APHR Practice Test | Comprehensive Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 With 100, Exams of Human Resource Management

Download APHR Practice Test | Comprehensive Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 With 100 and more Exams Human Resource Management in PDF only on Docsity! APHR Practice Test | Comprehensive Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 With 100% Verified Solutions 1. As a type of resource, human capital refers to: - ✔✔a. the wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions within an organization. b. executive talent within an organization. c. the tax-deferred value of an employee's 401(k) plan. d. employee characteristics that add economic value to the organization. 2. Human capital includes all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Training b. Profitability c. Relationships d. Intelligence 3. When an organization is able to perform an activity to a greater degree than its competitors for an extended period of time, it is said to have a: - ✔✔a. differentiated focus. b. sustainable competitive advantage. c. core competency. d. low-cost competitive advantage. 4. Under the principle of employment at will, the employer may terminate employment: - ✔✔a. after two-weeks' notice. b. at any time without notice. c. immediately after written notice. d. at the end of the current day's shift with or without written notice. 5. Glass ceilings refer to: - ✔✔a. the intangible barriers that often keep female and minority employees from moving up the corporate ladder, particularly into management positions. b. the new, open office environments designed to enhance the free flow of ideas and communications. c. the trend of long-term employees to "top-out" on the pay scale, reducing their motivation and productivity. d. the overall decrease in employee privacy due to increased use of surveillance devices and methods within the workplace. 6. The process of identifying the numbers and types of employees the organization will require in order to meet its objectives is known as: - ✔✔a. strategic planning. b. change management. c. human resource planning. d. work analysis. 7. Communicating, negotiating, and team development are examples of ____ skills. - ✔✔a. leadership b. decision-making c. human relations d. technical 8. Ethics refer to: - ✔✔a. one's religious and political values and beliefs. b. what is required by law. c. what is acceptable to the company. d. the fundamental principles of right and wrong. 9. Which of the following is not a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for practices to be ethical? - ✔✔a. Managers must treat employees as family. b. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people. c. Employment practices must respect basic human rights of privacy, due process, and free speech. d. Managers must treat employees and customers equitably and fairly. 10. The primary and largest organization for HRM professionals is the: - ✔✔a. American Management Association (AMA). b. American Compensation Association (ACA). c. Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM). d. Personnel Management Association (PMA). d. the act of continually learning and improving one's skills and abilities. 21. The use of employee empowerment has had what effect upon recruiting? - ✔✔a. It has created an international labor market. b. It has substantially enhanced employment opportunities for women and minorities. c. It has shifted the focus away from technical skills to general cognitive and interpersonal skills. d. It has significantly reduced recruiting costs. 22. Increasingly, HR professionals are being viewed as: - ✔✔a. legal compliance officers. b. an administrative unit or function. c. experts in designing and delivering HR systems. d. strategic partners. 23. Which one of the following terms describes a company-wide effort to continuously improve the way people, machines, and systems accomplish work? - ✔✔a. Outsourcing b. Self-service system c. High-performance work system d. Total quality management 24. When two companies become one, it is termed a: - ✔✔a. partnership. b. consolidation. c. merger. d. joint venture. 25. The process whereby organizations lay off employees with outdated skills or cut whole businesses in declining markets while simultaneously building businesses and employee bases in newer, higher- growth markets is known as: - ✔✔a. downsizing. b. churning. c. outsourcing. d. surgical reductions. 26. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called: - ✔✔a. knowledge workers. b. immigrants. c. expatriates. d. nationalists. 27. When an organization undertakes a complete review of its critical work processes to make them more efficient and to be able to deliver higher quality, it is engaging in: - ✔✔a. outsourcing. b. high-performance work system design. c. total quality management. d. reengineering. 28. Electronic sales among manufacturers, retailers, wholesalers, and construction firms represent what type of e-business? - ✔✔a. Business-to-consumer b. Business-to-business c. Consumer-to-consumer d. Business-to-distributor 29. Employees realize that many companies are no longer able to provide long-term employment security. As a result, employees now want: - ✔✔a. increased pay. b. less demanding work. c. employability. d. written employment contracts. 30. John is an HR consultant who runs and operates his own business from his home. He is often hired by businesses to present one- or two-day workshops on various topics within his field of expertise. John is a/an: - ✔✔a. on-call worker. b. independent contractor. c. temporary worker. d. contract company worker. 31. Which one of the following is not a way that the executive branch can affect the laws that govern our country? - ✔✔a. By drawing up regulations detailing how to abide by the laws. b. By enforcement of laws, pursuing only the kinds of cases the President wants. c. By regulating the activities of federal contractors through executive orders. d. By passing laws that determine what is legal and illegal. 32. Which legislative/regulatory actions are under the direct control of the President? - ✔✔a. Constitutional amendments b. Judicial decisions c. Legislation d. Executive orders 33. Which one of the following requires organizations holding federal contracts to engage in affirmative action to hire women and minorities? - ✔✔a. Executive Order 11246 b. Title VII c. Civil Rights Act of 1991 d. Vocational Rehabilitation Act 34. The Civil Rights Acts of 1866 and 1871 still play an active role in employment rights cases because they: - ✔✔a. cover age discrimination, an employment category not covered by the 1964 Civil Rights Act. b. are now recognized worldwide, applying to all businesses regardless of country of origin. c. allow plaintiffs to recover both compensatory and punitive damages. d. not only cover race, color, religion, sex, age, disability, and national origin, but sexual orientation as well. 35. