APM FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPER, Exams of Nursing

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APM FINAL EXAM 2024 WITH ACTUAL

CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED

DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPERTS

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Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process? a. Share the issue with stakeholders. b. Track the issue to closure. c. Escalate to the sponsor. d. Apply change control.

A

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1. Issues and incompatibility amongst team members
2. Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members
3. Co-location of team members in the same geographic area
4. Lack of accountability of team members a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4 c. 1, 3 & 4 d. 2, 3 & 4

C

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process? a. Recommendation. b. Justification. c. Planning. d. Continuous improvement

A

The purpose of quality assurance is to: a. provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. b. determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

c. inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes. d. define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

A

A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to: a. mitigate all possible risks to the project. b. identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project. c. control technological change during the project. d. consider team social roles in early stages of the project

B

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development a. 3 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 only d. 2, 3 and 4

D

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager? a. Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy. b. Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities. c. Achieving the project's success criteria. d. Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

C

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needs to consider which type of analysis? a. Budget. b. Stakeholder. c. Resource. d. Schedule

B

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor? a. Creating a project cost breakdown structure. b. Authoring the project management plan. c. Creating a project work breakdown structure. d. Owning the project business case.

D

Portfolio management includes prioritising: a. projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives. b. projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

c. projects and programmes over business as usual. d. projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

A

Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team? a. Creating an exclusive environment. b. Providing clear roles and responsibilities. c. Promoting openness and honesty. d. Developing a trusting relationship.

A

One difference between a project and business as usual is: a. projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits. b. projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities. c. projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not. d. projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones

B

The purpose of project progress reporting is to: a. ensure a simpler critical path. b. enable the tracking of project deliverables. c. ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables. d. provide an increased total float.

B

Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel? a. Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs. b. Supporting the production of comparative estimates. c. Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget. d. Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle

D

One advantage of virtual communications is: a. that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions. b. it's easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team. c. access to a wider resource pool for the project. d. that the project team will always be co-located.

C

Which technique could be used by a project manager when resources are limited? a. Resource aggregation. b. Resource estimation. c. Resource levelling. d. Resource expansion

C

The main aim of quality management is to: a. prepare a high-quality management plan. b. ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards. c. validate the use of consistent standards. d. determine whether to accept change requests.

B

Which of the following is a purpose of issue management? a. To stop issues occurring within the project. b. To address and resolve the issues that occur. c. To address and resolve uncertainty. d. To reschedule activities to reduce costs

B

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the: a. components of each product. b. budget of each product. c. benefits of each product. d. risks of each product.

A

The definition of benefits management includes which key activities? a. Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits. b. Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits. c. Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits. d. Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits

C

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false? a. Defines the sequence of activities. b. Considers work calendars and time contingency. c. Provides a baseline for safety considerations. d. Quantifies the required resources.

C

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'? a. The starting point for creating a resource histogram. b. The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure. c. The starting point for the monitoring of project risks. d. The basis for progress monitoring.

D

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process? a. Evaluation. b. Identification. c. Registration. d. Justification.

B

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by: a. identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest. b. ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables. c. justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders. d. providing information to all stakeholders.

A

Which of the following is a project? a. Introducing a new information technology system. b. Operating a national rail network. c. Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces. d. Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

A

One purpose of a typical project business case is to: a. carry out earned value analysis. b. allocate resources to the project. c. analyse cost-benefit of the project. d. plan project work packages

C

One disadvantage of physical communication is: a. its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication. b. that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members. c. it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project. d. that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

A

One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures: a. the power and influence of stakeholders is understood. b. that all communication is delivered face to face. c. your message is understood. d. clear reporting lines for the project.

C

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

a. a hybrid. b. an extended. c. a reduced. d. a combined.

A

The purpose of project management is to: a. organise management plans. b. keep all stakeholders happy. c. control change initiatives. d. effect beneficial change.

