Army Health System (AHS) and Medical Functions, Exams of Advanced Education

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AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam With 100%

Correct Answers 2023

The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - Correct Answer-General threat and health threat What is a health threat? - Correct Answer-composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc What is health Service Support (HSS)? - Correct Answer-All support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - Correct Answer-Casualty Care: treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - Correct Answer-Measures to promote, improve, or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers. What is involved in Force Health Protection? - Correct Answer--Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support What is the Army health System? - Correct Answer-All encompassing term to describe both the HSS and FHP aspects of AMEDD support. What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? - Correct Answer-Care Under Fire Tactical Field Care Tactical Evacuation

What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? - Correct Answer-1. Conformity

2. Proximity
3. Flexibility
4. Mobility
5. Continuity
6. Control What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? - Correct Answer-Role 1: BN aid station and below -Immediate life saving measures Role 2: Medical company -X-ray, lab, dental, patient hold, pharmacy, advanced trauma Role 3: Field hospital -Resuscitation, wound surgery, postoperative treatment Role 4: Definitive Care -Full spectrum of definitive medical care Is sequential evacuation necessary? (Role 1 > Role 2 > Role 3 > Role 4) - Correct Answer-No. For example you can go from Role 1 to Role 3 What is the role of the command surgeon? - Correct Answer-Special staff officer that plans and monitors execution of the AHS mission Ensures all Medical Functions and operational planning factors are planned and synchronized in operation plans and orders Not a commander. May recommend policy/procedures but can't give orders except through unit plans and orders What are the primary tasks of mission command functions? - Correct Answer-Mission command Communications and computers Task organization Medical intelligence Technical supervision Regional focus

What are the 3 mission command organizations? - Correct Answer-Medical command (Deployment support)- medical force provider Medical brigade (Support)-provide mission command of all attached/assigned AHS units Medical Battalion (Multifunctional)-provide mission command, administrative assistance, logistical support, and technical supervision capability What are the responsibilities of the medical commander? - Correct Answer-Exercises mission command (authority and direction) over his subordinate medical resources What are the responsibilities of the command surgeon? - Correct Answer-At all levels of command, a command surgeon is designated. This AMEDD officer is a special staff officer charged with planning for and executing the AHS mission What are the responsibilities of the line commander? - Correct Answer-The commander ensures health promotion program. This encompasses the assets of educational, environmental, and AHS support services What is the Law of Land Warfare inspired by? What does it do? - Correct Answer-The desire to diminish the evils of war -Protects combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering -Safeguards certain fundamental human rights of persons who fall into the hands of the enemy, particularly detainees/enemy prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians -Facilitates the restoration of peace What are possible operation variables? (Known as PMESII-PT) - Correct Answer- Political Military Economic Social Infrastructure Information Physical environment Time Name the possible mission variables. (Known as METT-TC) - Correct Answer-Mission Enemy Terrain and weather Troops and support available Time available Civil considerations

What is task organization? - Correct Answer-A tool used by commanders to tailor their forces to specific mission requirements. Task-organization is a temporary grouping of forces designed to accomplish a particular mission What are the four supporting tasks to decisive operations? - Correct Answer-Offensive tasks Defensive tasks Stability tasks Defense support of civil authorities What is counseling? - Correct Answer-The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate their demonstrated performance and potential What are the 3 types of counseling? - Correct Answer-1. Event- for specific event/situation, and precede or follow events like a school or duty performance

2. Performance-review of duty performance over certain period
3. Professional growth-planning for accomplishment of goals What are the approaches to counseling? - Correct Answer-1. Nondirective approach- •Leaders use experiences, insight and judgment to assist subordinates in developing solutions, explain expectations
4. Directive approach- •Leader does most of the talking and tells subordinate what to do and when to do it. Works best to correct simple problems
5. Combined approach- •Leader uses techniques from both approaches, adjusting them to fit what's best for the subordinate. Emphasize planning and decision making What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Nondirective approach? - Correct Answer-Pros: Encourages maturity Encourages open communication Develops personal responsibility Cons: More time-consuming Requires greatest counselor skills What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Directive approach? - Correct Answer-Pros: Good for people who need clear, concise direction Allows counselors to use their experience Quickest method