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows men and women performing the same job to be paid differently as a result of: - ✔✔a. merit. b. seniority. c. quantity or quality of production. d. Depending upon the length of service, service members have up to two years to apply for reemployment. 45. Which one of the following is not true of Executive Order 11478? - ✔✔a. The order covers all federal agencies, contractors, and subcontractors doing at least $10,000 worth of business with the federal government. b. The U.S. Office of Personnel Management ensures compliance at the government level, while relevant agencies ensure the compliance of contractors and subcontractors. c. The order requires covered entities to base all employment policies on merit and fitness, not on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. d. Covered entities must take affirmative action toward employing Vietnam veterans (those serving between August 5, 1964, and May 7, 1975). 46. The EEOC is not the enforcement agency for which one of the following acts? - ✔✔a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 b. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Right Act of 1994 c. Equal Pay Act of 1963 d. Americans with Disability Act of 1990 47. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the EEOC? - ✔✔a. Writing new EEO laws b. Information gathering c. Investigation and resolution d. Issuance of guidelines 48. An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency must file the complaint within ____ days of the incident. - ✔✔a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 180 49. An individual who files a discrimination complaint with the EEOC or other governmental agency must give that agency how long before filing suit in federal court? - ✔✔a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 100 days 50. Which one of the following organizations is required to file an EEO-1 form? - ✔✔a. Any organization engaged in interstate commerce. b. An organization with 100 or more employees. c. An organization that has been in existence for less than three years. d. An organization doing business overseas. 51. The set of guidelines issued jointly by the EEOC and other government agencies involved in employment rights enforcement responsibilities are known as the: - ✔✔a. Uniform Commercial Code. b. Code of U.S. Employment Practices. c. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures. d. Procedural Guidelines for Title VII. 52. The three basic components of an affirmative action plan include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Utilization analysis b. Measurement tools c. Goals and timetables d. Action steps 53. Which of the following is not one of the three theories of discrimination under Title VII? - ✔✔a. Reverse discrimination b. Disparate treatment c. Disparate impact d. Reasonable accommodation 54. In which one of the following cases would compensatory and punitive damages least likely be available to a plaintiff? - ✔✔a. A woman sues for not being hired as a result of her score on a standardized test that had adverse impact against women. b. A woman sues because she is turned down for a job from which the company specifically bars women. c. A minority applicant sues a firm for being turned down for a job because he is told "we need someone that looks 'all-American.'" d. A disabled employee is refused employment in favor of an equally qualified applicant for whom the firm would not have to make an accommodation. 55. Which of the following cases would most likely be subject to a lawsuit filed under the disparate treatment theory of discrimination? - ✔✔a. A group of females are laid off due to a downturn in business. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected on the basis of a psychological test. c. A black applicant is turned down for a job based on a handwriting analysis. d. A woman with school-aged children is rejected on the assumption that she will frequently be absent from work. 56. A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) must be: - ✔✔a. an industry-wide, recognized practice. b. a necessary, rather than a preferred, characteristic of the job. c. court-approved. d. All of the above 57. Which one of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact? - ✔✔a. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative action plan. b. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test. c. A white applicant is told he will not be hired because "we don't like whites here." d. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer. 58. In which type of case is most of the debate focusing on the discriminatory consequences rather than the intent to discriminate? - ✔✔a. Disparate treatment b. Disparate impact c. Reasonable accommodation d. Retaliation c. Close a workplace that represents an imminent danger. d. Issue citations and require that they be posted in a prominent place near the location of the violations. 69. Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, organizations must do all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Have material safety data sheets for chemicals that employees are exposed to within the workplace. b. Provide medical and life insurance coverage to all employees exposed to hazardous chemicals within the workplace. c. Ensure that all containers of hazardous chemicals are labeled with information about the hazard. d. Train employees in the safe handling of all chemicals. 70. The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service is termed: - ✔✔a. ergonomics. b. work flow design. c. job analysis. d. industrial engineering. 71. The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the: - ✔✔a. outputs of a particular work unit. b. work relationships within the work unit. c. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit. d. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product. 72. Jobs in functional organizations tend to be: - ✔✔a. organized around products or customer groups. b. broad based and rapidly changing. c. more holistic, with workers involved in teams. d. narrow and specialized in scope. 73. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as: - ✔✔a. job analysis. b. work flow analysis. c. industrial engineering. d. job evaluation. 74. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? - ✔✔a. Job specification b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job design 75. Which one of the following is not true of KSAOs or their use? - ✔✔a. KSAOs are observable only when individuals are carrying out the TDRs of the job. b. KSAOs include knowledge, skills, abilities, and outcomes. c. Accurate information about KSAOs is especially important for making decisions about who will fill a job. d. Information about KSAOs should come from a combination of people performing the job, people supervising or planning for the job, and trained job analysts. 