D

Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project? a. Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope. b. Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope. c. The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control. d. Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project

D

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue: a. must be recorded but a risk does not. b. is an uncertain event but a risk is not. c. is a certain event but a risk is not. d. always affects scope but a risk does not

C

Communication includes:

1. exchanging information
2. managing stakeholders
3. confirming there is a shared understanding
4. building relationships within your team a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 4 only

C

A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate? a. Shaper. b. Monitor evaluator.

c. Specialist. d. Co-ordinator

D

An extended project life cycle can be defined as: a. an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle. b. an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle. c. a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed. d. a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

B

One aspect of quality planning is to: a. plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board. b. provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame. c. specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose. d. confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication

C

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management? a. Define outputs. b. Identify outputs. c. Share outputs. d. Control outputs

C

Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles and iterative life cycles? a. Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project. b. In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline. c. Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review. d. Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review

A

Which of the following defines the term 'risk'? a. The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives. b. A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme. c. Scope creep within an uncontrolled project. d. The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

A

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they: a. contribute to the project's procurement strategy. b. help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

c. provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied. d. determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

B

Which of the following defines the term 'issue'? a. A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme. b. A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project. c. A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives. d. A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team

A

Which of the following define leadership?

1. Ability to establish vision and direction
2. Developing team skills that enhance project performance
3. Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success
4. Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose a. 1, 2 & 4 b. 1, 2 & 3 c. 2, 3 & 4 d. 1, 3 & 4

D

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

C

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing: a. stakeholder engagement. b. funding for the project. c. buy in from the project sponsor. d. goods and services required for the project.

D

Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis? a. Total and free float. b. Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities. c. Project completion time. d. Cost-benefit analysis.

D

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce: a. the cost of a do-nothing option. b. an analytical estimate. c. high-level project costs. d. a comparative estimate.

B

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle? a. Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition. b. Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment. c. Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition. d. Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept

C

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together? a. Storming. b. Forming. c. Norming. d. Performing

C

Which of the following is a definition of project management? a. A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable. b. Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives. c. The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specific objectives for change. d. The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.

C

Which of the following defines quality? a. The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes. b. The value for money of a product. c. The satisfaction of the stakeholders. d. The thoroughness of the management plan.

A

Quality control verifies that: a. the project follows appropriate processes. b. project outputs are delivered on time.

c. the project follows appropriate governance. d. project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

D

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether: a. the response to a risk is valid. b. a project is viable in line with the business case. c. the project delivered against the success criteria. d. lessons were effectively learned during the project.

B

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they: a. indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met. b. ensure adequate resource allocation. c. indicate what is important in supplier selection. d. ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

A

One purpose of risk management is to: a. adapt the plan to resolve problems. b. minimise threats and maximise opportunities. c. continually improve the project teams' efficiency. d. manage variations in a controlled way

A

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process? a. Verification. b. Request. c. Closure. d. Justification

C

When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process? a. Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented. b. Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project. c. The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations. d. Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

D

The purpose of a risk register is to provide a: a. structured process for risk identification. b. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

c. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks. d. record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

D

Which of the following is a part of change control? a. Requests for change are realised. b. Requests for change are mitigated. c. Requests for change are evaluated. d. Requests for change are resolved.

C

The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show: a. significant events. b. resource constraints. c. task dependencies. d. critical path highlights.

A

Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 4 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 2 and 4 only

B

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to: a. the project team. b. the project stakeholders. c. the project board. d. the project sponsor

B

Which one of the following statements is true? a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget. b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded. c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations. d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

C

Project risk management is best described as: a. managing responses to threats. b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities. c. planning responses to threats. d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

D

Which one of the following best describes a project issue? a. A major problem that requires formal escalation. b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis. c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur. d. An opportunity that occurs through change control.

A

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine: a. overall project duration. b. project cost estimating. c. the project management plan. d. sub-contractor's responsibilities

A

Which one of the following statements is true? a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost. b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality. c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost. d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

A

Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)? a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project. b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies. c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover. d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

A

Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria? a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests. b. The date by which the project is to be completed. c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications. d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

D

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? a. Staff appraisals. b. Management buy in. c. Milestone achievement. d. Master schedule.