Cons: Discourages subordinates to be part of the solution Tends to treat symptoms, not problems Discourages free talk Solution is the counselor's What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Combined approach? - Correct Answer-Pros: Encourages maturity and open communication Allows counselors to use their experience Moderately quick Cons: May take too much time for some situations What are the stages of the counseling process? - Correct Answer-1. Identify the need for counseling

2. Prepare for counseling (7 areas)
3. Conduct the counseling session 4.Follow-up What are areas involved in preparing for a counseling (Stage 2)? - Correct Answer- 1)Select a suitable place (i.e. noise, distraction, etc.) 2)Schedule the counseling 3)Notify subordinate 4)Organize information 5)Outline the counseling 6)Plan the counseling strategy 7)Establish the right atmosphere What are the 4 basic components during the counseling session (Stage 3)? - Correct Answer-1.Opening 2.Discussion 3.Plan of action 4.Record and close What form is used for counselings? - Correct Answer-DA Form 4856 What are the different types of promotions and their authorities? - Correct Answer- Decentralized (Chapter 2): To SPC/CPL and below Authority: Unit commander Semi-centralized (Chapter 3): To SGT and SSG Authority: Battalion Commander Centralized (Chapter 4): To SFC-SGM

Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC) What are the categories of individual awards? - Correct Answer-Decorations Good Conduct Medal Service Medals / Service Ribbons Badges / Tabs Certificates / Letters Foreign Awards What do service (campaign) medals and ribbons denote? - Correct Answer-Honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas. What are the different types of badges? - Correct Answer-Combat Identification Special skill Marksmanship When are wartime decorations authorized? - Correct Answer-For wartime valor, service or achievement: What is the form used for the recommendation for an award? - Correct Answer-DA Form 638 The Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star and Legion of Merit fall under what category of awards? - Correct Answer- Decorations Who is the policy proponent for the Army decorations, awards and honors program? - Correct Answer-G- What are the 2 basic categories of evaluation reports? - Correct Answer-Mandatory and optional What are the types of mandatory reports? - Correct Answer-Annual- Done when 1 calendar year of duty is completed Change of Rater-Rater changed Relief for Cause- Removal of individual based on conduct Change of Duty- (officers only) When rated officer has changed of principal duty Extended annual Departure on TDY/Special duty Officer Non-select for Promotion Initial tour of extended active duty

HRC directed What are the types of optional reports? - Correct Answer-Complete the Record- intended to update individual's file with performance and potential info Senior Rater (SR) option reports- When a change in SR occurs, the SR may direct that a report be made on any Soldier whom they senior rate. Special situations: Soldier assigned to WTU Rater Option Report When must the scope of a rated soldier's duty description be discussed? - Correct Answer-Within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period At a minimum, a counseling will include: - Correct Answer-Duty description and performance objectives to attain. Relationship of duty description and objectives with the organization's mission. What are the senior rater's rating chain responsibilities? - Correct Answer-Ensure Rater counsels the rated Soldier throughout the rating period Review and initial Counseling and Support Forms at the beginning and during rating period Use all reasonable means to become familiar with Soldier's performance. Ensure rater's portion is fair, accurate and candid. Assess and evaluate the abilities and potential of the rated Soldier relative to his/her peers. When is a supplementary reviewer required? - Correct Answer-When the senior rater is a 2LT-1LT, WO1-CW2, or SFC-1SG/MSG; in certain situations What are the primary and secondary functions of evaluation reports? - Correct Answer- Primary: Assist in making personnel management decisions Secondary: Encourage leader professional development Department of the Army Evaluations focus on a Soldier's potential based on what three factors? - Correct Answer-1. Duty performance

