 is a United States labor law that creates the right to a minimum wage, and "time-and-a-half" overtime pay when people work over forty hours a week. It also prohibits employment of minors in "oppressive child labor". Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 categories that the IRS's 20 factors fall under for determining if an individual working at a company is an employee or an independent contractor? a) Financial Control b) Reporting Accountability c) Behavioral Control d) Type of relationship b) Reporting Accountability Which of the following items is NOT covered provision under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? a) Overtime pay b) Employee Classification c) Child labor d) Hazard pay d) Hazard pay Which piece of legislation requires employers to pay employees for preliminary and postliminary tasks, such as job-related travel time that is outside of an employee's regular work commute and time spent in job-related training? a) Equal Pay Act b) Portal-to-Portal Act c) Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) d) Davis Bacon Act b) Portal-to-Portal Act What is Equal Pay Act? The Equal Pay Act of 1963 is a United States labor law amending the Fair Labor Standards Act, aimed at abolishing wage disparity based on sex. It was signed into law on June 10, 1963, by John F. Kennedy as part of his New Frontier Program. What is Portal-to-Portal Act? 65 | P a g e Mandates an insurance program which gives some employees the ability to continue health insurance coverage after leaving employment. Considering they have met all of the necessary requirements, which of the following individuals is eligible to take unpaid, protected leave from work under the FamilyMedical Leave Act (FMLA)? a) An employee who is non-weight bearing, recovering from ankle surgery, and who will have multiple follow-up appointments with his surgeon and numerous physical therapy visits to attend b) An employee who is out of the office for 3 days sick with the flu c) An employee who wants to take care of her Aunt who is suffering from end-stage lung cancer d) An employee who wishes to travel to China to support her sister who is in the process of adopting a child in that country a) An employee who is non-weight bearing, recovering from ankle surgery, and who will have multiple follow-up appointments with his surgeon and numerous physical therapy visits to attend What does Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) cover? - The birth of a child, adoption or foster-care placement - The serious health condition of a spouse, child or parent - The serious health condition of the employee - Military caregiver leave, or leave to care for a covered service member with a serious injury or illness Which of the following benefits is considered to be discretionary? a) Unpaid family medical leave b) Life insurance c) Continuation of healthcare coverage d) Worker's compensation b) Life Insurance Life insurance is a discretionary or voluntary benefit that is provided by employers All other choices, employers are required to provide Which of the following is considered to be indirect compensation? a) Bonus b) Incentive pay c) Pension plan d) Hourly wage c) Pension plan What is a pension plan? Indirect compensation, most commonly referred to as employee benefits, including such elements as healthcare coverage, retirement/pension plans, paid time off from work, and short-term and long-term disability 66 | P a g e Which of the following is used to describe the knowledge, skills, abilities, education and experience that are essential to performing a specific job? a) Job analysis b) Job description c) Job specification d) Job evaluation c) Job specification Which of the following is a quantitative method of job evaluation? a) Job ranking b) Paired comparison c) Factor comparison method d) Job classification c) Factor comparison method What does job ranking method mean? Perhaps the simplest method of job evaluation is the ranking method. According to this method, jobs are arranged from highest to lowest, in order of their value or merit to the organization. ... The ranking method is simple to understand and practice and it is best suited for a small organization What does paired comparison method mean? Paired Comparison Method is a handy tool for decision making; it describes values and compares them to each other. It's often difficult to choose the best option when you have different ones that are far apart What does job classification mean? Job classification is a system for objectively and accurately defining and evaluating the duties, responsibilities, tasks, and authority level of a job. What does factor comparison method mean? Factor comparison is systematic and scientific method designed to carry out job evaluation which instead of ranking job as a whole, ranks according to a series of factors. The aim of factor comparison is to assign financial value to the relative parts of each job role. Once a salary survey is completed, what is the term used for weighting the data for jobs included on the survey that are similar, but not identical, to positions with the organization? This process is done to create a more accurate match. Leveling What does wage compression mean? 67 | P a g e When a new employee is paid at a higher wage then an individual who is currently employed in a similar position and with similar skills What is benchmarking? Used to evaluate something by using a comparison Which of the following is a direct result of Broadbanding? a) Green-circle rates b) Taller organization structures c) Red-circle rates d) Flatter organizational structures d) Flatter organizational structures When does Broadbanding occur? Broadbanding occurs when employers decide to combine multiple pay levels into one, which