76. Which one of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the time spent on various job tasks? - ✔✔a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 77. Which of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the importance of various job duties? - ✔✔a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 78. Which one of the following statements about the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is false? - ✔✔a. It requires trained job analysts to complete it. b. It is a standardized, commercial instrument. c. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job. d. It is one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs. 79. Which job analysis method entails rating the job in terms of the extent to which it requires each of 52 cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory abilities? - ✔✔a. Job Element Method b. Task Analysis Inventory c. Fleishman Job Analysis Method d. Position Analysis Questionnaire 80. When job analysis information is used to judge the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, the HR activity is termed: - ✔✔a. performance evaluation. b. training and development. c. job evaluation. d. work redesign. 81. Which one of the following approaches to job design entails performing time-and-motion studies? - ✔✔a. Motivational b. Industrial engineering c. Ergonomic d. Perceptual 82. The objective of job enlargement is to: - ✔✔a. make the job less repetitive and more interesting. b. increase the intrinsic aspects of the job. c. decrease the complexity of the job. d. increase the number of task performed. 83. If the Company XYZ requires its employees to be at work between the hours of 10 a.m. to 3 p.m., but allows employees to decide whether they will work their additional hours before or after this time period, it is using which one of the following? - ✔✔a. Job sharing c. Turnover d. New external hires 93. A small company that manufactures special-order wood furniture has kept its employees busy on a 40-hour-a-week schedule for the past two years. The company just received the largest contract in its history from a Saudi company opening offices in the area. There is no expectation of repeat business from the Saudi company. In order to complete the contract in the required six months, additional skilled woodworking peoplepower is needed. Under these circumstances, to avoid an expected labor shortage, the best option would be: - ✔✔a. overtime. b. the use of temporary employees. c. turnover reduction. d. new external hires. 94. The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are: - ✔✔a. outsourcing work and technological innovation. b. retraining transfers and reducing turnover. c. overtime and new external hires. d. hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work. 95. Which one of the following is not true of outsourcing? - ✔✔a. Outsourcing is a logical choice when firms lack experience in an area. b. Outsourcing often involves ventures with foreign companies. c. Outsourcing is currently restricted to manufacturing and low-skilled jobs. d. Outsourcing is driven by economies of scale. 96. In human resource management, any practice or activity carried out by the organization with the primary purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees is known as: - ✔✔a. recruitment. b. selection. c. placement. d. forecasting. 97. Which one of the following would do little to improve external recruitment? - ✔✔a. Using image advertising b. Using a single recruitment source c. Establishing due-process policies d. Using a lead-the-market pay strategy 98. Organizational recruitment materials that emphasize due process, rights of appeal and grievance mechanisms send a message that: - ✔✔a. the organization has many problems. b. the organization values employee rights over productivity and profitability. c. job security is high in the organization. d. employee morale is low in the organization. 99. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources? - ✔✔a. They are likely to promote diversity in terms of race and sex. b. They minimize the impact of political considerations in the hiring decision. c. They are generally cheaper and faster than other means. d. For entry-level positions, there will always be many recruits from which to select. 100. Direct applicants and referrals: - ✔✔a. require more effort to get them "sold" on the organization than for most other types of applicants. b. are more expensive to recruit because of necessary background checks. c. tend to have, due to self-selection, a better understanding of the job requirements and their ability to fulfill them. d. tend to be much more diverse when compared with candidates from other sources. 101. Yield ratios express the: - ✔✔a. output yielded by a new hire in relation to the cost of recruiting the new hire. b. percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next. c. dollar costs per hire. d. quality of new hires by comparing the cost of training the new recruits to the cost of hiring them. 102. Cost per hire is: - ✔✔a. useful in establishing the efficiency of a recruiting source. b. lower for private employment agencies than for public employment agencies. c. lower for executive recruits than for clerical recruits. d. a measure of applicant quality. 103. For most companies, the first step in the personnel selection process is: - ✔✔a. verification of the applicant's qualifications through reference and background checks. b. determining the best recruitment source. c. screening the applications received to determine which candidates meet the basic requirements for the job. d. preparation of a job description. 104. Which one of the following indicates how free a measure is from random error? - ✔✔a. Reliability b. Validity c. Generalizability d. Utility 105. The extent to which performance on the selection measure (i.e., the predictor) is associated with performance on the job is called: - ✔✔a. reliability. b. validity. c. generalizability. d. utility. 106. The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is: - ✔✔a. legal if the discrimination is unintentional. b. legal if the employer can demonstrate that its customers prefer employees who do well on the selection measure. c. legal if the employer can show that the method is job related and consistent with a business necessity. d. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances. c. Achievement d. Aptitude 117. A typing test for an administrative assistant job is an example of a: - ✔✔a. spatial abilities test. b. perceptual accuracy test. c. work sample test. d. mechanical test. 118. An assessment center: - ✔✔a. is a place where job applicants undergo rigorous psychological analysis. b. is relatively inexpensive. c. uses multiple selection methods to rate either applicants or job incumbents on their managerial potential. d. is a selection method generally used for clerical and secretarial positions. 119. A legal means to screen candidates who might be security risks is to administer a/an: - ✔✔a. polygraph (lie detector) test. b. paper-and-pencil honesty test. c. fitness-for-duty test. d. in-basket test. 120. Employers should ensure that their drug testing programs conform to all but one of the following guidelines. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Be routinely administered to all clerical and managerial employees. b. Be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job. c. Be part of a wider organizational program that provides rehabilitation counseling. d. Be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive and allows for strict confidentiality of results. 121. During an interview for a sales position, you are asked the following question: "Suppose one of your clients refuses to speak to you after you lost one of his orders; what would you do to regain his business?" What type of interview format is being used? - ✔✔a. Behavior description b. Situational c. Nondirective d. Structured 122. Which type of interview tends to have the highest validity? - ✔✔a. Behavior description interviews b. Situational interviews c. Nondirective interviews d. Open interviews 123. A well-planned interview should be: - ✔✔a. standardized. b. comfortable for the participants. c. focused on the job and the organization. d. All of the above 124. An organization's planned effort to help employees learn job-related knowledge, skills, abilities, and behaviors is known as: - ✔✔a. employee development. b. orientation. c. training. d. career development. 125. Readiness for training is a combination of all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Employee characteristics b. Trainer characteristics c. Situational constraints d. Social support 126. When seeking an outside vendor for a training program, this document outlines the type of service needed, the number of employees to be trained, the date by which the training is to be completed, the source of funding, and the methods of evaluation. - ✔✔a. Request for proposal (RFP) b. Affirmative action plan (AAP) c. Request for training (RFT) d. Call for contracts (CFC) 127. Which one of the following statements is not true of training administration? - ✔✔a. It is typically the responsibility of the organization's human resource department. b. It involves such activities as communicating with employees, arranging the training facility, providing support during instruction, and maintaining records of course completion. c. It is not necessary if the organization sends employees to outside training programs. d. It includes activities before, during, and after training sessions. 128. Hands-on training methods are most effective for: - ✔✔a. developing specific skills or dealing with interpersonal issues on the job. b. teaching new facts or alternative problem-solving solutions. c. establishing teams or work groups, or for improving their performance. d. sharing ideas and experiences and getting to know one's strengths and weaknesses. 129. One of the disadvantages of classroom instruction as a training method is its: - ✔✔a. relatively high expense. b. time-consuming nature. c. inability to provide information about specific topics. d. lack of active participation. 130. This is a work-study training method that teaches job skills, usually a trade, through a combination of on-the-job training and classroom training. - ✔✔a. Internship b. Coordination training c. Apprenticeship d. Experiential training 131. This type of on-the-job training program is generally sponsored by an educational institution as a component of its academic program and generally prepares students for professional careers. - ✔✔a. Internship 141. The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them is called: - ✔✔a. reliability. b. validity. c. specificity. d. acceptability. 142. Which one of the following is not a comparative performance appraisal technique? - ✔✔a. Mixed- standards scale b. Simple ranking c. Forced distribution d. Paired comparison 143. The technique that ranks employees into predetermined categories or groups according to performance is called: - ✔✔a. forced distribution. b. alternation ranking. c. paired comparison. d. ranking. 144. The most frequently used attribute approach to performance management is: - ✔✔a. behaviorally anchored rating scales. b. mixed standard scales. c. behavioral observation scales. d. graphic rating scales. 145. If a manager considers one employee at a time and circles a number or a word to signify the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular trait, he or she is using a: - ✔✔a. critical incidents approach. b. mixed standard scale. c. behavioral observation scale. d. graphic rating scale. 146. The performance management approach that requires managers to keep a record of specific examples of effective and ineffective performance is the: - ✔✔a. behaviorally anchored rating scale. b. graphic rating scale. c. critical incidents technique. d. organizational behavior modification method. 147. Which performance management technique involves the identification of a large number of critical incidents, the classification of these incidents into performance dimensions, and the rank ordering of these incidents into levels of performance? - ✔✔a. Behaviorally anchored rating scales b. Graphic rating scales c. Critical incidents d. Organizational behavior modification 148. The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the: - ✔✔a. behaviorally anchored rating scale. b. behavioral observation scale. c. graphic rating scale. d. mixed standard scale. 149. In what type of system are annual goals established and passed down through the organization? - ✔✔a. Productivity measurement and evaluation systems b. Management by objectives c. Assessment centers d. Organizational behavior modification 150. The type of performance management system where a company assembles performance data on an individual from most or all of his or her contacts within and outside the company is known as: - ✔✔a. the critical incidents technique. b. behavioral observation scales (BOS). c. management by objectives (MBO). d. 360-degree performance appraisals. 151. The ABC Company wishes to collect performance data on its outside sales staff, particularly in terms of their interpersonal skills and behaviors. The company would best use all but one of the following sources. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Customers b. Supervisors c. Peers d. Self 152. Subordinates, as a source of performance information, are generally most appropriate when the performance results are to be used for: - ✔✔a. administrative purposes. b. investigative purposes. c. strategic purposes. d. developmental purposes. 153. Which rater error is made when one judges individuals in the immediate work group higher than those who are not? - ✔✔a. Selective b. Distributional c. Halo/horn d. Similar to me 154. Which rater error makes it difficult to distinguish among employees rated by the same rater and creates problems in comparing the performance of individuals rated by different raters? - ✔✔a. Contrast b. Distributional c. Halo/horn d. Similar to me 155. Which rater error leads employees to believe that no aspects of their performance need improvement? - ✔✔a. Contrast 165. When a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period, which one of the following techniques is being used? - ✔✔a. Discussion b. Leaderless group discussion c. Role playing d. In-basket exercise 166. When using performance appraisals for development, all of the following are important except: - ✔✔a. managers must be trained in giving frequent performance feedback. b. employees should be evaluated on traits rather than on behavioral considerations. c. managers should monitor employees' progress in carrying out their action plans. d. employees must gain a clear understanding of the differences between current performance and expected performance. 167. Most employee development occurs through: - ✔✔a. performance appraisals. b. job experiences. c. mentoring programs. d. job enlargement. 168. Job rotation involves: - ✔✔a. adding challenges or new responsibilities to the employee's current job. b. moving the employee through a series of job assignments in one or more of the functional areas of the company. c. allowing the employee to work full-time in a temporary position at another company. d. allowing the employee to switch between two different jobs within the company on a daily or weekly basis. 169. An engineer accepting an assignment as a shift supervisor in order to develop his or her management skills is an example of a/an: - ✔✔a. lateral demotion. b. sabbatical. c. downward move. d. externship. 170. Providing employees with the opportunity to get away from the day-to-day stresses of their job and acquire new skills and perspectives is known as a/an: - ✔✔a. transfer. b. expatriate assignment. c. sabbatical. d. externship. 171. A mentor is generally an: - ✔✔a. employee's peer who provides friendship and guidance. b. employee's manager who provides feedback on performance. c. employee's family member who provides emotional and financial support. d. experienced, productive senior employee who provides feedback and coaching. 172. Which one of the following is not true of mentoring? - ✔✔a. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when the length of the program and level of contact expected are left to the discretion of the mentor and protégé. b. Most mentoring relationships develop informally as a result of interests or values shared by the mentor and protégé. c. Employees most likely to seek and attract a mentor are emotionally stable, have the ability to adapt their behavior to different situations, and have a high need for power and achievement. d. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when they are voluntary and participants understand the details of the program. 173. A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to motivate him or her, help him or her develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a: - ✔✔a. role model. b. coach. c. good Samaritan. d. high-potential employee. 174. In the career management process, the employee is primarily responsible for all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Identifying goals and a timetable to reach them b. Identifying company resources needed to reach goals c. Identifying developmental needs d. Identifying what skills are realistic to develop 175. Which one of the following is not true of the glass ceiling? - ✔✔a. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job experiences, and developmental relationships, such as mentoring. b. Research has found gender differences in access to job experiences involving transitions and creating change. c. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and minorities. d. Research shows male managers receive more assignments involving high levels of responsibility than do female managers of similar ability and managerial level. 176. Succession planning results in all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Ensures that senior management systematically conduct a review of leadership talent in the company. b. Provides a set of developmental experiences that managers must complete to be considered for top- management positions. c. Assures that top-level management talent is available. d. Identifies a specific replacement for each managerial position within the company. 177. All of the following are true of succession planning except: - ✔✔a. high-potential employees typically participate in fast-track development programs that involve education, executive mentoring and coaching, and job rotation. b. high-potential employees may receive special assignments, like serving on committees and making presentations. c. job assignments are based on what's available and of most interest to the high-potential employee. d. an objective of fast-track development programs is to help retain managerial talent within the company. 178. The employment-at-will doctrine: - ✔✔a. has gotten stronger in recent years. b. is related to voluntary turnover. c. has eroded significantly in recent years. d. None of the above 188. Outplacement counseling programs are: - ✔✔a. company-sponsored programs to help employees deal with the psychological issues associated with losing their jobs, while at the same time helping them to find new employment. b. state-operated and funded job locator and placement services for discharged or displaced workers. c. third-party programs to assist employees with their mental health and chemical dependency needs. d. university-sponsored executive training programs which require participants to live on campus while completing short, custom-designed courses. 189. Job withdrawal is: - ✔✔a. the loss of jobs within an organization due to adverse economic forces. b. a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation. c. the retracting of a job offer following the results of the pre-employment physical. d. a psychological state employees experience upon a job dismissal or retirement. 190. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in: - ✔✔a. behavior change. b. psychological withdrawal. c. physical withdrawal. d. whistle-blowing. 191. Denise is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she doesn't perceive any other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the workday dreaming about nonwork matters. Which of the following behaviors is she experiencing? - ✔✔a. Physical withdrawal b. Psychological withdrawal c. Change behaviors d. Physiological withdrawal 192. Comparable worth is a public policy that: - ✔✔a. advocates remedies for any undervaluation of jobs based on market-pay data. b. advocates equal pay for jobs of equal content. c. has been consistently upheld in court rulings. d. advocates the use of job evaluation to replace the market in pay-setting. 193. Which one of the following is not true of the Fair Labor Standards Act? - ✔✔a. The overtime rate under the FLSA is one and a half times the employee's hourly rate, including any bonuses and piece-rate payments. b. The FLSA requires federal contractors to pay "prevailing wage rates." c. The FLSA permits a subminimum training wage equal to 85 percent of the minimum wage. d. Nonexempt employees are covered by FLSA and include most hourly workers. 194. The FLSA includes provisions for all of the following except: - ✔✔a. overtime pay. b. minimum wage. c. wage discrimination. d. child labor. 195. An employee who earns $10 an hour and receives a weekly attendance award of $20 works 50 hours this week. His or her total compensation for the week will be: - ✔✔a. $550.00. b. $557.50. c. $570.00. d. $577.50. 196. Which group of employees is not exempt from the Fair Labor Standards Act? - ✔✔a. Professionals b. Administrative personnel c. Unionized employees d. Outside sales personnel 197. Exempt status under the FLSA depends on: - ✔✔a. the employee's job responsibilities and salary. b. the employee's basis of pay (hourly, piecework, or salaried). c. the employee's job title. d. the date of hire. 198. Which piece of U.S. legislation, along with the 1931 Davis-Bacon Act, legislated that federal contractors pay employees no less than the prevailing wage within the work area? - ✔✔a. The FLSA b. The Walsh-Healy Act c. The Equal Pay Act d. The Employment Standards Act 199. The federal government tracks trends in the nation's cost of living with a measure known as the: - ✔✔a. Consumer Price Index. b. Living-Wage Index. c. Gross National Product. d. Inflation Index. 200. A company that views employees as resources is most likely to use a/an ____-market pay rate. - ✔✔a. at b. below c. above d. variable 201. The procedure through which an organization compares its own practices to those of successful competitors is known as: - ✔✔a. gainsharing. b. commercial intelligence. c. benchmarking. d. profiling. 202. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that: - ✔✔a. companies may ban discussions about pay within the workplace. b. employees must be free to talk about pay in the workplace. c. issues relating to discussions about pay must be negotiated between management and labor. d. policies regarding discussions about pay are outside of its regulatory control. b. indirect pay. c. incentive pay. d. exempt pay. 214. An employee produces 10 components in an hour and earns $8 per hour, while an employee who produces 12 components earns $9.60 ($.80 x 12). This is an example of: - ✔✔a. a straight piecework plan. b. a commission plan. c. a differential piece rate plan. d. straight salary plan. 215. Which one of the following is not true of piecework pay plans? - ✔✔a. Piecework rates have a direct link between how much work the employee does and the amount the employee earns. b. Piecework incentive plans are most suited for organizations with complex jobs, employee empowerment, and team-based problem solving. c. Piecework plans, despite their motivational value, are relatively rare. d. Piecework plans are easy for employees to understand and most employees see them as fair. 216. You own and manager a small auto-body shop. You pay each of your three employees based upon the "flat rate" established by Mitchell's Collision Estimating Guide. Thus, no matter whether the employee completes the repair in less or more time, he or she receives the established flat rate. You are using a: - ✔✔a. standard hour plan. b. differential piecework plan. c. merit pay plan. d. straight piecework plan. 217. In merit pay programs, an individual's compa-ratio represents his or her: - ✔✔a. performance rating. b. pay relative to average pay. c. comparable worth versus others'. d. ratio of pay to benefits. 218. Which one of the following is not true of merit pay programs? - ✔✔a. Annual pay increases are linked to performance appraisal ratings. b. Merit pay is most common for white-collar employees. c. Merit pay increases are not rolled into base pay. d. The system gives the biggest pay increases to the best performers and to those whose pay is relatively low for their job. 219. When an employee's pay is calculated as a percentage of sales, the employee is being paid under a: - ✔✔a. commission plan. b. deferred pay plan. c. merit plan. d. variable wage plan. 220. Paying most or all of a salesperson's compensation in the form of commissions encourages the salesperson to focus on: - ✔✔a. closing the sale. b. developing customer goodwill. c. working as a team member. d. All of the above 221. Organizations that want employees to focus on efficiency may implement a ____ program. - ✔✔a. gainsharing b. stock option c. piecework d. commission 222. The Scanlon Plan is a variation of which type of incentive? - ✔✔a. Profit sharing b. Gainsharing c. Merit pay d. Individual 223. Improshare programs focus: - ✔✔a. equally on quality and quantity. b. strictly on quantity. c. strictly on quality. d. equally on quality, quantity, and overall company goals. 224. Team awards differ from group bonuses in that they: - ✔✔a. are typically plant-wide programs. b. become part of the employee's base pay. c. are more likely to use a broad range of performance measures. d. de-emphasize the standard-setting process. 225. The weakest link between employees' performance and pay is found in: - ✔✔a. individual incentive plans. b. merit pay plans. c. profit-sharing plans. d. stock ownership plans. 226. Which one of the following terms describes the right of company personnel to buy a certain number of shares of stock at a specified price? - ✔✔a. Stock options b. Employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) c. Profit-sharing d. Draw 227. In 2003, a company employee received an option to purchase the company's stock at $45 per share. If the stock is trading at $40 a share in 2005, the employee will most likely: - ✔✔a. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $5. b. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will increase in the future. c. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $40. d. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will decrease in the future. d. anyone living within the employee's household. 238. The purpose of floating holidays is to allow employees to: - ✔✔a. extend a Tuesday or Thursday holiday into a long weekend. b. decide which national holidays they wish to observe with pay. c. take time off for personal reasons (with the approval of the supervisor). d. allow international employees to observe legal holidays within their country of assignment. 239. Which one of the following is not true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985? - ✔✔a. Employers must permit employees to extend their health insurance coverage for up to 36 months following a "qualifying event." b. Qualified employees must have access to the same services as employees who have not lost their health insurance. c. Employers must continue to pay the cost of premiums for qualified employees. d. Qualifying events include, among others, termination (except for gross misconduct), a reduction in hours that leads to the loss of health insurance, and death. 240. Which one of the following is not true of health maintenance organizations (HMOs)? - ✔✔a. Costs tend to be less than for traditional health insurance. b. Services are provided on a prepaid basis. c. Employees may select physicians of their choice. d. Payment of physicians is on a flat-salary basis. 241. PPOs differ from HMOs in all but one of the following ways. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. PPOs provide benefits on a reduced-fee, per-call basis rather than on a prepaid basis. b. PPO employees are not required to use only preselected plan service providers, as in HMOs. c. PPOs are less expensive plans than HMOs. d. PPOs have more in common with traditional fee-for-service plans than do HMOs. 242. Which one of the following statements about flexible spending accounts is not true? - ✔✔a. They may be used to cover only employee (not dependents') health-care expenses. b. They permit pretax employee contributions. c. Contributions to the accounts may not exceed $5,000 per year and must be designated in advance. d. Funds must be used by the plan's yearend or they revert to the employer. 243. Which of the following is not true of employee wellness programs? - ✔✔a. The programs are preventive in nature. b. The programs manage health-care costs by reducing employees' needs for services. c. The programs are either active or passive, with active programs costing less than passive programs. d. The programs generally target specific health risks, such as high blood pressure, smoking, and obesity. 244. Which type of retirement plan guarantees a specified level of retirement income? - ✔✔a. 401(k) plan b. Defined contribution plan c. Money purchase plan d. Defined benefit plan 245. Which of the following statements concerning the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) is not true? - ✔✔a. It was created by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974. b. It provides a basic benefit, not necessarily a complete benefit replacement, if the employer experiences financial difficulties. c. It provides employee protection for both defined benefit and defined contribution pension plans. d. It is funded by a fee assessed on each plan participant. 246. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 accomplished all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Established rights relating to vesting b. Required employers to offer supplemental retirement plans c. Provided portability of retirement savings d. Increased the responsibility of pension plan trustees 247. Within a 401(k) plan, who has the responsibility for investing the employee's contributions? - ✔✔a. The employee b. The employer c. ERISA rules specify how investments must be made d. The financial institution handling the account 248. Which one of the following is true of defined contribution plans? - ✔✔a. They shift the investment risk to the employer. b. They present greater administrative challenges to employers. c. They require annual premium payments to the PBGC. d. They are especially prevalent in smaller companies. 249. A popular plan whereby employees contribute pretax dollars which are then matched by the employer is known as: - ✔✔a. money purchase plans. b. Section 401(k) plans. c. profit-sharing plans. d. ERISA benefit plans. 250. Employees who have met the enrollment and length-of-service requirements to receive a pension at retirement, regardless of whether they remained with the employer until that time, are said to be: - ✔✔a. vested. b. enrolled. c. members. d. expatriates. 251. Benefit plans that permit employees to choose the types and amounts of benefits they want are called: - ✔✔a. preferred provider plans. b. cafeteria-style plans. c. pay-or-play plans. d. flexible spending accounts. 252. Which one of the following is not an advantage of cafeteria-style plans? - ✔✔a. Employees generally become more aware of the value of company benefits. 262. The decline in union membership can be attributed to all but one of the following factors. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. The growing number of women and youth in the service sector of the economy. b. The growth among blue-collar workers, especially middle-aged workers. c. The growth in the number of employers fighting union organizing efforts. d. The large job growth in the South, where workers are less likely to join unions. 263. Which one of the following is not true of the effects of unions on company performance? - ✔✔a. As a result of the type of pay system favored by unions, employees are more inclined to cooperate than compete with one another. b. Most studies show that union workers are less productive than nonunion workers. c. On average, union members receive higher wages and more generous benefits than nonunion workers, and evidence shows that unions have a negative effect on profits. d. Union membership can reduce turnover by giving employees a route for resolving problems. 264. The pay system most frequently used in a union setting is a(n): - ✔✔a. incentive system. b. merit system. c. bonus system. d. seniority system. 265. What type of union security arrangement is considered to be the strongest for maintaining a viable and secure union membership organization?