2. Army requirements for soldiers
3. Leadership qualifications

What is leave and who is the approval authority? - Correct Answer-An authorized absence from duty and is essential to the health, welfare, and morale of all Soldiers of a unit Authority: unit commander What are the two types of leave accrual? - Correct Answer-Normal leave accrual- AD Soldiers earn 30 days leave per year with pay and allowances at a rate of 2.5 days per month Special leave accrual- Gives relief to Soldiers that aren't allowed leave when undergoing lengthy deployment or during periods of hostility -Authorized for Soldiers who served in an area qualifying for hostile fire or imminent danger pay for at least 120 continuous days. How many leave days are soldiers allowed to carry forward at the end of a fiscal year? - Correct Answer-Up to 90 days -60 days normal leave carry over plus 30 days special leave accrual What is chargeable leave? - Correct Answer-Leave that is subtracted from a soldier's accrued leave balance What is ordinary leave? - Correct Answer-Taken by a Soldier who is at a permanent duty station and wishes to take time off from work What is transition leave? - Correct Answer-Taken by a Soldier who will be separating from the service by either ETS, Release from Active Duty (REFRAD) or retiring What is emergency leave? - Correct Answer-Used for family emergencies. Immediate family includes: Parents, including Stepparents, Spouse, Children, including Stepchildren, Sisters, Brothers, only living blood relative and a person in loco parentis What is Permanent Change of Station (PCS)? - Correct Answer-When a Soldier is reassigned from one duty station to another, PCS leave can be taken before or after arrival at the new unit What is leave in Conjunction with Temporary Duty (TDY)? - Correct Answer-Leave taken en route to or from a Soldier's temporary duty station. What is Nonchargeable leave? - Correct Answer-Absence that is NOT charged against a Soldier's accrued leave balance: What is Convalescent leave? - Correct Answer-Granted to a Soldier to expedite a member's return to full duty after an illness or injury.

What is Permissive Temporary Duty (PTDY)? - Correct Answer-Taken by a Soldier to attend a semi-official activity. What is Excess leave? - Correct Answer-Granted for emergencies or unusual circumstances. Advanced leave is normally expended prior to using excess leave -Becomes an indebtedness when there is a negative leave balance -No pay and allowances What is Regular Pass? - Correct Answer-A short, nonchargeable, authorized absence from post or place of duty during normal off duty hours -Can't exceed 3 days What is a Special Pass? - Correct Answer-A short nonchargeable authorized absence from post or place of duty. It may be granted as a 3-day or 4-day Special Pass. Is Emergency Leave for death of an immediate family member a chargeable or non- chargeable leave? - Correct Answer-Nonchargeable What is a Flag and what are the 2 categories? - Correct Answer-Flag: Suspension of Favorable Personnel actions Transferable: Flag may be transferred to another unit Non-transferable: May not be transferred to another unit What are examples of transferable flags? - Correct Answer--APFT failures -Soldiers in Weight Control Program -Punishment phase of adverse action What are examples of non-transferable flags? - Correct Answer--Adverse actions (charges, investigation, court-martial, AWOL) -Involuntary separation or discharge -Removal from selection list -Referred OER or Relief for Cause NCOER -CDR's investigation -Failure to provide + maintain Family Care Plan -Security violation -Drug/alcohol offenses What is the effective date of a flag? - Correct Answer--The date that the circumstance(s) requiring the flag occurred, not the date the flag was initiated (Unless otherwise specified) -The date the commander signs the intent to separate notification memorandum -The date HQDA initiates an involuntary separation action

