APHR PRACTICE TEST 2024\2025 |GUARANTEED ACCURATE ANSWERS |SOLVED!!, Exams of Nursing

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APHR PRACTICE TEST 2024\2025 |

GUARANTEED ACCURATE

ANSWERS |SOLVED!!

1. Who provides employee feedback during a 360-degree feedback appraisal? a) peers b) managers c) direct reports d) all of the above - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. 360-degree feedback includes evaluations from all levels of workers who interact with the employee who is being reviewed.
2. Which of the following employers would be required to notify employees of a mass layoff 60 days in advance according to the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN)? a) an employer with 90 full-time workers on staff b) an employer required to layoff employees following the abrupt cancellation of a large contract c) an employer required to layoff employees following a natural disaster d) an employer with 80 full-time and 30 part-time employees working more than 4,000 hours a week - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. The Act applies to employers with 100 or more full- time employees, or 100 or more full- and part-time employees who work

a combined 4,000 or more hours per week. Employers are only excused from the requirement in exceptional circumstances.

3. Which of the following describes what happens during a job analysis? a) Job tasks and requirements are reviewed. b) Benchmarking is conducted to establish external equity. c) Broadbanding is done to ensure internal equity. d) Red circle employee salaries are frozen. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. A job analysis includes two components: job description and job specification.
4. What steps can a leader take to guide a team through substantive conflict while avoiding personal strife in the workplace? Select all choices that apply. a) ask team members to focus on opinions b) model being open to other people's ideas c) encourage teams to seek a "victory" point of view d) request that team members remain objective - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ B and D. To guide a team through substantive conflict, leaders can encourage team members to be open and respectful to other people's ideas, remain objective, focus on facts (not opinions and personalities), and work towards a common goal (not seek a "victory" point of view).

5. Which employees should have similar compa-ratios? a) employees with similar skills b) employees with similar responsibilities c) employees with similar levels of seniority d) all of the above - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Employees in similar positions (which should include considerations of seniority, training, performance, etc.) should have similar compa- ratios.
6. Which of the following individuals is in violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act? a) an 18-year-old working at a hazardous worksite b) a minor employed by a parent c) a 15-year-old working during school hours d) a 13-year-old working on a parent's farm - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. The FLSA establishes criteria for child labor. According to these criteria, a 15-year-old would be permitted to work a limited number of hours at a nonhazardous job, but not during school hours.
7. Which of the following is not covered by the FLSA? a) minimum wage

b) child labor c) record-keeping d) procedures for discharging employees - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Procedures for discharging employees are not covered by the FLSA.

8. Which type of analysis considers how both internal and external factors serve as benefits and obstacles for an organization? a) time series analysis b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. A SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats) analysis focuses on identifying factors both within and outside of an organization that will impact its performance.
9. Which of the following is true regarding the EEOC and the timeliness of complaints? a) In most cases, complaints must be filed immediately after the alleged incident. b) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged incident. c) In most cases, complaints must be filed within 3 years of the alleged incident.

d) Complaints may be filed at any time; there's no restriction on how long an employee can wait to file a complaint. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. Strict time limits apply to claims filed with the EEOC. Most claims must be filed within 180 days from the date of the alleged discrimination.

10. Giving full attention to what other people are saying is known as which of the following? a) oral comprehension b) critical thinking c) speaking d) active listening - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Giving full attention to what other people are saying is known as active listening.
11. All of the following are true of independent contractors EXCEPT: a) Independent contractors are responsible for paying their own Social Security taxes. b) Employers are required to pay overtime. c) Employers are not required to pay for on-call time. d) Independent contractors are responsible for submitting their own state and federal taxes. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. Employers are not required to pay independent contractors for overtime.

12. Union elections are conducted by: a) the National Labor Relations Board b) the Congress of Industrial Organizations c) the Financial Accounting Standards Board d) the National Education Association of the United States - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. Union elections are held by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB).
13. Which of the following describes a tool with four categories managers use for grouping employees who need to be replaced? a) job bidding b) succession plan c) dual career ladder d) replacement chart - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. A replacement chart categorizes employees in four ways and can assist managers and HR professionals in succession planning.
14. Which of the following best describes a corporate values statement? a) This is a written document that reviews various moral dilemmas an employee may face and provides guidelines for how to deal with those situations.

b) This is a document that is primarily aimed at an organization's employees and should differentiate the company from its competitors. c) This document is a concise assertion of who the company is, who they serve, and where they are going. d) This document is issued by company executives and identifies the principles that are at the foundation of how the organization does business. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. A corporate values statement is a statement issued by executives at a company to employees that indicates how business should be conducted within that organization.