results in only a handful of salary grades with much wider ranges What is a flatter organizational structure? A flat organization refers to an organization structure with few or no levels of management between management and staff level employees. The flat organization supervises employees less while promoting their increased involvement in the decision-making process. What is a taller organization structure? In its simplest form, a tall structure results in one long chain of command similar to the military. As an organization grows, the number of management levels increases and the structure grows taller. In a tall structure, managers form many ranks and each has a small area of control. What is a green-circle rate? a green circle rate is an individual salary that's below the pay range minimum for their jobs. What is a red-circle rate? Red-Circling is when an employee's pay rate is approved to be above the established salary maximum for that position. Which of the following types of compensation is given to employees when they work during holidays or vacation days? a) Reporting day b) Shift pay c) Premium pay d) Emergency shift pay c) Premium pay 70 | P a g e organization because allegations must be investigated. When is an employee required to complete the IRS form W-4? Upon hire What is necessary for a performance management system to be effective? Established performance standards Who is allowed access to an employee's medical records during an emergency? First aid personnel Job sharing method of dividing tasks between employees Trend provides information on past employment patterns to predict future needs Timely completion of performance appraisals improves employee perceptions of: fairness. The final stage of progressive discipline is: termination Organizations can protect intellectual property and information by using: non-compete agreements After a merger, an organization can: reduce costs by eliminating redundant job functions Which document needs to be included in an employee file? Form W-4 Cultural Novelty the difference between a person's native culture and a new culture, and the degree of difficulty in adjusting to the new culture cross-training teaching employees the skills and responsibilities of other positions in the company to increase their effectiveness and to provide greater staffing flexibility in the organization intercultural involving or representing different cultures (for example, intercultural communication, intercultural competency, or intercultural marriage) 71 | P a g e redundancies elimination or reduction of jobs because of downsizing or outsourcing hidden costs expenses such as maintenance, supplies, training, upgrades, and other costs in addition to the purchase price scatter diagram a graph with a vertical and horizontal axis with dots at each data point. Also called a "scatter plot" or "dot chart." equity compensation non-cash payment that represents an ownership interest in a company (for example, stock options and restricted stock) median the middle number in a series job preview a strategy for introducing job candidates to the realities of the position, both good and bad, prior to making a hiring decision ergonomic designed to be comfortable and avoid injuries (for example, an ergonomic chair or keyboard) job evaluation the process of measuring how much a job is worth (for example, in order to set the salary and other benefits) workforce analytics metrics used to determine the effectiveness of HR functions, such as turnover rates, organizational culture, and succession planning Buddy program when an experienced person shares knowledge with someone who has less experience; also known as mentoring stay interview a retention strategy that helps organizations understand why their employees remain with the organization and how they can motivate them to continue their employment targeted selection 72 | P a g e an assessment of job-related behavior from the candidate's previous employment to predict future performance plateaued careers inability of employees to advance further in the company due to mediocre performance or lack of opportunities situational interview a method of assessing a job candidate's skills by asking them how they would respond to specific work- related issues and problems range penetration an employee's pay compared to the total pay range for the same job function multinational corporation (MNC) a company that has its headquarters in one country and has offices and operations in other countries Employee Value Proposition the balance of benefits and rewards an employee receives in return for their performance on the job. In addition to compensation, intangible rewards may include development opportunities, challenging and meaningful work, or an attractive organizational culture employer of choice an organization that people want to work for because it attracts, motivates, and keeps good employees project management a methodical approach to planning and guiding project processes from start to finish local nationals employees or other people who are citizens of the country where a person is working on an expatriate assignment; also called host-country nationals power distance a term Geert Hofstede uses in his cultural theory to describe hierarchical relationships between people in a culture. For example, high power distance means there are strong hierarchical relationships. Low power distance means greater equality and accessibility among the population vacancy cost the amount of money it takes to fill a position, including direct costs, such as recruiting, separation pay, formal training, as well as indirect costs, such as loss of efficiency and productivity cost-of-living adjustment 75 | P a g e made available for others to use or modify