True or False. A flag may NOT be initiated based on referral, screening or enrollment into the Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP). - Correct Answer-True When can a flag be removed? - Correct Answer-As soon as the Soldier is released without charges, the charges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed. A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier either passes the APFT or meets weight standards. What areas can a failure with the Mortuary Affairs (MA) mission or disrespectful handling of remains negatively impact? - Correct Answer-•Troop morale within the losing unit •National public support •Coalition support •Local national support •Enemy treatment of remains and/or prisoners What does full accounting (of remains) require? - Correct Answer--Proper identification -Explanation as to the cause and manner of death Contingency fatality operations occur at what levels in a theater of operation? - Correct Answer-All levels What are the 3 phases of search and recovery operations? - Correct Answer-Combat, Post Combat and area clearance. What are PADD, PE, and PERE? What is their order after search and recovery? - Correct Answer-PADD: Person Authorized to Direct Disposition PE: Personal effects PERE: Person Eligible to Receive Effects Search/recovery > remains returned to PADD > PE returned to PERE What is involved in joint mortuary affairs? - Correct Answer-•Initial Search and Recovery starts with the unit personnel •Tentative Identification •Coordinated Evacuation •CBRNE Decontamination (if needed) •Personal Effects

What are the 3 distinct operations of the Army Mortuary Affairs Program? - Correct Answer-1. Current Death (Used in Garrison) -Always in peacetime -When possible in conflicts

2. Concurrent return -In conflict from a theater of operations to a servicing mortuary through MA channels -Ship PE to PE Depot for shipment to PERE
3. Temporary Internment -Temporary interment/disinterment of human remains. Only when authorized by the responsible commander during major military operations -No disposition of PE Where are Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP) located in theater? - Correct Answer-Always co-located on bases with Role 3 facilities and usually co-located with Role 2 facilities (usually operate as close to the airstrip as possible) Where is the Theater Mortuary Evacuation Point (TMEP) - Correct Answer-At a major Aerial Port of Embarkation Where is the port of entry mortuary facility? - Correct Answer-Dover AFB By when do remains have to reach MACP, TMEP and Dover AFB? - Correct Answer- Within 24 hrs By when do remains have to reach the deceased's family? - Correct Answer-Within 72- 96 hrs What are examples of tentative and positive identifications for remains? - Correct Answer-Tentative -DD Form 565 Positive (Done at Dover): -DNA test -Dental records -Finger printing What is the role of a Summary Courts-Martial Officer (SMCO)? - Correct Answer--Must be appointed within 48 hrs -Should be someone detached from Soldier -Separate distasteful items and record that they were destroyed (Maintain a good memory of the Soldier) -Inventory all PE with the unit or in quarters -Accurate documentation on DD Form 1076 -Utilize MA NCO at BDE

-Also used for Soldiers evacuated from theater True or False? NEVER send PE straight to family from theater (everything goes through PE channels to PE Depot) - Correct Answer-True What actions should be done in post mortem care? - Correct Answer--Place body in Human Remains Pouch (cover with poncho or blanket if not available) -Place body in supine position, close eyes -Tie wrists together, may need to apply bandage to lower jaw -Provider may be asked to confirm death -Consult with mortuary affairs -Complete documentation and pass along PE, regardless of condition -DO NOT remove adjuncts from body -Ensure proper identification -Place body in shaded cool area How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - Correct Answer- -Great toe -Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - Correct Answer-Dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation What are the 8 steps of Troop Leading Procedures? - Correct Answer-1. Receive the mission

2. Issue warning order
3. Make a tentative plan
4. Initiate movement
5. Conduct reconnaissance
6. Complete the plan
7. Issue the order
8. Supervise and refine How can step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) occur? - Correct Answer-It may begin when the initial WARNO or OPORD arrives from higher headquarters or when a leader anticipates a new mission What actions should be done during step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission)? - Correct Answer--Perform an initial assessment of the situation utilizing PMESII-PT and METT- TC -Ensure that all subordinate echelons have sufficient time for planning and preparation

