Army Health System (AHS) and Medical Functions, Exams of Advanced Education

Download Army Health System (AHS) and Medical Functions and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! AMEDD BOLC Midterm Exam With 100% Correct Answers 2023 The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? - Correct Answer-General threat and health threat What is a health threat? - Correct Answer-composite of ongoing potential enemy actions; adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic diseases, CBRN, etc What is health Service Support (HSS)? - Correct Answer-All support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and physical well being of personnel in the Army. Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army. What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? - Correct Answer-Casualty Care: treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? - Correct Answer-Measures to promote, improve, or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers. What is involved in Force Health Protection? - Correct Answer--Preventative medicine -Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention -Combat operational stress control (COSC) -Dental services (preventative) -Lab services and support What is the Army health System? - Correct Answer-All encompassing term to describe both the HSS and FHP aspects of AMEDD support. What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? - Correct Answer-Care Under Fire Tactical Field Care Tactical Evacuation What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? - Correct Answer-1. Conformity 2. Proximity 3. Flexibility 4. Mobility 5. Continuity 6. Control What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? - Correct Answer-Role 1: BN aid station and below -Immediate life saving measures Role 2: Medical company -X-ray, lab, dental, patient hold, pharmacy, advanced trauma Role 3: Field hospital -Resuscitation, wound surgery, postoperative treatment Role 4: Definitive Care -Full spectrum of definitive medical care Is sequential evacuation necessary? (Role 1 > Role 2 > Role 3 > Role 4) - Correct Answer-No. For example you can go from Role 1 to Role 3 What is the role of the command surgeon? - Correct Answer-Special staff officer that plans and monitors execution of the AHS mission Ensures all Medical Functions and operational planning factors are planned and synchronized in operation plans and orders Not a commander. May recommend policy/procedures but can't give orders except through unit plans and orders What are the primary tasks of mission command functions? - Correct Answer-Mission command Communications and computers Task organization Medical intelligence Technical supervision Regional focus Cons: Discourages subordinates to be part of the solution Tends to treat symptoms, not problems Discourages free talk Solution is the counselor's What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Combined approach? - Correct Answer-Pros: Encourages maturity and open communication Allows counselors to use their experience Moderately quick Cons: May take too much time for some situations What are the stages of the counseling process? - Correct Answer-1. Identify the need for counseling 2. Prepare for counseling (7 areas) 3. Conduct the counseling session 4.Follow-up What are areas involved in preparing for a counseling (Stage 2)? - Correct Answer- 1)Select a suitable place (i.e. noise, distraction, etc.) 2)Schedule the counseling 3)Notify subordinate 4)Organize information 5)Outline the counseling 6)Plan the counseling strategy 7)Establish the right atmosphere What are the 4 basic components during the counseling session (Stage 3)? - Correct Answer-1.Opening 2.Discussion 3.Plan of action 4.Record and close What form is used for counselings? - Correct Answer-DA Form 4856 What are the different types of promotions and their authorities? - Correct Answer- Decentralized (Chapter 2): To SPC/CPL and below Authority: Unit commander Semi-centralized (Chapter 3): To SGT and SSG Authority: Battalion Commander Centralized (Chapter 4): To SFC-SGM Authority: Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) (HRC) What are the categories of individual awards? - Correct Answer-Decorations Good Conduct Medal Service Medals / Service Ribbons Badges / Tabs Certificates / Letters Foreign Awards What do service (campaign) medals and ribbons denote? - Correct Answer-Honorable performance of duty within specified limited dates in specified geographical areas. What are the different types of badges? - Correct Answer-Combat Identification Special skill Marksmanship When are wartime decorations authorized? - Correct Answer-For wartime valor, service or achievement: What is the form used for the recommendation for an award? - Correct Answer-DA Form 638 The Medal of Honor, Distinguished Service Cross, Distinguished Service Medal, Silver Star and Legion of Merit fall under what category of awards? - Correct Answer- Decorations Who is the policy proponent for the Army decorations, awards and honors program? - Correct Answer-G-1 What are the 2 basic categories of evaluation reports? - Correct Answer-Mandatory and optional What are the types of mandatory reports? - Correct Answer-Annual- Done when 1 calendar year of duty is completed Change of Rater-Rater changed Relief for Cause- Removal of individual based on conduct Change of Duty- (officers only) When rated officer has changed of principal