fringe benefits payments that the employee receives, other than or in addition to a salary, such as health insuranc core competency the skills or knowledge that an organization or employee needs to do its work civil law regulations set by countries or legislative groups about the rights of people (different from common laws, which are set by judges) job requisition a procedure used when a company wants to hire a new employee to fill a position global staffing the process of identifying the number and type of employees an organization needs worldwide, and searching for the best candidates balanced scorecard a method or tool that organizations use to measure the success of their strategies by looking at both financial and non-financial areas competencies the skills, behaviors, and knowledge that are needed to succeed in a specific job apprentice a person learning a trade or skill from a qualified person for a specific length of time job-content-based job evaluation a way of estimating how much a person should be paid based on what they do contract manufacturing a production method in which one company hires another company to manufacture parts or goods under its label and according to its specifications head hunting the practice of recruiting employees from one company to work at another company Partner program when an experienced person shares knowledge with someone who has less experience (also called "mentoring") 76 | P a g e corporate social responsibility a business philosophy in which an organization helps to improve social and environmental problems process-flow analysis a diagram used to assess business processes; sometimes called "process mapping" multinational organization a company that has its headquarters in one country and has offices and operations in other countries authority someone with extensive knowledge of a specific subject; a person in a superior position wellness program services to improve and maintain the health of employees allowance money for a specific purpose intrinsic reward non-material motivation which comes from personal satisfaction (for examples, job status, job satisfaction or human interest) tuition reimbursement benefit whereby the employer provides full or partial payment for educational courses completed by employees job-fit The compatibility between an individual and the tasks that they are required to perform stock option a benefit which gives employees the right to buy or sell stock in their company at a certain price for a specific period of time Business Continuity Plan A plan which identifies threats and risks facing a company in order to protect its employees and assets. As a result, the company will be better prepared to continue its operations during a disaster or emergency. selection method for choosing the best candidate for a job Delphi technique 77 | P a g e a method of forecasting where a group of experts provide individual opinions which are later shared in order to reach a more objective decision environmental scanning acquiring and using information about the internal and external business environments that influence an organization's strategy. For example, determining how to respond to a talent shortage recruiting yield ratio the percentage of candidates who pass from one stage of the hiring process to another performance management the process of setting goals, measuring progress, and rewarding or correcting performance for employees forced distribution a performance measurement system which ranks employees against each other and according to pre- determined categories such as excellent, good, or poor gap analysis an analysis process that helps an organization compare its actual performance with its potential performance sabbatical leave a benefit provided by some organizations that allows eligible employees paid time off during a specific time period for study, rest, or travel due diligence the gathering and analysis of important information related to a business acquisition or merger, such as assets and liabilities, contracts, and benefit plans industrial relations the relationship between the management of an industrial enterprise and its employees, as guided by specific laws and regulations leniency error rating employees higher than their actual performance deserves chain of command the sequence of power in an organization, from the top to the next levels of authority mobility premium extra salary paid to expatriates to encourage them to move to a new country well being 80 | P a g e a group of available skilled workers, or database of resumes, that a company can use to recruit in a particular location value chain model of how businesses receive raw materials, add value to the raw materials, and sell finished products to customers Histogram A graph of vertical bars representing the frequency distribution of a set of data. assessment center a system of tests and interviews that evaluate employee performance and help companies select the right people for jobs positions cross-border employee an employee who works across geographic boundaries, such as an international business traveler or a short- or long-term international assignee tenure holding a permanent job or position without the need for periodic contract renewals incentive a monetary or non-monetary reward to motivate an employee (for example, a bonus or extra time off) employee retention an organization's techniques to keep its employees pay range The lowest and highest wages paid to employees who work in the same or similar jobs foreign direct investment an overseas investment in structures, equipment, or property controlled by a foreign corporation defined contribution plan a retirement plan that tells participants exactly how much money they will receive on a specific later