What is PMESII-PT? - Correct Answer-The operational variables fundamental to developing a comprehensive understanding of the operational environment. -Political -Military -Economic -Social -Information -Infrastructure -Physical Environment -Time What information is given in a WARNORD and in what format is it written? - Correct Answer-Unit mission and leader's timeline in as much detail as possible Follow 5 paragraph OPORD format What is involved in step 3 of TLPs (Make a Tentative Plan)? - Correct Answer-This step combines the MDMP steps 2 through 6: mission analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, and COA approval. -Leaders perform mission analysis through METT-TC What is OAKOC? - Correct Answer-A method to analyze terrain and weather -Observation and fields of fire -Avenues of approach -Key and decisive terrain -Obstacles -Cover and concealment What are the 6 characteristics of civil considerations (ASCOPE)? - Correct Answer-- Areas: localities that are not normally militarily significant -Structures: how its location, functions, and capabilities can support the operation. -Capabilities: those required to save, sustain, or enhance life, in that priority. -Organizations: are nonmilitary groups or institutions in the AO. -People: people can affect a military operation positively, negatively, or neutrally. -Events: routine, cyclical, planned, or spontaneous activities that significantly affect organizations, people, and military operations

What is involved in step 4 of TLPs (Initiate Movement)? - Correct Answer-Leaders conduct any movement directed by higher headquarters or deemed necessary to continue mission preparation or position the unit for execution What is involved in step 5 of TLPs (Conduct Reconaissance)? - Correct Answer- Leaders personally observe the AO for the mission prior to execution. -Minimum action necessary is a thorough map reconnaissance -Different types of reconnaissance: map, terrain model, aerial photo, ground What is involved in step 6 of TLPs (Complete the Plan)? - Correct Answer-Leaders incorporate the results of reconnaissance into their selected COA to complete the plan or order. -Leaders make final coordination with adjacent units and higher headquarters before issuing the order. What is involved in step 7 of TLPs (Issue the Order)? - Correct Answer-The ideal location for issuing the order is a point in the AO with a view of the objective and other aspects of the terrain. -Are clear, complete, brief, timely allow initiative, authoritative -Use terrain model during brief What is involved in step 8 of TLPs (Supervise and refine)? - Correct Answer-Leaders monitor mission preparations, refine the plan, coordinate with adjacent units, and supervise and assess preparations -Supervise subordinates and inspect equipment -Conduct rehearsals What are the 4 types of rehearsals? - Correct Answer-1. Back brief's (Select people in the platoon).

2. Combined arms rehearsal.
3. Support rehearsal (Aid and Litter Team).
4. Battle drill or SOP rehearsal Who exercises personnel management authority over AMEDD officers (except general officers) in their special branches? - Correct Answer-The Surgeon General What are the functions of OPMS? - Correct Answer-•Accessions •Assignments process and considerations •Strength Management •Professional Development What are the 6 AMEDD Corps branches? - Correct Answer-•Medical Corps (MC) •Dental Corps (DC) •Veterinary Corps (VC)

•Nurse Corps (AN) •Medical Specialist Corps (SP) •Medical Service Corps (MS) How are Medical Officer assignments dictated? - Correct Answer--Dictated by Army needs -Army Medical Department Officer Distribution Plan -Availability -Professional Development Needs -Education and Training -Other considerations -Personal preferences and compassionate factors Strength management is the responsibility of? - Correct Answer--AMEDD branch -OTSG personnel -AMEDD Personnel Proponent Directorate (APPD) What are the 2 categories of separations within strength management and their examples? - Correct Answer-1. Voluntary separations •Voluntary Separation Incentive (VSI) •Special Separation Bonus (SSB) •Voluntary Early Release Program (VERP)

2. Involuntary separations •Selective Early Retirement Board (SERB) •Reduction in Force (RIF) What is classified as professional development? - Correct Answer-Officer Education System (OES) -BOLC, CCC, ILE, etc. Professional military education Military training -EFMB, airborne, Ranger, TCMC, etc. What form is used for Officer Evaluation Reports? - Correct Answer-DA Form 67-10-X •DA Form 67-10-1: Company Grade (2LT-CPT & WO1-CW2) •DA Form 67-10-2: Field Grade (MAJ-LTC & CW3-CW5) •DA Form 67-10-3: Strategic Leaders (COL) •DA Form 67-10-4: Brigadier General What form is used for Academic Evaluation Reports? - Correct Answer-DA Form 1059 What form is used for the officer record brief? - Correct Answer-DA Form 4037