15. An organization is considering implementing a new comprehensive training program. Which of the following should they do first? a) They should consider whether funds are available for the program. b) They should conduct a needs assessment. c) They should consider whether anyone on the staff is capable of conducting the training. d) They should consider the value of bringing training experts in from other organizations. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. The first step is to conduct a training needs analysis. It's possible such a comprehensive program is not needed at all! But if it is, the training needs analysis will identify specific training goals for employees by examining areas in the company that could be improved.
16. Which of the following is a technique that would best be used to set behavioral expectations for employees?

a) work simplification b) team-building programs c) new employee orientation programs d) supervisory skills training programs - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. Orientation programs are an opportunity to establish behavioral expectations for new employees, ensuring everyone within an organization understands the standards and expectations to which they are subject.

17. Which of the following is true regarding employer responsibility and hostile work environment harassment? a) Employers are always responsible for hostile work environment harassment. b) Employers are responsible for hostile work environment harassment if they know about it or should have known about it, and they do not take appropriate action. c) Employers are only responsible for hostile work environment harassment in cases where an employee files charges or a formal complaint, and the employer does not take appropriate action. d) Employers are never responsible for hostile work environment harassment. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. Legally speaking, employers are considered liable if they knew or should have known about the occurrence of hostile work environment harassment and failed to take appropriate corrective action.

18. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) adverse impact c) disparate treatment d) minimum wage - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. The case of Griggs v. Duke Power established that discrimination could occur unintentionally but that an employer is responsible for that discrimination nonetheless.
19. Flexible spending funds that are not used are: a) forfeited b) returned to the employee c) rolled over to the next year d) an employee has an option to either have the funds returned or rolled over to the next year - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. If an employee chooses to make deposits into a flexible spending account but does not use those funds by the end of the year, those funds are forfeited.
20. Which type of analysis focuses exclusively on external factors that affect a business, like the political and legal environment? a) PEST analysis

b) SWOT analysis c) cost-benefit analysis d) innovation metric - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. The letters that make up the acronym PEST stand for political, economic, social, and technological. These are all factors that could help determine what threats and opportunities an organization faces.

21. A competitive way to shrink the market or leverage resources can be from which of the following? a) contract manufacturer b) merger or acquisition c) outsourcing d) divestiture - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. A merger or acquisition is a competitive way to shrink the market and leverage resources.
22. Which of the following is most characteristic of the disengagement stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low.

c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. Leaving the organization might become a serious consideration.

23. What is the IRS 20-Factor test used to determine? a) if an employee is entitled to health insurance b) if an employee is entitled to a pension fund c) if an individual is an employee or an independent contractor d) how much an employer should withhold for federal taxes - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. The IRS 20- factor test is used to determine whether someone paid to complete work for an organization is a proper employee or an independent contractor. The weight of each factor in determining whether a worker is an employee or an independent contractor varies from case to case, depending on the services rendered.
24. High salaries with low benefits are most characteristic of which stage of the organizational life cycle? a) startup b) growth c) maturity

d) decline - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. Startups are uncertain ventures, so employees who join at that stage of growth should be appropriately compensated for the risk they are assuming. Higher salaries, rather than lavish bonuses and benefits, are typical at this point in the life cycle.

25. Griggs v. Duke Power established the judicial concept of: a) protected classes b) arbitration c) disparate impact d) disparate treatment - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. This case established the concept of disparate impact discrimination.
26. Which of the following is most characteristic of the maintenance stage of the career life cycle? a) During this stage, employees typically reach the point in an organization where the use of their talents is optimized, and performance may stagnate at this time. b) During this stage, employees typically identify interests and opportunities, although performance may be low. c) During this stage, an employee begins pulling away from work, and performance typically declines. d) During this stage, employees find a meaningful role in an organization, and performance typically increases. - ACCURATE

ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. The maintenance stage is the third traditional career stage, in which a person's talents are optimized. Performance may reach a plateau or begin to stagnate during this phase.

27. Which of the following job announcements would be most appropriate for external recruiting? a) job bidding b) job posting c) succession planning d) posting the position on a community site - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. External recruiting involves making the position and associated job description available to people outside the organization. This is typically done using a combination of media sources, job boards, community sites, and social media platforms.
28. Which of the following is covered by the FLSA? a) record-keeping b) meal periods c) pay raises d) procedures for discharging employees - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. The FLSA requires employers to keep records of wages paid, hours worked, and other relevant data for each nonexempt employee.

