ARRT Radiography Exam 2024 Version New Latest Test Bank with all Questions, Exams of Radiography

Download ARRT Radiography Exam 2024 Version New Latest Test Bank with all Questions and more Exams Radiography in PDF only on Docsity! ARRT Radiography Exam 2024 Version New Latest Test Bank with all Questions from Actual Past Exam and 100% Correct Answers Effects that occur by chance and which may occur without a threshold level of dose, whose probability is proportional to the dose and whose severity is independent of the dose: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Stochastic Effects Effects that have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose: ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- Deterministic Effects What are the three basic components of a DR imaging system? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Capture Element 2) Coupling Element 3) Collection Element What is a capture element? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The location where the x- ray is captured. ________ is somatic cell division that comprises of four phases. When division is complete, each new cell contains 46 chromosomes. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Mitosis What are the four phases of mitosis? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase ________ is germ (sperm or ovum) cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in each cell so that the union of two germ cells produces a new cell with 46 chromosomes. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Meiosis This occurs when radiation transfers its energy directly to the DNA or RNA. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Direct Effect Because a cell contains mostly water, the probability that it will be struck by radiation is greater. This interaction is known as the ________ effect. ---------- Correct Answer ------- ---- Indirect ________ of water occurs as radiation energy is deposited into the water of a cell. ------- --- Correct Answer ----------- Radiolysis Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This describes: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau. If cells are more oxygenated, they are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) A whole-body dose of ________ will depress the blood count. ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- 0.25 Gy Somatic effects are evident in the ________ being exposed. ---------- Correct Answer ---- ------- Organism Doses causing somatic effects are much ________ than those received in general diagnostic radiography. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Higher What are some examples of early somatic effects (acute radiation syndrome)? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Hematopoietic Syndrome 2) GI Syndrome 3) Central Nervous System Syndrome What is hematopoietic syndrome? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- It decreases the total number of all blood cells, and can lead to death. What is GI syndrome? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- It causes total disruption of GI tract structure, and function, and can result in death. What is central nervous system syndrome? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- It causes complete failure of the nervous system and results in death. What are some examples of late somatic effects? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Carcinogenesis 2) Cataractogenesis 3) Embryologic Effects 4) Thyroid Function 5) Shortening of Life Span What is carcinogenesis? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- It causes cancer. What is cataractogenesis? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- It causes cataracts to form, following a nonlinear-threshold dose-response curve. When are embryologic effects most sensitive? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- During the first trimester of gestation. The x-ray control booth is considered to be a ________ protective barrier. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Secondary The lead window in a control booth enclosure is usually ________ lead equivalent. ------ ---- Correct Answer ----------- 1.5 mm Measured in mA minutes per week, ________ takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Workload The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier defines the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Use Factor Uncontrolled areas must be shielded to ensure an effective dose limit to the general public of ________ per week. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 20 µSv Controlled areas must be shielded to keep exposure under ________ per week. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1 µSv Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube housing may not exceed ________ per hour at a distance ________ from the housing. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 1 mGyᵃ 2) 1 m The protective curtain on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 0.25 mm The bucky slot shield on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 0.25 mm The least scatter radiation is measured at a ________-degree angle from the patient. --- ------- Correct Answer ----------- 90 Scatter-beam intensity at an angle 90-degrees from the patient is ________ the intensity of the primary beam at a distance of ________ meter. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 1/1000 2) 1 ________ dosimeters use aluminum oxide to record dose. ---------- Correct Answer ------ ----- OSL An aluminum oxide layer is stimulated by a ________ after the wear period. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Laser Beam When aluminum oxide is stimulated by a laser beam, ________ release energy as visible ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Electrons 2) Light OSL dosimeters can record exposures as low as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---- ------- 10 µGyᵃ OSL dosimeters can be worn for up to ________ at a time. ---------- Correct Answer ----- ------ 3 Months OSL dosimeters can be reanalyzed and reused ________ times if necessary. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Multiple With OSL dosimeters, exposures below ________ are reported as minimal. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 10 µGyᵃ ________ dosimeters use lithium fluoride crystals instead of film to record dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- TLD The electrons in lithium fluoride crystals are excited by radiation exposure, and release this information when exposed to ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Heat The energy released from lithium fluoride crystals is released as ________, and is measured by a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Visible Light 2) Photomultiplier Tube TLD's can measure exposure as low as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 50 µGyᵃ TLD's can be worn for longer periods than ________ badges. ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- Film With TLD's, exposures below ________ are measured as minimal. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 50 µGyᵃ ________ use film that is similar to dental x-ray film. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Film Badges Film badges can measure doses as low as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 100 µGyᵃ With film badges, doses below ________ are recorded as minimal. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 100 µGyᵃ Filters made of ________ and ________ measure the intensity and type of radiation striking a film badge. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Aluminum 2) Copper Film badges are usually changed ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Monthly A ________ is used to measure radiation in an area, storage areas for radioisotopes, doses traveling through barriers, and patients who have radioactive sources within them. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Handheld Ionization Chamber Handheld ionization chambers can measure exposure rates as low as ________ per hour. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 10 µGyᵃ A ________ is used to detect radioactive particles in nuclear medicine facilities. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Geiger-Mueller Detector Geiger-Mueller detectors read in ________ per minute. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - Counts An autotransformer is also known as a ________ transformer. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- Variable An autotransformer is constructed with: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A single coil of wire with an iron core. The autotransformer is the source for selecting ________. ---------- Correct Answer ------ ----- kVp Autotransformers operate on the principle of ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - Self-Induction The ________ is in the x-ray circuit to indicate the voltage that is selected. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Prereading Voltmeter The prereading voltmeter is prereading because it indicates the ________ that will be flowing through the tube once the exposure is made. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Kilovoltage The prereading voltmeter is placed in the circuit between the ________ and the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Autotransformer 2) Step-Up Transformer A ________ is used to regulate the duration of the x-ray exposure. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Timer The timer is wired in the circuit between the ________ and the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Autotransformer 2) Step-Up Transformer Electronic timers allow exposures as low as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - 1 ms or 1/1000 second. A unit with ________ or ________ diodes provides full-wave rectification for three- phase equipment. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 6 2) 12 When three-phase current is used, voltage ________ drops to zero during exposure. --- ------- Correct Answer ----------- Never Voltage ripple for three-phase, six-pulse is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 13 2) 87 Voltage ripple for three-phase, twelve-pulse is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set. ---------- Correct Answer ------- ---- 1) 4 2) 96 Voltage ripple for high-frequency generators is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set. ---------- Correct Answer ------- ---- 1) 1 2) 99 The mA meter (or milliammeter) measures the ________ in milliamperes. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tube Current The mA meter is wired in the circuit between the ________ and the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Rectifier 2) X-Ray Tube The filament circuit (or mA control) regulates the number of ________ available at the filament to produce x-rays. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Electrons When electrons are boiled off of the filament, it is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Thermionic Emission The anode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - Positive The cathode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube. ---------- Correct Answer -------- --- Negative An anode rotates anywhere from ________ to ________ rpm. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- 1) 3300 2) 10000 What is a tort? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A violation of civil law. Torts are also known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Personal Injury Law If a patient is apprehensive about being injured, or a radiographer causes fear in the patient, it is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Assault Unlawful touching or touching without consent, harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer, and imaging the wrong body part or against the patients will is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Battery Unjustified restraint of a patient is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - False Imprisonment Exposing confidential information, improperly exposing the patients body, inappropriately touching a patients body, or photographing a patient without their permission is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Invasion of Privacy Written information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Libel Orally spreading false information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Slander Respondeat Superior is a legal doctrine stating the employer is held liable for an employee's negligent act. Respondeat Superior means ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Let the master answer. Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious. Res Ipsa Loquitur means ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The thing speaks for itself. The ARRT Standards of Ethics consists of the ________ of Ethics and the ________ of Ethics. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Code 2) Rules The ARRT ________ of Ethics serves as a guide for what radiographers aspire to become as professionals. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Code The ARRT ________ of Ethics are mandatory, enforceable, and carry sanctions for violations. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Rules Attempting to copy ARRT exam materials, disclosing exam questions, impersonating a test candidate, being convicted of a crime, engaging in unprofessional conduct, injuring a patient, misrepresenting CE units earned, violating state or federal narcotics and controlled-substance laws, and attempting to circumvent the certification and registration process are examples that violate the ARRT ________ of Ethics. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Rules Acting in a professional manner, responding to patient needs, and supporting colleagues and associates in providing quality patient care, practicing technology founded upon theoretical knowledge and concepts, practicing ethical conduct appropriate to the profession and protecting the patient's right to quality radiologic care, and striving to improve knowledge and skills by participating in continuing education and professional activities are examples covered under the ARRT ________ of Ethics. ------- --- Correct Answer ----------- Code In what order should radiographic exams be scheduled? ---------- Correct Answer --------- -- 1) Fiberoptic (endoscopic) studies. 2) Radiography of the urinary tract. 3) Radiography of the biliary system. 4) Computed tomography studies. 5) Lower GI radiographic studies. 6) Upper GI radiographic studies. Tachycardia is having a heartbeat of more than ________ beats per minute. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 100 Bradycardia is having a heartbeat of less than ________ beats per minute. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 60 Diastolic blood pressure greater than ________mm/Hg indicates an increasing level of hypertension. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 90 Diastolic blood pressure less than ________mm/Hg gives some indication of shock. ----- ----- Correct Answer ----------- 50 The usual oxygen flow rate through a nasal cannula is ________ L/minute. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 3 to 5 Loosing large amounts of blood or plasma may result in ________ shock. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hypovolemic When toxins are produced during massive infection causing a dramatic decrease in blood pressure, ________ shock is suspected. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Septic ________ shock is when blood pools in peripheral vessels. ---------- Correct Answer ----- ------ Neurogenic ________ shock results from cardiac failure or other interference with heart function. ---- ------ Correct Answer ----------- Cardiogenic This is sometimes used to measure exposure, but the preferred unit is air kerma. --------- - Correct Answer ----------- Coulombs/Kilogram This is used to define the amount of energy absorbed per unit mass of tissue. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Absorbed Dose Absorbed dose is measured in ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gray (Gyᵗ) This is used to define the product of absorbed dose (Gy) times the radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Equivalent Dose ________ takes into account the biologic impact of the type and energy of the radiation being used. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). This is used to define the estimated risk present when various tissues are irradiated. ---- ------ Correct Answer ----------- Effective Dose Effective dose uses the ________, and takes into account the relative radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ or body part. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tissue weighting factor (Wᵀ). ________ is the product of absorbed dose times the radiation weighting factor times the tissue weighting factor. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Effective Dose ________ is the unit of effective and equivalent dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sievert (Sv) The unit of radioactivity that is used to measure the quantity of radioactive material is the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Becquerel (Bq) Radiation exiting the x-ray tube is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - Primary Radiation X-rays that emerge from the patient and strike the image receptor, and are composed of primary and scattered photons is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Exit or Remnant Radiation X-ray beams that contain photons of many different energies are known as ________. -- -------- Correct Answer ----------- Heterogeneous. What are twelve properties of x-rays? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Highly penetrating, invisible rays. 2) Electrically neutral. 3) Liberate minute amounts of heat. 4) Polyenergetic, heterogenous. 5) Travel in straight lines. 6) Ionize matter. 7) Cause fluorescence of certain crystals. 8) Travel at the speed of light. 9) Affect photographic film. 10) Cannot be focused by a lens. 11) Produce chemical and biologic changes. 12) Produce secondary and scatter radiation. What occurs during Coherent Scattering? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The incident x-ray interacts with an atom causing it to become excited. The atom immediately releases this excess energy as a scattered x-ray having the same energy and wavelength as the incident x-ray, but in a different direction. What occurs during Compton Scattering? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The incident x-ray interacts with an outer-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray then continues in a different direction with less energy and a longer wavelength. What occurs during the Photoelectric Effect? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The incident x-ray interacts with an inner-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray is not scattered but totally absorbed, releasing all of its energy to the ejected electron. Characteristic x-rays are then produced as outer-shell electrons fill the void left by the inner-shell electron. What is Bremsstrahlung Radiation? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Bremsstrahlung x- rays are produced when a projectile electron is slowed by the electric field of a target atom nucleus. What is Characteristic Radiation? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- When projectile electrons interact with inner-shell electrons of the target atom, rather than with an outer- shell electron. X-ray's have diagnostic wavelengths of ________ to ________, and travel as bundles of energy called photons. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 0.1 Å 2) 0.5 Å The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual, is known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Effective Dose What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 50 mSv What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 150 mSv What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the localized areas of the skin, hands and feet? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 500 mSv This is calculated by multiplying the radiographer's age in years times 10 mSv. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Cumulative effective dose limit. The annual effective dose limit for students over the age of 18 is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 50 mSv The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1 mSv The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 5 mSv The total equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus for the entire gestational period is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 5 mSv The equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus per month is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 0.5 mSv The target angle of the anode allows for a ________ actual focal spot, while producing a ________ effective focal spot. This effect is known as the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Larger 2) Smaller 3) Line Focus Principle The target angle may be ________ to ________ degrees, depending on the tube design. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 7 2) 20 When electrons travel from the cathode to the anode, they travel at up to ________ the speed of ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Half 2) Light When electrons strike the anode, the kinetic energy converts the electrons into ________ and ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Heat 2) X-Rays When striking the anode, the electron conversion to heat is approximately ________%. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 99.8 When striking the anode, the electron conversion to x-rays is approximately ________%. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 0.2 The fluoroscopy exposure rate should be tested with a digital dosimeter, and should not be more than________ per minute. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 100 mGyᵃ CR plates should be erased at least every ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 48 Hours CR readers should be calibrated ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Annually ________ comprises of systems for image acquisition, display, network and storage. ---- ------ Correct Answer ----------- Picture Archiving and Communications System (PACS) ________ is a standard protocol used for blending PACS and various imaging modalities. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) ________ blends patient care information, reporting and billing. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hospital Information System (HIS) ________ is used for ordering procedures and reporting results. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Radiology Information System (RIS) ________ is a comprehensive collection of patient information stored in a digital format that may be shared across networks. Data may include history, medications, allergies, test results and vital signs. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Electronic Medical Record (EMR) The sharpness of the structural edges recorded on the images is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spacial Resolution Spacial resolution may be described as the ________ representation of the part being imaged. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Geometric The highest spacial resolution that can be recorded, and is controlled by pixel pitch, is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nyquist Frequency The amount of radiation striking the image receptor is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Receptor Exposure The measurement of the luminance of an area in a radiographic image displayed on a monitor is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Brightness The visible difference between any two selected areas of brightness levels within the displayed radiographic images is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Contrast The number of brightness levels (or shades of gray) visible on an image is linked to the bit depth of a system, and is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Grayscale When slight differences between gray shades is present (low contrast) but the total number of gray shades is great, it is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Long Scale Contrast When considerable or major differences between gray shades are present (high contrast), but the total number of gray shades is small, it is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Short Scale Contrast Contrast resolution is controlled by ________, or the number of bits per pixel. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Bit Depth With larger the bit depth, ________ levels of gray are possible in an image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Greater The range of exposures that may be captured by a detector is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Dynamic Range The range of exposures that produce quality images at appropriate patient dose is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Exposure Latitude ________ exposure latitude makes for better visualization of soft tissues and bone. ------ ---- Correct Answer ----------- Wide The magnitude of the signal difference in the remnant beam as a result of the different absorption characteristics of the tissues and structures making up that part is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Subject Contrast A digital image is composed of rows and columns called a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Matrix The matrix size equals the total number of ________ in the image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Pixels The ________ component of the martix is the pixel. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Smallest Pixel stands for ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Picture Element Smaller pixels provide greater ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spacial Resolution Each pixel in the matrix corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient called a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Voxel Voxel stands for ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Volume Element The number of pixels per millimeter in the image is known as ________, and is determined by pixel pitch. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Pixel Density The space from the center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel is known as: --- ------- Correct Answer ----------- Pixel Pitch Less space between pixels (pixel pitch) provides for greater ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spacial Resolution A ________ is constructed to show the radiographer the distribution of pixel values (indicating low, proper, or high exposure). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Histogram Digital images may be printed onto film by using a ________. ---------- Correct Answer -- --------- Laser Camera Resolution is ________ with DR than with CR because DR involves less conversion of the information. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Finer Changing the ________ adjusts the image brightness. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Window Level Changing the ________ adjusts the image contrast. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Window Width A histogram of pixel values from image acquisition that can be used to correct or enhance luminance values is known as a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Look-Up Table (LUT) ________ results in a grainy or noisy image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Quantum Mottle Quantum mottle is caused by too ________ x-ray photons hitting the image receptor, normally from too low of a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Few 2) kVp The comparison of the useful signal to the presence of noise is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) The higher the signal-to-noise ratio, the ________ the image quality. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Higher The ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Grid Selectivity Grid conversion factor (GCF) is the amount of exposure ________ necessary to compensate for the ________ of image-forming x-rays and scatter in the cleanup process. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Increase 2) Absorption Grid conversion factor is also known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Bucky Factor Value How do you calculate the new mAs required for a specific grid using the grid conversion factor? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- GCF of selected grid times the current mAs What is the grid conversion factor for a 5:1 grid? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 2 What is the grid conversion factor for a 8:1 grid? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 4 What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 5 What is the grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 6 When normal density appears in the middle of a radiograph with decreased density on the sides, this is likely a result of: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Grid Upside Down When image-forming x-rays are absorbed all across the radiographic field, with cutoff (decreased density) visible over the entire radiograph, this is a result of: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Grid Off-Level When the central ray does not strike the grid in the center, and there is visible cutoff more to one side of the radiograph than the other, the cause is: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lateral Decentering When there is normal density in the middle of the radiograph, with cutoff visible on the sides, the cause is likely to be: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Grid-Focus Decentering ________ is the distance at which focused grids may be used. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- Grid Focus Focus range is ________ for low-ratio grids. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Wide Focus range is ________ for high-ratio grids. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Narrow Generally, grids are used when the body part being imaged is ________ cm thick or greater, or when more than ________ kVp is used. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 10 2) 60 What type of build is massive, represents 5% of the population, has a broad and deep thorax, high diaphragm, high colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are high and horizontal? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hypersthenic What body type is a slight modification of hypersthenic, is the most common body habitus, and is present in 50% of the population? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sthenic What body type is between asthenic and sthenic and is present in 35% of the population? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hyposthenic What body type is a slender build, is present in 10% of the population, has a narrow and shallow thorax, long thoracic cavity, long lungs, low diaphragm, short abdominal cavity, low colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are low, vertical, and near the midline? -- -------- Correct Answer ----------- Asthenic A process is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Prominence A spine is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sharp prominence. A tubercle is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Rounded projection. A tuberosity is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Large rounded projection. A trochanter is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Very large body prominence. A crest is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ridge A condyle is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Round process of an articulating bone. A head is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Enlargement at the end of a bone. A fossa is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Pit A groove is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Furrow A sulcus is: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Synonymous with a groove. A sinus is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Cavity within a bone. A foramen is a: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Opening A meatus is: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tubelike Fibrous joints are known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Synarthroses Fibrous joints are generally ________ and have no joint cavity or capsule. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Immovable Cartilaginous joints are known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Amphiarthroses Cartilaginous joints are ________ movable, but have no joint cavity and are contiguous bones united by cartilage and ligaments. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Slightly Synovial joints are known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Diarthroses Synovial joints are ________ movable, and have bones held together by a fibrous capsule lined with synovial membrane and ligaments. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Freely There are ________ types of movements capable with synovial joints. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 6 A ________ joint permits motion in one plane only, such as an elbow. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hinge A ________ joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis, such as a proximal radio-ulner articulation. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Pivot A ________ joint has opposing surfaces that are concavo-convex, and allow flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, such as the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. ---- ------ Correct Answer ----------- Saddle A ________ joint is capable of movement in an infinite number of axes, and has a round head of one bone that moves in a cuplike cavity of the approximating base, such as a hip. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ball and Socket A ________ joint is capable of permitting articulation of contiguous bones and allows only for gliding momements, such as a wrist or ankle. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gliding A ________ joint permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another. Circumduction is possible, but rotation is not. Occurs in areas such as the radiocarpal joints. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Condyloid Light from a CsI phosphor that is delivered to the CCD array results in high x-ray capture efficiency and good ________ resolution up to ________ lp/mm. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Spacial 2) 5 CsI/CCD is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first to ________ then to ________ signal. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Indirect 2) Light 3) Electric Overcoming the challenge of creating a seamless image at the edge of each CCD is accomplished by ________ of pixel values at each tile ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Interpolation 2) Interface An early application of DR involved the use of CsI to capture the x-rays, as well as transmission of the resulting scintillation light to a ________ element. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Collection A collection element is ________ sandwiched as a ________. ---------- Correct Answer - ---------- 1) Silicon 2) TFT Silicon is a ________ that is usually grown as a ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----- ------ 1) Semiconductor 2) Crystal When identified as amorphous silicon (a-silicon), the silicon is not ________ but is a ________ that can be painted onto a supporting surface. ---------- Correct Answer -------- --- 1) Crystalline 2) Liquid CsI has a high ________ capture because the atomic number of cesium is ________ and Iodine is ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Photoelectric 2) 55 3) 53 X-ray interaction with CsI is high, resulting in ________ patient dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Low A DR image receptor is fabricated into individual ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---- ------- Pixels Each pixel in a DR has a light-sensitive face of ________, with a capacitor and a TFT embedded. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- a-Si CsI/a-Si is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first into light and then to electric signal. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Indirect Because a portion of the DR pixel face is occupied by conductors, capacitors and the TFT, it is not totally sensitive to the incident image-forming ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- X-ray Beam The percentage of the pixel face in DR that is sensitive to x-rays is known as: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Fill Factor The fill factor is approximately ________%, therefore ________% of the x-ray beam does not contribute to the image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 80 2) 20 As pixel size is reduced ________ resolution improves, but at the expense of ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Spacial 2) Patient Dose With smaller pixels, the fill factor is ________ and x-ray intensity must be ________ to maintain adequate signal strength. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Reduced 2) Increased ________ in DR is pixel limited. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spacial Resolution With amorphous selenium, the image-forming x-ray beam interacts directly with the ________, producing a charged ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) a-Se 2) Pair a-Se is a ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted to electric signal. --------- - Correct Answer ----------- Direct X-rays incident on the a-Se create electron hole ________ through direct ________ of selenium. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Pairs 2) Ionization A created a-Se charge is collected by a storage ________ and remains there until the signal is read by the ________ action of the TFT. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Capacitor 2) Switching In mammography, ________ is more important than spacial resolution for soft tissue radiography. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Contrast Resolution Because contrast resolution is most important in mammography, ________ has been shown to be superior to screen-film mammography. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- DR What is spacial resolution? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The ability of an imaging system to record small high-contrast objects. Spacial resolution is usually described as the ________ of an object that can be ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Size 2) Viewed In medical imaging, spacial resolution is described as spacial ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Frequency Spacial frequency relates to the number of ________ in a given length. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Line Pairs In medical imaging, line pairs are measured in line pairs per ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Millimeter As the spacial frequency becomes larger, the objects become ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Smaller ________ spacial frequency indicates better spacial ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Higher 2) Resolution Anatomy can be described as having spacial ________. ---------- Correct Answer --------- -- Frequency Large soft tissues such as liver, kidney and brain have ________ spacial frequency and are easy to image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Low Bone trabeculae, breast microcalcifications and contrast-filled vessels are ________- frequency objects and are more difficult to image. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- High Spacial resolution in digital imaging is limited by the size of the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Pixel No digital imaging system can image an object that is smaller than ________ pixel. ------ ---- Correct Answer ----------- One What is modulation transfer function (MTF)? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The ability of an imaging system to render objects of different sizes onto an image. An imaging system that produces an image appearing exactly like the object would have an MTF equal to ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- One In general, as the ________ is increased, the SNR is also increased, but at the expense of patient ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) mAs 2) Dose Another way to increase SNR is seen in digital ________ angiography (DSA). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Subtraction With digital imaging, we can reduce patient dose by ________% to ________%. The opposite has occurred because of dose ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 20 2) 50 3) Creep Because digital can always yield a good image, it's possible for the technologist to forget to change the ________ factors between exposures. This results in an overall ________ in patient dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Technique 2) Increase Patient dose reduction should be possible because of the way in which a digital image receptor responds to x-rays, and because of a property known as detective ________ efficiency. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Quantum Because digital image receptor response is ________ related to radiation dose, image ________ does not change with dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Linearly 2) Contrast One cannot ________-expose or ________-expose a digital image because contrast is not affected by dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Over 2) Under A digital image should ________ require repeating because of ________ factors. This aids in patient dose reduction. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Never 2) Exposure Because digital image contrast is unrelated to dose, ________ becomes less important. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- kVp To reduce dose in digital radiography, we can increase ________ and decrease ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) kVp 2) mAs Instead of dose creep, ________ creep should be used with digital imaging systems. The result will again be a reduction in patient dose. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Technique A problem with very ________ technique for digital imaging is low ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Low 2) SNR Noise can predominate and compromise the interpretation of ________ anatomy. -------- -- Correct Answer ----------- Soft Tissue What is photometry? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The study of how the human eye responds to light. The basic photometric unit is known as the ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lumen What are the two laws associated with photometry? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Inverse Square Law 2) Cosine Law The inverse square law states that: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Luminous intensity decreases in proportion to the inverse square of the distance from the source. The cosine law states that: ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Luminous intensity falls off rapidly as one views a digital display device at larger angles from perpendicular. The best viewing of a digital display device is ________. ---------- Correct Answer --------- -- Straight On What is a hard copy image? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Actual film that is placed on a viewbox for reading. What is a soft copy image? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Images displayed on a digital device such as a CRT or AMLCD. What does AMLCD stand for? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Active Matrix Liquid Crystal Display A liquid crystal has the property of a highly ordered ________ structure (a crystal), and the property of ________ (a fluid). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Molecular 2) Viscosity Liquid crystal materials are ________ organic molecules that are ________ charged, forming a natural molecular ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Linear 2) Electrically 3) Dipole Liquid crystals can be ________ through the action of an external ________ field. ------- --- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Aligned 2) Electric AMLCD's are fashioned ________ by ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Pixel 2) Pixel An AMLCD has a very intense white ________ that illuminates each ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Backlight 2) Pixel Each pixel of an AMLCD contains light-________ filters and ________ to control the intensity and color of light transmitted through the pixel. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - 1) Polarizing 2) Films The pixels in an AMLCD consists of ________ glass plate substrates that are separated by ________ glass beads, and act as spacers. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Two 1) Spherical How large are the spherical glass beads contained in the glass plate substrates of an AMLCD pixel? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A few microns in diameter. Bus lines (conductors) control each pixel of an AMLCD with a thin-________ transistor (TFT). ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Film With AMLCD, ________ resolution improves with the use of a higher-megapixel digital display device. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Spacial An AMLCD is a very ________ device. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Inefficient Only about ________% of the backlight of an AMLCD is transmitted through a monochrome monitor, and ________ of that through a color monitor. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 10 2) Half Why is the luminescence of AMLCD so inefficient? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Because light is absorbed in the filters and polarizers. Also due to each pixel being blocked by the TFT and bus lines. What is an aperture ratio? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- The portion of the pixel face that is available to transmit light. Aperture ratios of ________% and ________% are characteristic of medical AMLCD devices. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 1) 50 2) 80 What is a PACS system? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- A computer system that not only allows acquisition, but also the interpretation, storage and recall of each medical image in digital form. What does PACS stand for? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Picture Archiving and Communication System What are the four principal components of a PACS system? ---------- Correct Answer ---- ------- 1) Image Acquisition System 2) Display System 3) Network 4) Storage System The term ________ is used to describe the manner in which many computers and devices can be connected to interact with one another. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Network ________ is the process of remote transmission and viewing of images. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Teleradiology To ensure adaptability between imaging systems, the ACR and NEMA have produced a standard imaging interface format known as ________. ---------- Correct Answer ---------- - DICOM What does DICOM stand for? ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine A great advantage of PACS is ________, which helps to save space in the hospital usually allocated to film storage. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Archiving With PACS, a film room is replaced by a ________ or ________ memory device. -------- -- Correct Answer ----------- 1) Magnetic 2) Optical Electronically, images stored in PACS can be recalled from the archival system to any ________ in seconds. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Workstation Backup PACS storage is accommodated ________ at a digital data storage vendor. ---- ------ Correct Answer ----------- Offsite Offsite PACS backups are needed should the main storage files onsite become ________. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Corrupted Rotor ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Stator Coils ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Rotating Anode ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Target ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Window ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Glass Envelope ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Filament ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Focusing Cup ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Supporting Wires ---------- Correct Answer ----------- 2⁰ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Due to, Secondary to ć ---------- Correct Answer ----------- With ś ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Without ∆ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Change ↑ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Increased ↓ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Decreased ♂ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Male ♀ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Female + ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Positive - ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Negative AAA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm AAS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acute Abdominal Series abd ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Abdomen ABG ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Arterial Blood Gas Abn ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Abnormal AC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acromioclavicular AIDS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome AK ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Above the Knee AKA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Above the Knee Amputation ALOC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Altered Level of Consciousness AMA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Against Medical Advise AMS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Altered Mental Status AP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Anteroposterior appy ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Appendectomy ARDS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acute (Adult) Respiratory Distress Syndrome ARF ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Acute Renal Failure AS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Aortic Stenosis ASA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Aspirin ASAP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- As Soon as Possible AWOL ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Absent without Leave B/P ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Blood Pressure B ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Bilateral Ba ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Barium BA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Blood Alcohol BE ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Barium Enema BID ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Twice a Day bilat. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Bilateral BK ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Below the Knee BKA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Below the Knee Amputation ETOH ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ethanol (Drinking Alcohol) ETT ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Endotracheal Tube F ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Female FB ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Foreign Body FU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Follow-Up F/U ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Follow-Up FUO ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Fever of Undetermined Origin Fx ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Fracture GB ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gallbladder GCS ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Glasgow Coma Scale GI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gastrointestinal GSW ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gunshot Wound GU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Genitourinary Gyn ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Gynecology H&P ---------- Correct Answer ----------- History and Physical H/A ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Headache HIV ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Human Immunodeficiency Virus HSG ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hysterosalpingogram HTN ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Hypertension I&D ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Irrigation and Drainage IBD ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Inflammatory Bowel Disease ICP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intracranial Pressure ICU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intensive Care Unit IDDM ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus IM ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intramuscular Inj ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Injection IUD ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intrauterine Device IUP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intrauterine Pregnancy IV ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intravenous IVDA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intravenous Drug Abuse IVH ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Interventricular Hemorrhage IVP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Intravenous Pyelogram Kg ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Kilogram KUB ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Kidneys, Ureters and Bladder L1, L2, ... ---------- Correct Answer ----------- First Lumbar Vertebra, Second Lumbar Vertebra, ... L&D ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Labor and Delivery L. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left LAC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Laceration Lat. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lateral LBP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lower Back Pain LLE ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Lower Extremity LLL ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Lower Lobe LLQ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Lower Quadrant LMP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Last Menstrual Period LOC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Loss of Consciousness LP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lumbar Puncture LQ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Lower Quadrant Lt. ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left LUE ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Upper Extremity LUL ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Upper Lobe LUQ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Left Upper Quadrant M ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Male MCP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Metacarpophalangeal mg ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Milligrams MI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Myocardial Infarct MICU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Medical Intensive Care Unit ml ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Milliliter mm ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Millimeter MRI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Magnetic Resonance Imaging MVA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Motor Vehicle Accident Na ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sodium N/A ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Not Applicable N&V ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nausea and Vomiting N/V ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nausea and Vomiting neg ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Negative NG ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nasogastric NGT ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Nasogastric Tube NICU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Neonatal Intensive Care Unit SC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sternoclavicular SI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Sacroiliac SICU ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Surgical Intensive Care Unit SOB ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Short of Breath stat ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Immediately Sz ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Seizure T1, T2, ... ---------- Correct Answer ----------- First Thoracic Vertebra, Second Thoracic Vertebra, ... T&A ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tonsillectomy and Adenoidectomy TA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Traffic Accident TAH ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Total Abdominal Hysterectomy TB ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Tuberculosis TC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Traffic Collision TIA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Transient Ischemic Attack TID ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Three Times a Day TMJ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Temporomandibular Joint UA ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Urinalysis UGI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Upper Gastrointestinal UNK ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Unknown UQ ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Upper Quadrant URI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Upper Respiratory Infection US ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ultrasound UTI ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Urinary Tract Infection VD ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Venereal Disease Vent ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Ventilator W/C ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Wheelchair WBC ---------- Correct Answer ----------- White Blood Cells XIP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- In Plaster XOP ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Out of Plaster YO ---------- Correct Answer ----------- Years Old