Who are ORBs centrally managed by? - Correct Answer-Officer records Branch -updated through personnel systems Who's responsibility is it to update an ORB? - Correct Answer-The soldier's responsibility What is a decentralized promotion? - Correct Answer-•2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW •Fully qualified criteria •No numerical limits •Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5) What is a centralized promotion? - Correct Answer-•Beyond 1LT and CW •Best qualified criteria •Numerical limits •Fully qualified versus Best qualified -Best qualified are selected for promotion first •Order of merit list What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - Correct Answer-ACC: Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards -Special pays, depending on the specialty What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - Correct Answer--Official Military Personnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - Correct Answer-At least five active-duty officers (MAJ and above) What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - Correct Answer- Primary Zone (PZ) - all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified

What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - Correct Answer-Provide information to DA selection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions. The rating chain usually consists of who? - Correct Answer--Rated officer -Rater -Intermediate rater* -Senior rater -Supplementary reviewer* Commander is responsible What are the responsibilities of the rated officer? - Correct Answer-Meet with rater within 30 days Initiate discussion of duties and objectives Assess and update objectives Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form) What are the qualifications of a rater? - Correct Answer-•Immediate supervisor •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank -Command position exception Normally must serve 90 days What are the responsibilities of the rater? - Correct Answer--Provide rater and senior rater support forms -Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days -Counsel quarterly throughout rating period -Assess the performance of the rated officer -Verify height/weight and APFT data What are the qualifications for an intermediate rater? - Correct Answer-•Between rater/senior rater •Limited to special branches and dual supervision situations •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer •Must serve minimum of 60 days •Technical expert What are the responsibilities of the intermediate rater? - Correct Answer-•Familiar with rated officer's performance •Provide input on DA Form 67-10-1A •Provide objective, comprehensive evaluation of performance and potential

What are the qualifications for a senior rater? - Correct Answer-•Senior to rater and intermediate rater •U.S. Armed Forces Officer or U.S. Government Employee •Minimum grade: -Military: O-4 (officer) or E-7 (NCO) -Civilian: GS- Must serve minimum of 60 days What are the responsibilities of the senior rater? - Correct Answer-•Ensure support form is distributed •Review DA Form 67-10-1A •Ensure rater counsels rated officer •Evaluate officer's potential relative to peers •Conducts final review of report Refer reports as required When must a supplementary review be conducted? - Correct Answer-In instances when there are no uniformed Army designated raters for the Rated Officer, an Army Officer within the organization will be designated as a Uniformed Army Advisor and perform a supplementary review. -Applies in joint and multi-national environments The OER support form is mandatory for what ranks? - Correct Answer-COL and below What are the attributes and competencies evaluated in OERs and NCOERs? - Correct Answer-Attributes: Character, presence, intellect Competencies: Leads, develops, achieves Raters have the opportunity to comment on what possible assignments? - Correct Answer-Broadening and operational What is the rater's assessment based on? - Correct Answer-Assessment based on performance; no comment on potential -Focused on performance in line with field grade competencies and attributes -Limit of 5 lines What attribute is highlighted on field grade OERs? - Correct Answer-Character What are the categories in the rater box check? - Correct Answer-•Excels: Results far surpass expectations. •Proficient: Consistently produces quality results with measurable improvement in unit performance. •Capable: Meets requirements of position and additional duties.