date (usually the day they retire); also known as defined benefit plan time-to-fill he average number of days that a certain job position remains open lease an agreement for a person or organization to rent a property (leasee) from its owner (leasor) for a specific period of time and amount of money 81 | P a g e short-term assignment a work assignment outside the home country that is usually less than 6 months long .cultural novelty the difference between a person's native culture and a new culture, and the degree of difficulty in adjusting to the new culture breakdown (analysis) analyzing and classifying, such as an analysis of revenue sources or a report on attrition numbers career ladder promotion job advancement through a series of defined positions, from lower level to higher level international assignee a person who moves to a new country to work on an international assignment transnational corporation (TNC) an organization whose operations, production, or service processes take place in more than one country, and are interconnected Glocalization characteristic of a company that "thinks globally, but acts locally"; when a company has a strong presence both in its own country and around the world severance an additional payment (other than salary) given to an employee when employment termination occurs ADDIE model a process for designing training programs that has 5 steps: analysis, design, development, implementation, and evaluation Sharia the code of law from the Koran that regulates both civil and criminal justice as well as individual behaviors and morals job description written document describing an employee's work activities salary mid-point the amount of money between the highest and lowest amount paid for a particular job codetermination 82 | P a g e an organizational structure in which employees share responsibility for the operation of a company weighting pattern term used in statistics to show the frequency of different choices split payroll a method of paying expatriates that gives part of their salary in the currency of the home country and part of their salary in the currency of the host country stereotype an oversimplified opinion, image, or attitude that people from a particular group are all the same metrics a set of measurements that quantify results: for example, performance measures, return on investment (ROI) or turnover rates work-life balance the ability to effectively manage time at work with the time spent on leisure or with family members histogram a bar graph that shows the upper and lower limits in a set of data training method a way of communicating skills and knowledge (for examples, classroom training, distance learning, online training, and on-the-job-training) employee assistance program (EAP) services and counseling that employees receive to help them solve problems that could affect their work productivity. Examples include counseling for drug or alcohol problems or family issues global ethics policy an outline of how a company expects employees to behave around the world, often intended to prevent bribery and corruption. deductive a method of reasoning that forms a conclusion from general information; the opposite of inductive reasoning, where a conclusion is formed from particular facts Caux Principles a set of ethical principles developed for global organizations by the Caux Round Table, a group of global business leaders from around the world didactic 85 | P a g e use validation studies to demonstrate the job relatedness of a selection instrument Affirmative action compliance is reviewed by the: Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs Executive Order 11246 provides equal employment opportunities to: federal employees and individuals employed by government contractors. The Equal Pay Act prohibits employers from discrimination in pay based on: gender The Pregnancy Discrimination Act states that: an employer must set pregnancy leave dates based on the individual employee's ability to work Organizations subject to Title VII are required to post: specific employment records and reports EEOC guidelines are: Administrative Rules published in the Federal Register The law that requires federal contractors to take affirmative action in hiring disabled individuals is: the Vocational Rehabilitation Act Individuals with AIDS or HIV are "disabled" within the meaning of the: Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 The Equal Pay Act was passed as an amendment to the: Fair Labor Standards Act A factor that appears to have influenced the growth of Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) legislation is: the changing attitudes of society at large In recent years, the number of age discrimination complaints filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) has shown: a steady increase Employers that pay men and women a different salary are violating the Equal Pay Act only if the pay difference is a result of: performing tasks requiring the same skills. 86 | P a g e In which of the following decisions did the Supreme Court not endorse all voluntary affirmative action programs, but it gave an important push to programs voluntarily implemented and designed to correct past racial imbalances? University of Steelworkers of America v Weber. Bona fide occupational qualifications can: permit discrimination by an employer In which Supreme Court decision involving an invalidated employment test for firemen did the Court state: "once the process has been established and employers have made clear their selection criteria, they may not then invalidate the test results, thus upsetting an employee's legitimate expectation not to be judged on the basis of race."