duty Extended annual Departure on TDY/Special duty Officer Non-select for Promotion Initial tour of extended active duty HRC directed What are the types of optional reports? - Correct Answer-Complete the Record- intended to update individual's file with performance and potential info Senior Rater (SR) option reports- When a change in SR occurs, the SR may direct that a report be made on any Soldier whom they senior rate. Special situations: Soldier assigned to WTU Rater Option Report When must the scope of a rated soldier's duty description be discussed? - Correct Answer-Within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period At a minimum, a counseling will include: - Correct Answer-Duty description and performance objectives to attain. Relationship of duty description and objectives with the organization's mission. What are the senior rater's rating chain responsibilities? - Correct Answer-Ensure Rater counsels the rated Soldier throughout the rating period Review and initial Counseling and Support Forms at the beginning and during rating period Use all reasonable means to become familiar with Soldier's performance. Ensure rater's portion is fair, accurate and candid. Assess and evaluate the abilities and potential of the rated Soldier relative to his/her peers. When is a supplementary reviewer required? - Correct Answer-When the senior rater is a 2LT-1LT, WO1-CW2, or SFC-1SG/MSG; in certain situations What are the primary and secondary functions of evaluation reports? - Correct Answer- Primary: Assist in making personnel management decisions Secondary: Encourage leader professional development Department of the Army Evaluations focus on a Soldier's potential based on what three factors? - Correct Answer-1. Duty performance 2. Army requirements for soldiers 3. Leadership qualifications True or False. A flag may NOT be initiated based on referral, screening or enrollment into the Army Substance Abuse Program (ASAP). - Correct Answer-True When can a flag be removed? - Correct Answer-As soon as the Soldier is released without charges, the charges are dropped, or the punishment (confinement, probation, restriction, extra duty, etc.) or adverse action is completed. A flag based on APFT failure or weight control failure must be removed as soon as the Soldier either passes the APFT or meets weight standards. What areas can a failure with the Mortuary Affairs (MA) mission or disrespectful handling of remains negatively impact? - Correct Answer-•Troop morale within the losing unit •National public support •Coalition support •Local national support •Enemy treatment of remains and/or prisoners What does full accounting (of remains) require? - Correct Answer--Proper identification -Explanation as to the cause and manner of death Contingency fatality operations occur at what levels in a theater of operation? - Correct Answer-All levels What are the 3 phases of search and recovery operations? - Correct Answer-Combat, Post Combat and area clearance. What are PADD, PE, and PERE? What is their order after search and recovery? - Correct Answer-PADD: Person Authorized to Direct Disposition PE: Personal effects PERE: Person Eligible to Receive Effects Search/recovery > remains returned to PADD > PE returned to PERE What is involved in joint mortuary affairs? - Correct Answer-•Initial Search and Recovery starts with the unit personnel •Tentative Identification •Coordinated Evacuation •CBRNE Decontamination (if needed) •Personal Effects What are the 3 distinct operations of the Army Mortuary Affairs Program? - Correct Answer-1. Current Death (Used in Garrison) -Always in peacetime -When possible in conflicts 2. Concurrent return -In conflict from a theater of operations to a servicing mortuary through MA channels -Ship PE to PE Depot for shipment to PERE 3. Temporary Internment -Temporary interment/disinterment of human remains. Only when authorized by the responsible commander during major military operations -No disposition of PE Where are Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP) located in theater? - Correct Answer-Always co-located on bases with Role 3 facilities and usually co-located with Role 2 facilities (usually operate as close to the airstrip as possible) Where is the Theater Mortuary Evacuation Point (TMEP) - Correct Answer-At a major Aerial Port of Embarkation Where is the port of entry mortuary facility? - Correct Answer-Dover AFB By when do remains have to reach MACP, TMEP and Dover AFB? - Correct Answer- Within 24 hrs By when do remains have to reach the deceased's family? - Correct Answer-Within 72- 96 hrs What are examples of tentative and positive identifications for remains? - Correct Answer-Tentative -DD Form 565 Positive (Done at Dover): -DNA test -Dental records -Finger printing What is the role of a Summary Courts-Martial Officer (SMCO)? - Correct Answer--Must be appointed within 48 hrs -Should be someone detached from Soldier -Separate distasteful items and record that they were destroyed (Maintain a good memory of the Soldier) -Inventory all PE with the unit or in quarters -Accurate documentation on DD Form 1076 -Utilize MA NCO at BDE -Also used for Soldiers evacuated from theater True or False? NEVER send PE straight to family from theater (everything goes through PE channels to PE Depot) - Correct Answer-True What actions should be done in post mortem care? - Correct Answer--Place body in Human Remains Pouch (cover with poncho