C

Which one of the following statements is true? a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle. b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle. c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle. d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

A

Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)? a. The project team. b. The chief executive. c. The project manager. d. The project support office

11

Which one of the following best describes users? a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project. b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs. c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure. d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

B

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager: a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time. b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised. c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits. d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

B

A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter? a. Benefits. b. Quality. c. Tolerance. d. Controls.

B

Which one of the following statements is true? a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved. b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects. c. Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual. d. A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

C

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"? a. Teamwork. b. Motivation. c. Management. d. Leadership

D

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications? a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media. b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs. c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project. d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

B

In project management, the term quality is best defined as: a. inspection, testing and measurement. b. reviews and audits. c. fitness for purpose of deliverables. d. professionally-bound project reports.

C

The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to: a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks. b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project. c. identify and determine the responses to the project risks. d. identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects

B

Which one of the following is not considered in resource management? a. Identifying resources. b. Influencing resources. c. Assigning resources to activities. d. Matching resources to the schedule.

B

Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure? a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated. b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome. c. Management costs of the project do not increase. d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

A

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? a. The life cycle phases. b. The logical order of tasks. c. The scope of the project. d. Project costs.

C

Project reporting can best be defined as: a. informing stakeholders about the project. b. storing and archiving of project information. c. gathering stakeholder feedback. d. collecting project information.

A

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate? a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle. b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now. c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress. d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

A

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the: a. Cost Breakdown Structure. b. procurement strategy. c. business case. d. Project Management Plan.

C

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board? a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve. b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor. c. To manage the project team in all daily activities. d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

B

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to: a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project. b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development. c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project. d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

A

Which of the following best describes a project environment? a. The type of organisation concerned with implementation. b. The structured method used to control the project. c. The context within which a project is undertaken. d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

C

Which one of the following statements best describes a project? a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change. b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work. c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome. d. A project is a method of planning work.

C

The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the: a. communication management plan. b. stakeholder mapping grid. c. document distribution schedule. d. responsibility assignment matrix.

A

An important aim of a post-project review is to: a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule. b. capture learning and document it for future usage. c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor. d. establish that project benefits have been identified.

B

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called: a. quality assurance. b. quality planning. c. quality control. d. quality audit.

A

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false? a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks. b. It facilitates the risk appetite. c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses. d. It facilitates the recording of risks.

B

Which one of the following statements best defines procurement? a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project. b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs. c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product. d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.

D

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process? a. Evaluate the change. b. Advise the sponsor. c. Update the change log. d. Update the project plan.

A

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to: a. define the terms of reference of the project manager. b. define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities. c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel. d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

D

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify: a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project. b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project. c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project. d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

D

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria? a. Actively seeking some senior management support. b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged. c. Achievement of milestones. d. A motivated project team.

B

Comparative estimating uses: a. current data from similar projects.

b. historic data from all projects. c. historic data from similar projects. d. current data from all projects.

C

Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder? a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead. b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project. c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project. d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

B

The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to: a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options. b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager's activity. c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project. d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

C

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk? a. Steering group. b. Risk owner. c. Project sponsor. d. Project manager

C

When a project has completed the handover and closure phase: a. the project deliverables are ready for commissioning. b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users. c. the project documentation must be disposed of. d. the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised

D

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation? a. It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager. b. It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change. c. It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team. d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

A

A key aspect of managing a project involves: a. defining which operational systems to put in place. b. identifying routine tasks. c. ensuring ongoing operations are maintained. d. planning to achieve defined objectives.

D

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork? a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal. b. Developing skills that will enhance project performance. c. Gathering the right people together to work on a project. d. Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

A

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a: a. gate review. b. feasibility study. c. milestone review. d. evaluation review

A

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log? a. A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue. b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status. c. A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues. d. A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

B

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to: a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately. b. identify all project risks and transfer them immediately. c. identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project. d. satisfy the organisation's project management process.

A

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called? a. A Gantt chart. b. A critical path network. c. A product flow diagram. d. A Pareto chart.