? Team synergy is heightened when team members engage in behaviors such as support, active listening, consensus decision-making, and _____. disagreements Hackman and Oldham propose that the five characteristics in their job characteristics model lead to all of the following EXCEPT: work group synergy The area of employment that is slowest to respond to affirmative action appeals is: The advancement of minorities to middle and top management positions Personality tests: measure an applicant's preference for certain activities over others. The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the: statistical approach According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs. less than five percent Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the technique used in: concurrent validity predictive validity The success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior. concurrent validity 87 | P a g e the extent to which two measures of the same trait or ability agree content validity the extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest correlational validity validity established when an indicator correlates strongly with other accepted valid indicators. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as: reliability Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes EXCEPT: job satisfaction A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a _____ selection decision model. compensatory multiple hurdle system strategy constructed from multiple hurdles so that candidates who do not exceed each of the minimum dimension scores are excluded from further consideration The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT: it absolves the organization of legal liabiilty Constructs, or traits, include all of the following EXCEPT: physical ability The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation EXCEPT: utility validity Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: interviews are the most valid method of selection Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988: applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use In 2011, the EEOC and state fair employment practice agencies processed ______ sexual harassment complaints nationwide. which of the following is a true statement about measuring days to fill ? 90 | P a g e Piecework is appropriate when: the job is fairly standardized Using the point method of job evaluation requires that managers: compare the job descriptions against the various factor degree descriptions Most pay increases may lack motivational value to employees when _____. salary budgets are low Profit sharing refers to any procedure by which an employer pays employees: current or deferred sums based on the organization's financial performance The federal civil service job classification system uses which type of job evaluation system job classification system According to Sammer, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a successful incentive plan? find technically detailed , quantitive , and extremely throughout payout formulas The relationship between the relative worth of jobs and their wage rates can be represented by means of a: wage curve An appropriate reward for a consumer service representative who worked long hours to fill a new customer's large order is a: spot bonus The federal wage law that is criticized for a rule that allows minimum pay to be based on the prevailing rate, which often includes higher union wages is: davis bacon act Wages gained through collective bargaining extend: beyond the segment of the labor force that is unionized. With respect to pay equity, which of the following is NOT considered an input? salary Pay levels are limited in part by: the organization's profits and the productivity of employees Special benefits given to executive employees, such as assigned chauffeurs, country club memberships, and special vacation policies, are known as: perquisites 91 | P a g e Individuals can receive Social Security benefits as early as age: 62 Holiday pay, sick leave, and vacation pay are examples of: payment for time not worked Which of the following is NOT a method that employers commonly use to communicate benefits to employees? word of mouth Annual interest earned on cash-balance pension plans are often tied to a 30 year treasury rate Unemployment compensation payments to individuals vary according to: their previous wage rate and length of previous employment enable individual employees to choose the benefits that are best suited to their particular needs. cafeteria plans Which of the following groups of employees is NOT covered by Social Security insurance? railroad workers Groups of physicians that contract with an employer to provide medical resources on a more cost- efficient basis in exchange for a greater share of patients are known as: preferred provider organizations Under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees are eligible to take leave if they have worked for their employers for at least twelve months, have at least _____ hours of service, and work in organizations that have 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius 1250 The _____ mandates that employers make health care coverage, at the same rate the employer would pay, available to employees, their spouses, and their dependents on termination of employment, death, or divorce. consolidated omnibus budget reconcilation act Benefits can represent more than ______ of the employer's total payroll costs. 