or blanket if not available) -Place body in supine position, close eyes -Tie wrists together, may need to apply bandage to lower jaw -Provider may be asked to confirm death -Consult with mortuary affairs -Complete documentation and pass along PE, regardless of condition -DO NOT remove adjuncts from body -Ensure proper identification -Place body in shaded cool area How many tags are required on human remains and where are they placed? - Correct Answer-3 -Great toe -Wrist -Zipper of pouch What are Troop Leading Procedures (TLPs)? - Correct Answer-Dynamic process used by small-unit leaders to analyze a mission, develop a plan, and prepare for an operation What are the 8 steps of Troop Leading Procedures? - Correct Answer-1. Receive the mission 2. Issue warning order 3. Make a tentative plan 4. Initiate movement 5. Conduct reconnaissance 6. Complete the plan 7. Issue the order 8. Supervise and refine How can step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) occur? - Correct Answer-It may begin when the initial WARNO or OPORD arrives from higher headquarters or when a leader anticipates a new mission What actions should be done during step 1 of TLPs (Receive the Mission) ? - Correct Answer--Perform an initial assessment of the situation utilizing PMESII-PT and METT- TC -Ensure that all subordinate echelons have sufficient time for planning and preparation •Nurse Corps (AN) •Medical Specialist Corps (SP) •Medical Service Corps (MS) How are Medical Officer assignments dictated? - Correct Answer--Dictated by Army needs -Army Medical Department Officer Distribution Plan -Availability -Professional Development Needs -Education and Training -Other considerations -Personal preferences and compassionate factors Strength management is the responsibility of? - Correct Answer--AMEDD branch -OTSG personnel -AMEDD Personnel Proponent Directorate (APPD) What are the 2 categories of separations within strength management and their examples? - Correct Answer-1. Voluntary separations •Voluntary Separation Incentive (VSI) •Special Separation Bonus (SSB) •Voluntary Early Release Program (VERP) 2. Involuntary separations •Selective Early Retirement Board (SERB) •Reduction in Force (RIF) What is classified as professional development? - Correct Answer-Officer Education System (OES) -BOLC, CCC, ILE, etc. Professional military education Military training -EFMB, airborne, Ranger, TCMC, etc. What form is used for Officer Evaluation Reports? - Correct Answer-DA Form 67-10-X •DA Form 67-10-1: Company Grade (2LT-CPT & WO1-CW2) •DA Form 67-10-2: Field Grade (MAJ-LTC & CW3-CW5) •DA Form 67-10-3: Strategic Leaders (COL) •DA Form 67-10-4: Brigadier General What form is used for Academic Evaluation Reports? - Correct Answer-DA Form 1059 What form is used for the officer record brief? - Correct Answer-DA Form 4037 Who are ORBs centrally managed by? - Correct Answer-Officer records Branch -updated through personnel systems Who's responsibility is it to update an ORB? - Correct Answer-The soldier's responsibility What is a decentralized promotion? - Correct Answer-•2LT to 1LT and WO1 to CW2 •Fully qualified criteria •No numerical limits •Yes / No recommendation by local CDR (O-5) What is a centralized promotion? - Correct Answer-•Beyond 1LT and CW2 •Best qualified criteria •Numerical limits •Fully qualified versus Best qualified -Best qualified are selected for promotion first •Order of merit list What are the Army Competitive Categories (ACCs) and Special branches? - Correct Answer-ACC: Includes Infantry, Quartermaster, Engineers, Signal, and most other branches Special: AMEDD (All 6 Corps), JAG, Chaplain -Separate promotion boards -Special pays, depending on the specialty What are the key documents needed for promotion boards? - Correct Answer--Official Military Personnel File (OMPF) -Officer Record Brief (ORB)* - correct and validated Who sits on the officer promotion board? - Correct Answer-At least five active-duty officers (MAJ and above) What are the meanings of PZ, BZ, and AZ in board announcements? - Correct Answer- Primary Zone (PZ) - all officers within the identified year group are considered for promotion Below the Zone (BZ) - not yet PZ, but are considered for promotion ahead of peers due to record Above the Zone (AZ) - previous non-selects -Must show cause for non-fully qualified What is the purpose of Officer Evaluation Reports (OERs)? - Correct Answer-Provide information to DA selection boards and assignment managers for use in making personnel management decisions. The rating chain usually consists of who? - Correct Answer--Rated officer -Rater -Intermediate rater* -Senior rater -Supplementary reviewer* Commander is responsible What are the responsibilities of the rated officer? - Correct Answer-Meet with rater within 30 days Initiate discussion of duties and objectives Assess and update objectives Complete DA Form 67-10-1A (Officer Evaluation Support Form) What are the qualifications of a rater? - Correct Answer-•Immediate supervisor •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank -Command position exception Normally must serve 90 days What are the responsibilities of the rater? - Correct Answer--Provide rater and senior rater support forms -Discuss job description and performance objectives with rated officer within 30 days -Counsel quarterly throughout rating period -Assess the performance of the rated officer -Verify height/weight and APFT data What