A

Configuration management is best described as: a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules. b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables. c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation. d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

D

A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to: a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

A

The accuracy of an estimate should: a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle. b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle. c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle. d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

B

Which one of the following best defines a benefit? a. A positive result of stakeholder management. b. The successful management of a project. c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables. d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

C

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)? a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor. b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case. c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager. d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

D

Who are project team members primarily accountable to? a. External stakeholders. b. The end users. c. The finance director. d. The project manager

D

The phases of a project life cycle are: a. starting, planning, control and closing. b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure. c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations. d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

B

A portfolio can best be defined as: a. a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation. b. a group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation. c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation. d. a range of products and services offered by an organisation.

A

Which one of the following best describes project management? a. Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects. b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects. c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time. d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

D

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project? a. Work Breakdown Structure. b. Organisational Breakdown Structure. c. Product Breakdown Structure. d. Responsibility assignment structure.

B

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers: a. at the post-project review. b. not more frequently than monthly. c. throughout the project. d. only when assessing project risk.

C

Which one of the following best characterises a project? a. An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant. b. A transient endeavour carried out to meet specific objectives. c. Continuous improvement of the company procedures. d. Manufacturing components for a new technology.

B

What is meant by the term programme management? a. The management of a group of projects or activities that have a common business aim. b. The line management of a team of programme managers. c. The management of a functional area used by a number of different projects. d. The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan

A

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference: a. the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks. b. the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign a cost to each resource. c. the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products. d. the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

A

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle? a. Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out. b. Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout. c. Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout. d. Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

C

The main purpose of configuration management is to: a. minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project. b. ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business. c. provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings. d. maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

C

The accuracy of an estimate should: a. decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle. b. increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle. c. stay constant throughout the project. d. vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

B

What would be the effect if the resources required for a project's critical path activities were insufficient? a. It would reduce the project duration. b. It would extend the project duration.

c. The quality of the deliverables would suffer. d. Resource smoothing should be applied to the critical path.

B

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope? a. Scope is detailed in the business case. b. Scope is the total work content of a project. c. Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes. d. Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

B

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints: a. definition and delivery. b. time, cost and quality. c. cost and scope. d. budget, spend and contingency

B

Which one of the following statements is true? a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved. b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects. c. Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual. d. A project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

C

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid? a. A means of stakeholder identification. b. It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan. c. To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project. d. It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

C

Which one of the following best describes a programme? a. A group of projects collected together that have a common purpose. b. A group of projects collected together for management convenience. c. A group of projects collected together because of their use of common resources. d. A group of projects collected together because of their relationship to business-as-usual.

A

Which one of the following statements is true? a. Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project. b. Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project. c. Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project. d. Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

B

Which one of the following is a generic project management process? a. Risk management. b. Learning and closing. c. Staff appraisal. d. Quality management.

B

Portfolio management could best be described as: a. the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities. b. the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced. c. the identification of the benefits (of a project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits. d. the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business- as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

D

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring the implementation of formal change control? a. Key stakeholders. b. The Project Manager. c. The project sponsor. d. The project team.

B

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be: a. accepted, rejected or deferred. b. accepted and the project plan updated. c. sent to the project sponsor for approval. d. assessed to determine its potential impact.

D

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context? a. The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders. b. Technical, social or political considerations. c. The environment in which the project is being carried out. d. The sequence and dependencies of activities.

D

5 A --> 5 B --> 5D --> 5F `-->4C --> 4E --^ The total float of activity E in the above diagram is: a. 2 b. 1

c. 0 d. 4

A

The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to: a. define all the products that the project will produce. b. define precisely what resources will be used on the project. c. detail all the products in order of priority. d. map out the key project elements identified in the business plan

A

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called? a. A Gantt chart. b. A critical path network. c. A product flow diagram. d. A Pareto chart.

A

Controlling or influencing project success factors will: a. increase the likelihood of a successful project. b. ensure senior management support. c. measure progress towards a successful conclusion. d. ensure project completion.

A

Which one of the following is NOT a project change? a. An approved omission from the agreed project scope. b. The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project. c. A requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs. d. The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

B

Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship? a. Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need. b. Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity. c. Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost. d. Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities.

B

Project success criteria are best defined as: a. the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.