\ - ✔✔a. Agency shop b. Maintenance of membership c. Open shop d. Union shop 266. Which type of union security provision is illegal under provisions of the NLRA? - ✔✔a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Closed shops d. Open shops 267. Which one of the following union security provisions is permitted within a right-to-work state? - ✔✔a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Maintenance of membership d. None of the above 268. Which one of the following pieces of legislation actively supported collective bargaining by setting forth the rights of employees, including the right of self-organization, to form, join, or assist labor organizations, to bargain collectively through representatives of their own choosing, and to engage in other concerted activities for the purpose of collective bargaining? - ✔✔a. The Landrum-Griffin Act b. The Civil Rights Act c. The Wagner Act d. The Taft-Hartley Act 269. Protected activities under the NLRA include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Union organizing b. Joining a union, whether it is recognized by the employer or not c. Refraining from activity on behalf of the union d. Advance notice by employers of plant shutdowns 270. The National Labor Relations Board has the power to do all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Set aside the results of an election b. Levy punitive damages c. Order reinstatement of employees, with or without back pay d. Issue cease-and-desist orders to halt unfair labor practices 271. Under the NLRA, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of management except: - ✔✔a. spying or pretending to spy on union meetings. b. refusing to meet with employees' representatives because the employees are on strike. c. discussing the disadvantages of union membership with employees. d. threatening to close down a plant if organized by a union. 272. Under the Taft-Hartley Act, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of the union except: - ✔✔a. calling or visiting employees at home for the purpose of promoting union membership or activities. b. mass picketing in such numbers that nonstriking employees physically cannot enter the workplace. c. threatening employees with physical injury or job loss if they do not support union activities. d. terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, and the state mediation service (where one exists). 273. Which piece of legislation could be described as a Bill of Rights for union members because of its focus on the internal affairs of unions and their leaders? - ✔✔a. The Wagner Act b. The Taft-Hartley Act c. The Landrum-Griffin Act d. The Civil Service Reform Act 274. The purpose of the National Labor Relations Board is to: - ✔✔a. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company records regarding the negotiation and enforcement of all contract provisions and related labor-relation activities. b. conduct and certify representation elections, to determine the employees who are eligible to participate in organizing activities and bargaining units, and to prevent unfair labor practices. c. draft, hold a hearing on, and promulgate rules and regulations regarding union-management relations. d. All of the above 275. Which one of the following employee groups is most likely to be excluded by the NLRB from participating in organizing activities and being a member of the bargaining unit? - ✔✔a. Employees in multiple facilities within a single employer. b. Employees covered by multiple employers. c. Employees with certain supervisory duties. d. Employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees. 285. An individual who was born in the United States and is currently working in Spain for a company headquartered in Germany would be considered a: - ✔✔a. parent-country national. b. host-country national. c. third-country national. d. home-country national. 286. An individual who was born in Mexico and is currently working for an American company in Mexico is referred to as a: - ✔✔a. parent-country national. b. host-country national. c. third-country national. d. home-country national. 287. John, who works for a U.S.-based company, is on assignment for his company in Japan. He is known as: - ✔✔a. an expatriate. b. an inpatriate. c. a host-country national. d. a third-country national. 288. A firm that is currently shipping domestically produced items to other countries to be sold there is at what level of oversea participation? - ✔✔a. Exporting b. International c. Multinational d. Global 289. According to Hofstede's cultural dimensions, a culture where people are expected to look after their own interests and the interests of their immediate families is high in: - ✔✔a. power distance. b. masculinity. c. individualism. d. uncertainty avoidance. 290. According to research, the factor that most strongly influences whether an employee completes a foreign assignment is: - ✔✔a. flexibility. b. job knowledge. c. family situation. d. pay. 291. The process of preparing a person to return from a foreign assignment and assisting him or her with that reentry is known as: - ✔✔a. reorientation. b. expatriation. c. repatriation. d. validation. 292. A high-performance work system: - ✔✔a. consists of a group of exceptional employees whose productivity is aided by advances in technology. b. is a combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. c. is a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data. d. is a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization's human resources. 293. High-performance work systems emphasize: - ✔✔a. training. b. development. c. career management. d. All of the above 294. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Lower costs and improved profits b. High-quality goods and services c. Lower employee involvement and job satisfaction d. Higher employee productivity and efficiency 295. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - ✔✔a. Higher employee turnover b. Higher customer satisfaction c. Greater knowledge sharing d. Increased innovation 296. One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to: - ✔✔a. use an at-will-employment policy. b. design work so that it is performed by teams. c. increase pay levels above those of major competitors. d. employ a promotion-from-within policy. 297. An organization in which people continually expand their capacity to achieve the results they desire is known as a/an: - ✔✔a. e-learning organization. b. adaptive organization. c. learning organization. d. next-generation organization. 298. In high-performance organizations, employees tend to experience: - ✔✔a. burnout. b. job dissatisfaction. c. isolation. d. job satisfaction. 299. Because much human resource information is confidential, organizations engaging in e-HRM are: - ✔✔a. continuously limiting the amount and type of information made available to company personnel. b. increasingly placing company-specific information on a secure intranet with links to resources on the broader Internet. c. consolidating information into a single file and restricting access to this database to only top-level personnel within the company.