12 percent recording on the OSHA 300 log what is the main advantage to an organization using the alternative dispute resolution process decreases conflict within the organization 92 | P a g e what is a smart goal Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely A company reaches an agr taft hartley act with respect to sexual harassment , what is quid pro quo harassment directed at a female manager by a subordinate which type of patent protects ne utility which of the following data gathering methods would help the hr manager determine whether employee behavior has changed after training roi analysis if an organization chooses to focus on the 75th percentile of the market , what type of pay philosophy has it adopted market leader an hr business where payroll and benefit administration are entirely outsourced the process by which the key stakeholders of an organization envision its future and develop a mission , objectives , and procedures to achieve that future is called strategic planning For unemployment compensation, employers pay a payroll tax of ____% on the first ______ of annual wages paid to each employee. 6.2 and 7000 What is the main disadvantage to an employee when using a flexible spending account (FSA)? employees risk loosing their money at the end of the year if the funds are not used by the year end deadline You have decided to conduct an exempt versus nonexempt audit based on the Federal Labor Standards Act (FLSA). Which of the following is most likely to considered nonexempt? an employee who regularly performs routine or clerical duties What is merit pay? - based on performance - when an org bases salary on the level of individual skills - use it when employees are underpaid but company has a salary burden 95 | P a g e five Stress basically comes from two basic sources which are: physical and emotional activity Alternative approaches to employee health include all of the following EXCEPT preemployment medical examinations When dealing with stress, having too much to do in too short as time is known as: high demand A recordable case is any occupational death, illness, or injury to be recorded in ___ osha form 300 Criticisms of Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) enforcement of rules include all of the following EXCEPT: osha both sets and enforces its own standards Injury and Illness Report form is also known as: osha form 300 According to a National Highway Traffic Safety Administration study, distracted driving accounts for _____ of all accidents. 50 percent Laws that require employers to disclose relevant safety information to employees are known as: right to know laws When dealing with stress, having to expend too much mental or physical energy over too long a period of time is known as high effort The people who are least likely to get cumulative trauma disorder from their jobs are: models Injuries that result from workers using the same motions again and again are known as: cumulative trauma disorders The best method to capitalize on the benefits of video display terminals while safeguarding employee health is: 96 | P a g e placing the computer screen 4 to 9 inches below eye level Recommendations for minimizing the negative effects of video display terminal use do NOT include: placing monitors at a 45 degree angle to reduce glare Talent Acquisition the strategic process of hiring individuals with specific skills and abilities that will align with the organization's goals Workforce planning The complete strategic process that forecasts an organizations current and future workforce needs, determines the most effective practices and processes to fill these needs, and implements the plan to deliver results. Forecasting The process of deciding which positions must be filled and how to fill them. Recruitment life cycle steps 1) determine the need of the department 2) source candidates and assess the candidate pool 3) further screen the candidates who have the required qualifications 4) assess the most qualified candidates via assessment tests or interviews 5) the employment offer and orientation Job Analysis The job description and specification Critical skills gap analysis A process by which an organization defines its personal needs in terms of the skills required to achieve the organizations goals Critical skill One that must be present in order to achieve the results necessary Job description Reflects the minimum qualifications, specifically the experience and education required to be able to do the job. Employee surplus Occurs when there is not enough work for all of the employees or when the number or employees is greater than the need. Employee shortages 97 | P a g e There is not enough employees to perform all the work or when the number of employees is less than needed. Employee value proposition (EVP) The overall brand that an organization provides to its workforce, both current and future. 5 primary components of EVP 1) compensation 2) benefits 3) career 4) work environment 5) culture Compensation Includes not only the current salary paid but also future salary opportunities such as merit increases, bonuses, and promotions. Benefits Include retirement programs and insurance such as medical, dental, vision, and life; also include paid time off, holidays, flexible work schedules, telecommuting options, educational reimbursement, and training opportunities. Career The ability for employees to move within the organization while progressing within their career. Work environment Recognizing and rewarding outstanding performance, balancing work life and home life, providing challenging and rewarding assignments, and encouraging engagement and involvement at all levels within the organization. Culture The practice of values such as trust, support, teamwork, collaboration, and social responsibility. Recruitment The entire process of filling an open position. General knowledge test Shows the applicants knowledge in certain areas that relate specifically to the open position. General intelligence test (IQ) Shows how quickly an applicant can process complex problems with the information provided. Personality test