are the qualifications for an intermediate rater? - Correct Answer-•Between rater/senior rater •Limited to special branches and dual supervision situations •U.S. / Allied Armed Forces Officer / U.S. Government Employee •Senior in grade or date of rank to rated officer •Must serve minimum of 60 days •Technical expert What are the responsibilities of the intermediate rater? - Correct Answer-•Familiar with rated officer's performance •Provide input on DA Form 67-10-1A •Provide objective, comprehensive evaluation of performance and potential What are the 2 types of appeals and when are they used? - Correct Answer- Administrative - Only for administrative errors - Adjudicated by Evaluation Appeals Branch, HQDA Substantive Differences of opinion - Prejudice - Inaccurate / unjust ratings - Adjudicated by Army Special Review Board (ASRB) True or False? All of an OER cannot be appealed - Correct Answer-False. All or part of an OER may be appealed What is the time limit for each type of appeal? - Correct Answer-3 yrs for substantive appeals No time limit for administrative appeals What is a strategic environment? - Correct Answer-The global environment in which the US President employs all the elements of national power what is an operational environment? - Correct Answer-All of the conditions and influences that affect where soldiers will live, work, train, and fight. What are the 5 main characteristics of complex operational environments that are likely to impact land force operations in the future? - Correct Answer-Increased velocity and Momentum of Human Interaction and Events: Potential for Overmatch Proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) Spread of Advanced Cyberspace and Counter-Space Capabilities Demographics and Operations Among Populations in Cities and in Complex Terrain Multi-domain warfare includes but is not limited to the physical areas of - Correct Answer--Air -Land -Maritime -Space -Cyberspace Who are the nation-state actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer--Core states -Transition states -Rogue states -Failed or failing states Who are non-state actors/rogue actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer--Terrorists -Insurgents -Drug-traffickers -Criminals Who are third party actors in an operational environment? - Correct Answer-Third-party actors may not be openly hostile to U.S. forces, but can disrupt or negatively affect our ability to accomplish the mission as they require assets to either provide security or monitor their actions. -Considered non-combatants What is a non-combatant? - Correct Answer-An individual, in an area of combat operations, who is not armed and is not participating in any activity in support of any of the factions or forces involved in combat. What are individual and group non-combatant motivations? - Correct Answer-Individual: •Altruism •Personal dissatisfaction and self improvement •Job satisfaction •Greed/corruption/embezzlement •Garner political favor or influence Group: •Eliminate hunger, disease, or poverty •Fulfill public or stated mission statements (charity) and hidden agendas (religion and culture) •Provide natural disaster relief •Reflect home country moral convictions or policies What is a hybrid threat? - Correct Answer-Two or more distinctly different potential enemies join together to fight the United States. What is the form used for an NCOER? - Correct Answer-- DA 2166-9-1 SGT/SGT(P) (Direct) - DA 2166-9-2 SSG-1SG/MSG (Organizational) - DA 2166-9-3 CSM/SGM (Strategic) In an NCOER what do the rater and senior rater assess? - Correct Answer-Rater assesses performance Senior rater assesses potential What are the performance measures raters use in NCOERs? - Correct Answer--Far exceeded standard -Exceeded standard -Met standard (Direct level only) -Did not meet standard (Direct level only) What are the potential measures senior raters use in NCOERs? - Correct Answer- MOST QUALIFIED - identify NCOs with strong potential for promotion in the secondary zone; ahead of peers (Note: Senior raters will manage a constrained profile up to 24%) HIGHLY QUALIFIED - strong potential for promotion with peers QUALIFIED - potential to be successful at the next level; promote if able NOT QUALIFIED - Do not demonstrate potential for promotion; recommend separation What is a rater tendency and for what ranks are rater tendency labels required on the NCOER? - Correct Answer-Rating history. The value below each box equals the overall history of those ratings in this grade SSG-CSM/SGM What are the 5 steps in the risk management process? - Correct Answer-1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Develop controls and make decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise and evaluate What are the two application levels of risk management? - Correct Answer-Deliberate: Ample time is available to apply the five-step process as part of detailed planning for an operation. Real-Time: Immediate management of hazards as they occur, usually during execution of an operation or performance of a task. Risk management is integrated with what other army process? - Correct Answer-Troop leading procedures What is a hazard? - Correct Answer-An actual or potential condition, situation, or event that can result in injury, illness, death, damage/destruction of property, loss of capabilities/mission failure How are hazards identified? - Correct Answer-Experience Historical data SOPs