What are the categories in the senior rater box check? - Correct Answer-MOST QUALIFIED: Strong potential for Below Zone (BZ) and command; potential ahead of peers HIGHLY QUALIFIED: Strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED: Capable of success at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED: Not recommended for promotion What is the purpose of the OER support form? - Correct Answer-Used to mentor and develop subordinates, and aids in defining/guiding goals and objectives tied to leadership attributes and competencies What is the Evaluation Entry System (EES) and what are its benefits? - Correct Answer- EES is a web-based tool, which is used to complete and submit evaluations. -Enhanced wizard to guide rating chain and Human Resource professionals in preparing the evaluation -Eliminates accessing multiple systems and consolidates evaluation tools to one system What is the minimum rating period - Correct Answer-90 days for Active Duty 120 days for Reserve Component What are referred reports? - Correct Answer-Reports that contain negative comments or unfavorable ratings regarding an officer's performance/potential, traits, skills, or attributes Referred to the rated officer first; if further action is required a Commander's Inquiry or appeal process may be pursued What may cause a mandatory referral? - Correct Answer-•"Fail" entry for APFT or "NO" for weight

• Negative remarks in Part IV (Professionalism, Competencies and Attributes) •"Do not promote" or similar comments •"Not Qualified" Senior Rater block check •Negative comments in the narratives A Commander's Inquiry may be performed for OERs containing? - Correct Answer-- Alleged errors -Injustices -Illegalities Reports may not be altered other than to correct items indicated during inquiry

What are the 2 types of appeals and when are they used? - Correct Answer- Administrative

• Only for administrative errors
• Adjudicated by Evaluation Appeals Branch, HQDA Substantive Differences of opinion
• Prejudice
• Inaccurate / unjust ratings
• Adjudicated by Army Special Review Board (ASRB) True or False? All of an OER cannot be appealed - Correct Answer-False. All or part of an OER may be appealed What is the time limit for each type of appeal? - Correct Answer-3 yrs for substantive appeals No time limit for administrative appeals What is a strategic environment? - Correct Answer-The global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power what is an operational environment? - Correct Answer-All of the conditions and influences that affect where soldiers will live, work, train, and fight. What are the 5 main characteristics of complex operational environments that are likely to impact land force operations in the future? - Correct Answer-Increased velocity and Momentum of Human Interaction and Events: Potential for Overmatch Proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) Spread of Advanced Cyberspace and Counter-Space Capabilities Demographics and Operations Among Populations in Cities and in Complex Terrain Multi-domain warfare includes but is not limited to the physical areas of - Correct Answer--Air -Land -Maritime -Space -Cyberspace Who are the nation-state actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer--Core states -Transition states

-Rogue states -Failed or failing states Who are non-state actors/rogue actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer--Terrorists -Insurgents -Drug-traffickers -Criminals Who are third party actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer-Third-party actors may not be openly hostile to U.S. forces, but can disrupt or negatively affect our ability to accomplish the mission as they require assets to either provide security or monitor their actions. -Considered non-combatants What is a non-combatant? - Correct Answer-An individual, in an area of combat operations, who is not armed and is not participating in any activity in support of any of the factions or forces involved in combat. What are individual and group non-combatant motivations? - Correct Answer-Individual: •Altruism •Personal dissatisfaction and self improvement •Job satisfaction •Greed/corruption/embezzlement •Garner political favor or influence Group: •Eliminate hunger, disease, or poverty •Fulfill public or stated mission statements (charity) and hidden agendas (religion and culture) •Provide natural disaster relief •Reflect home country moral convictions or policies What is a hybrid threat? - Correct Answer-Two or more distinctly different potential enemies join together to fight the United States. What is the form used for an NCOER? - Correct Answer-- DA 2166-9-1 SGT/SGT(P) (Direct)

• DA 2166-9-2 SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational)
• DA 2166-9-3 CSM/SGM (Strategic) In an NCOER what do the rater and senior rater assess? - Correct Answer-Rater assesses performance Senior rater assesses potential

What are the performance measures raters use in NCOERs? - Correct Answer--Far exceeded standard -Exceeded standard -Met standard (Direct level only) -Did not meet standard (Direct level only) What are the potential measures senior raters use in NCOERs? - Correct Answer- MOST QUALIFIED - identify NCOs with strong potential for promotion in the secondary zone; ahead of peers (Note: Senior raters will manage a constrained profile up to 24%) HIGHLY QUALIFIED - strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED - potential to be successful at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED - Do not demonstrate potential for promotion; recommend separation What is a rater tendency and for what ranks are rater tendency labels required on the NCOER? - Correct Answer-Rating history. The value below each box equals the overall history of those ratings in this grade SSG-CSM/SGM What are the 5 steps in the risk management process? - Correct Answer-1. Identify hazards