29. Which of the following metrics considers how well employees are generating revenue given their compensation and benefits packages? a) cost per hire b) HR value added c) total compensation expense per employee d) human capital ROI - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Human capital ROI (return on investment) is a common measure of an organization's financial success. It examines how much revenue employees produce in relation to their compensation packages.
30. Age would count as a bona fide occupational qualification in which of the following situations? a) when hiring employees to work with cutting-edge technology b) when hiring employees to work extensively with customers c) when hiring employees to serve alcohol d) when hiring employees to meet frequent and high-pressure deadlines - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. Bona fide occupational qualifications are personal characteristics that legitimately affect a person's ability to perform a job, and employers are allowed to take these qualifications into consideration when making hiring decisions. Because individuals under the age of 21 may not legally serve alcohol, age is a bona fide occupational qualification in this case.
31. Which of the following paid benefits are optional (not legally required)? Select all choices that apply.

a) worker's compensation b) tuition reimbursement c) personal days d) maternity leave - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ B,C, and D. Only worker's compensation is a legally-required benefit.

32. Which of the following is mostly used to assess the company as a whole? a) PEST (or STEP) analysis b) SWOT analysis c) demographic analysis d) all of the above - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. SWOT analyses are mostly used to assess the company as a whole.
33. What determines the strategic goals of HR? a) the values of the employees managed by the HR department b) the goals of the organization c) the goals of competitive organizations d) the values of HR managers - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. Human resource goals should align with the goals of the organization as a whole.

34. Which statement accurately describes a PEST (or STEP) analysis? a) Researching internal opportunities that help an organization to achieve its goals. b) Analyzing weaknesses within the organization that may prevent it from reaching its goals. c) Assessing external factors that determine what threats and opportunities an organization may face. d) Comparing workforce data within an organization to assess its future labor needs. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. A PEST analysis assesses external threats and opportunities that may arise from political, economic, social, and technological factors.
35. During the strategic planning process, goals with clearly identified milestones are known as which of the following? a) realistic goals b) specific goals c) measurable goals d) action-oriented goals - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. During the strategic planning process, goals with clearly identified milestones are known as measurable goals.
36. Price competition is a concern for the blank"________" force of Porter's Five Forces.

a) intensity of rivalry among competing firms b) threat of new entrants c) bargaining power of vendors/suppliers d) bargaining power of firm's customers - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. Price competition is a concern for the "intensity of rivalry among competing firms" force of Porter's Five Forces.

37. Which of the following is an example of constructive discharge? a) a legal concept that provides individuals with protection against accusations or other statements that are damaging to their reputations b) a common-law protection that holds an employer responsible for the actions of employees when they are acting on behalf of, or are performing tasks for, the employer c) a common-law protection that may require an employer to follow through on promises made to an employee in certain situations d) a situation in which an employer makes a work environment so intolerable that an employee is forced to quit - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Constructive discharge refers to a situation in which an employer has made the workplace so hostile and unpleasant that an employee chooses to quit. Many states allow former employees to sue in cases of constructive discharge, but the standard of proof varies considerably.
38. Match the healthcare plan to its description.

• Prioritizes reducing employee expenses and requires all healthcare be obtained from a specific group of providers
• Has similarities to PPOs, but doctors control the costs of the plan by making referrals to specialists when patients need additional care
• Helps to reduce healthcare costs by involving cooperative contracts with insurance providers
• Allows more choice than HMOs but costs more for patients who go outside a prescribed network of healthcare providers - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ A,C,B,D

39. When unemployment levels are high, which of the following is most likely to be the case during the hiring process? a) Recruitment will be easy. b) Recruitment will be difficult. c) Turnover will be high. d) Turnover will be low. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. In these cases, it is likely that there will be a lot of interest from potential candidates, so recruitment will be relatively easy.
40. Ensuring that employees with similar skills and responsibilities in the same organization are within the same pay range is called: a) broadbanding b) wage compression c) external equity

d) internal equity - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Internal equity involves ensuring that the pay levels within an organization correspond to the level of responsibility and skills required for the job.

41. The legal requirement that samples collected for drug testing be carefully tracked and documented is referred to as: a) double negative b) false positive c) chain of custody d) validity - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. Employees may sometimes be terminated for failing drug or alcohol tests. To protect the reliability of those tests, employers must keep a log of each person who was responsible for the sample from the time it is collected from the employee until it is tested at the appropriate facility.
42. Which rating method requires managers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings? a) forced distribution method b) paired comparison method c) simple ranking method d) BARS - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. A forced distribution rating method requires employers to group employees into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. For example, supervisors may rate employees along a bell curve.