2. Assess hazards
3. Develop controls and make decisions
4. Implement controls
5. Supervise and evaluate What are the two application levels of risk management? - Correct Answer-Deliberate: Ample time is available to apply the five-step process as part of detailed planning for an operation. Real-Time: Immediate management of hazards as they occur, usually during execution of an operation or performance of a task. Risk management is integrated with what other army process? - Correct Answer-Troop leading procedures What is a hazard? - Correct Answer-An actual or potential condition, situation, or event that can result in injury, illness, death, damage/destruction of property, loss of capabilities/mission failure How are hazards identified? - Correct Answer-Experience Historical data SOPs

Intuitive analysis Logic diagrams Training assessments AARs What categories are used to assess hazards? - Correct Answer-Probability, severity, and risk level What are the 5 levels of probability in risk management? - Correct Answer-Frequent Likely Occasional Seldom Unlikely What are the 4 levels of severity used in risk management? - Correct Answer- Catastrophic Critical Moderate Negligible What are the different risk levels? - Correct Answer-Extremely High: Mission failure is likely High: Mission degraded; partially complete; below standards Medium: Mission complete, but below standards Low: Little or no negative impact on mission What are the categories of control in risk management? - Correct Answer-Educational Controls Physical Controls Hazard Elimination Controls What are the types of property? - Correct Answer-Real and personal What are the classifications of property? - Correct Answer-Nonexpendable, Expendable, Durable How often are Real property heritage assets inventoried? - Correct Answer-At least once every 3 years or upon change of accountable officer What is command responsibility? - Correct Answer-The obligation of a commander to ensure all Government property within his or her command is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping of Government property are provided What is direct responsibility? - Correct Answer-Obligation of a person to ensure all Government property for which he or she has receipted, is properly used and cared for, and that proper custody and safekeeping are provided.

What is supervisory responsibility? - Correct Answer-Obligation of the supervisor to ensure all Government property issue to, or used by their subordinates is properly used and cared for and that proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided What is custodial responsibility? - Correct Answer-The obligation of an individual for property in storage awaiting issue or turn-in to exercise reasonable and prudent actions to properly care for and ensure proper custody and safekeeping of the property are provided. What is personal responsibility? - Correct Answer-The obligation of a person to execute reasonable and prudent actions to properly use, care for, and safeguard all Government property in their possession What are the 3 P's of property accountability? - Correct Answer-People, Property and Process What are the phases of change of command inventory? - Correct Answer-1. In brief from PBO2

2. Incoming and Outgoing CDR conduct a joint inventory of all property
3. 30 days allotted to conduct joint inventory. If not complete in time, request extension in writing to the commander.
4. Review the property listing
5. Notify the sub-hand holders when and how the inventory will be conducted
6. Ensure that the most current Supply Catalogs, component lists, Technical Manuals and other related publications are used during inventory
7. Ensure all items are serviceable
8. If items are in maintenance, make sure the maintenance request is valid.
9. Report damaged equipment to unit maintenance personnel for repair
10. Report all differences regarding property discrepancies to the accountable officer or PBO
11. Sign property listing acknowledging responsibility of property What are the steps in Post Change of Command inventory? - Correct Answer-1. Incoming CDR signs COC memorandum
12. Incoming commander prepares DA Form 1687 (Delegation of Authority Signature Card) and distributes to agencies (3) Incoming and Outgoing CDR final brief to Battalion and Brigade CDR What is the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Correct Answer- Commander's program directed at ensuring compliance with HQ, DA supply policies and procedures. It is a mandatory program at all levels of command

What is used to enforce the Command Supply Discipline Program (CDSP)? - Correct Answer-Leadership Command emphasis Training Administrative measures Disciplinary measures