43. Which act guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers? a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. The Wagner Act, also known as the National Labor Relations Act, guaranteed the right of workers to form unions and bargain as a union with their employers. It created the National Labor Relations Board to arbitrate deadlocked labor disputes, ensure democratic union elections, and penalize unfair labor practices by employers.
44. An employer may face jail time if an employee dies after which of the following violations is issued? a) de minimis b) willful c) serious d) failure to abate - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. A willful violation occurs when employers intentionally ignore or intentionally violate OSHA standards. The employer will be cited for the violation and required to pay fines ranging between $5,000 and $70,000. If an employee's death results from the violation, an employer may face additional penalties and jail time.

45. High rates of absenteeism may suggest: a) Reward programs are effective. b) Reward programs should be reconsidered. c) Employees are very satisfied with their jobs. d) The cost per hire for new employees is too high. - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. One metric to monitor performance and reward systems is the absentee rate, a measurement of employee absences each month.
46. According to the FMLA requirements, which of the following employees is entitled to time off, with the understanding that they'd be reinstated upon their return? a) a secretary who has worked for 10 years at a company that employs 40 people and needs to care for an elderly parent b) an executive who is among the 5 percent of employees who are most highly compensated at a corporation who wants to spend time with a spouse with a terminal illness c) an employee who has been with a company for 10 months and is adopting a child d) an administrative assistant who has worked an average of 30 hours a week for 1 year and needs to care for a sick parent - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. Because this employee works more than 25 hours each week, the employee is entitled to unpaid family leave.

47. Which was the first major legislation passed to outlaw the formation or the attempt to create monopolies? This legislation also made it illegal to conspire to monopolize. a) Sherman Antitrust Act b) Railway Labor Act c) Clayton Antitrust Act d) Wagner Act - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. The Sherman Act was the first major legislation passed to outlaw any "monopolization, attempted monopolization, or conspiracy or combination to monopolize." After the Sherman Act was passed in 1890, two additional antitrust laws were passed in 1914: the Federal Trade Commission Act and the Clayton Act.
48. Which of the following interview questions would most likely be appropriate and would not violate equal employment opportunity regulations? a) What is your marital status? b) How many children do you have? c) Are there any health issues that run in your family? d) Are you willing to relocate if necessary? - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. This is an appropriate interview question so long as it is related to the job that the applicant is interviewing for and it is asked of all applicants for that position.

49. When a manager hires a candidate based on the employer's recommendation and overlooks potential issues in the candidate's resume, this is an example of: a) central tendency error b) contrast error c) halo effect d) leniency error - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. Halo effect occurs when a manager judges an applicant on only one trait or attribute and allows that judgment to influence their judgment of other unrelated traits.
50. Rules prohibiting discrimination against older employees are laid out in: a) Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act b) Age Discrimination in Employment Act c) Portal-to-Portal Act d) Equal Pay Act - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees or job candidates on the basis of age.
51. What is an HRIS? a) a technological system used to store and organize information

b) a metric used to measure HR efficiency c) a review board that evaluates employee complaints d) a legal concept that holds an employer responsible for due diligence when conducting background checks - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. Human resource information systems (HRIS) are one especially powerful way to improve efficiency. HRIS use technology to streamline many of the otherwise time-consuming responsibilities of human resource departments, including timekeeping, payroll, work schedules, recurring, workforce planning, benefit eligibility, recruitment, and much more.

52. Which of the following forecasting techniques involves experts independently developing and refining forecasts? a) ratio analysis b) trend analysis c) nominal group technique d) Delphi technique - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is D. The Delphi technique is a way to forecast future job needs that combines the input and expertise of many professionals who never physically meet but come to a consensus over time through questionnaires and anonymously-provided responses.
53. Which of the following requires that employment exams test skills that are relevant to the job that is being applied for? a) content validity

b) predictive validity c) concurrent validity d) construct validity - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is A. Content validity requires that a job exam actually tests skills that are relevant to the job for which the candidate is applying.

54. When more stimulating and rewarding work is added to a job during redesign, this is called: a) job simplification b) job enlargement c) job enrichment d) job creation - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is C. Job enrichment is an attempt to add more stimulating and rewarding work into a particular job.
55. A SMART goal is "time-bound" if blank________. a) it requires more time to complete than originally planned b) it includes a realistic time constraint c) it can be achieved in 30 days or less d) it cannot be accomplished within a realistic time frame - ACCURATE ANSWERS✔✔ The correct answer is B. A SMART goal is time-bound if it includes a realistic time constraint, such as a reasonable due date or deadline.