ARRT Radiography Exam Study Guide, Exams of Criminology

Download ARRT Radiography Exam Study Guide and more Exams Criminology in PDF only on Docsity! ARRT Radiography Exam With Correct Answers 2023 1. *Study guide for the ARRT exam in radiography.* - ✓✓✓*Anatomy and positioning are not covered in this study guide.* 2. What is a tort? - ✓✓✓A violation of civil law. 3. Torts are also known as ________. - ✓✓✓Personal Injury Law 4. If a patient is apprehensive about being injured, or a radiographer causes fear in the patient, it is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Assault 5. Unlawful touching or touching without consent, harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer, and imaging the wrong body part or against the patients will is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Battery 6. Unjustified restraint of a patient is known as ________. - ✓✓✓False Imprisonment 7. Exposing confidential information, improperly exposing the patients body, inappropriately touching a patients body, or photographing a patient without their permission is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Invasion of Privacy 8. Written information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Libel 9. Orally spreading false information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Slander 10. Respondeat Superior is a legal doctrine stating the employer is held liable for an employee's negligent act. Respondeat Superior means ________. - ✓✓✓Let the master answer. 11. Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious. Res Ipsa Loquitur means ________. - ✓✓✓The thing speaks for itself. 12. The ARRT Standards of Ethics consists of the ________ of Ethics and the ________ of Ethics. - ✓✓✓1) Code 13. 2) Rules 14. The ARRT ________ of Ethics serves as a guide for what radiographers aspire to become as professionals. - ✓✓✓Code 15. The ARRT ________ of Ethics are mandatory, enforceable, and carry sanctions for violations. - ✓✓✓Rules 16. Attempting to copy ARRT exam materials, disclosing exam questions, impersonating a test candidate, being convicted of a crime, engaging in unprofessional conduct, injuring a patient, misrepresenting CE units earned, violating state or federal narcotics and controlled-substance laws, and attempting to circumvent the certification and registration process are examples that violate the ARRT ________ of Ethics. - ✓✓✓Rules 48. Contrast media ________ may occur in infants, or patients who have renal, cardiac or hepatic failure. - ✓✓✓Overdose 49. What are some reactions to anaphylactic shock? - ✓✓✓1) Flushing 50. 2) Hives 51. 3) Nausea 52. What are some reactions to cardiovascular shock? - ✓✓✓1) Hypotension 53. 2) Tachycardia 54. 3) Cardiac Arrest 55. What are some other reactions that may be found as a result of contrast media injection? - ✓✓✓1) Nausea/Vomiting 56. 2) Sneezing 57. 3) Sensation of Heat 58. 4) Itching 59. 5) Hoarseness of Voice 60. 6) Coughing 61. 7) Urticaria 62. 8) Dyspnea 63. 9) Loss of Consciousness 64. 10) Convulsions 65. 11) Cardiac Arrest 66. 12) Paralysis 67. 13) Change in Orientation 68. ________ contains negatively and positively charged ions. - ✓✓✓Iodinated Ionic Contrast Media 69. ________ do not ionize into separate negative and positive charges. - ✓✓✓Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media 70. ________ has a far lower incidence of contrast agent reactions because it is not ionized. - ✓✓✓Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media 71. What is the atomic number for iodine? - ✓✓✓53 72. What is the atomic number for barium? - ✓✓✓56 73. What is the atomic number for tungsten? - ✓✓✓74 74. What letter represents the atomic mass number? - ✓✓✓A 75. What letter represents the atomic number? - ✓✓✓Z 76. In what order is venipuncture performed? - ✓✓✓1) Wash hands. 77. 2) Put on gloves. 78. 3) Place tourniquet in place. 79. 4) Select vein. 80. 5) Cleanse area. 81. 6) Remove air from syringe/tubing. 82. 7) Insert needle. 83. 8) Observe blood flow into catheter. 84. 9) Remove tourniquet. 85. 10) Begin injection. 86. When handling chemicals and they are exposed to skin, the area should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes. - ✓✓✓5 87. When handling chemicals and they splash into the eyes, the eyes should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes. - ✓✓✓15 88. This is used to define radiation exposure or radiation delivered to a specific point. - ✓✓✓Air Kerma 89. Air kerma is measured in ________. - ✓✓✓Gray (Gyᵃ) 90. This is sometimes used to measure exposure, but the preferred unit is air kerma. - ✓✓✓Coulombs/Kilogram 91. This is used to define the amount of energy absorbed per unit mass of tissue. - ✓✓✓Absorbed Dose 92. Absorbed dose is measured in ________. - ✓✓✓Gray (Gyᵗ) 93. This is used to define the product of absorbed dose (Gy) times the radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). - ✓✓✓Equivalent Dose 94. ________ takes into account the biologic impact of the type and energy of the radiation being used. - ✓✓✓Radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). 95. This is used to define the estimated risk present when various tissues are irradiated. - ✓✓✓Effective Dose 96. Effective dose uses the ________, and takes into account the relative radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ or body part. - ✓✓✓Tissue weighting factor (Wᵀ). 121. 2) 0.5 Å 122. The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual, is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Effective Dose 123. What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure? - ✓✓✓50 mSv 124. What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye? - ✓✓✓150 mSv 125. What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the localized areas of the skin, hands and feet? - ✓✓✓500 mSv 126. This is calculated by multiplying the radiographer's age in years times 10 mSv. - ✓✓✓Cumulative effective dose limit. 127. The annual effective dose limit for students over the age of 18 is ________. - ✓✓✓50 mSv 128. The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure is ________. - ✓✓✓1 mSv 129. The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure is ________. - ✓✓✓5 mSv 130. The total equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus for the entire gestational period is ________. - ✓✓✓5 mSv 131. The equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus per month is ________. - ✓✓✓0.5 mSv 132. Effects that occur by chance and which may occur without a threshold level of dose, whose probability is proportional to the dose and whose severity is independent of the dose: - ✓✓✓Stochastic Effects 133. Effects that have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose: - ✓✓✓Deterministic Effects 134. ________ is somatic cell division that comprises of four phases. When division is complete, each new cell contains 46 chromosomes. - ✓✓✓Mitosis 135. What are the four phases of mitosis? - ✓✓✓1) Prophase 136. 2) Metaphase 137. 3) Anaphase 138. 4) Telophase 139. ________ is germ (sperm or ovum) cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in each cell so that the union of two germ cells produces a new cell with 46 chromosomes. - ✓✓✓Meiosis 140. This occurs when radiation transfers its energy directly to the DNA or RNA. - ✓✓✓Direct Effect 141. Because a cell contains mostly water, the probability that it will be struck by radiation is greater. This interaction is known as the ________ effect. - ✓✓✓Indirect 142. ________ of water occurs as radiation energy is deposited into the water of a cell. - ✓✓✓Radiolysis 143. Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This describes: - ✓✓✓The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau. 144. If cells are more oxygenated, they are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes: - ✓✓✓Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) 145. A whole-body dose of ________ will depress the blood count. - ✓✓✓0.25 Gy 146. Somatic effects are evident in the ________ being exposed. - ✓✓✓Organism 147. Doses causing somatic effects are much ________ than those received in general diagnostic radiography. - ✓✓✓Higher 148. What are some examples of early somatic effects (acute radiation syndrome)? - ✓✓✓1) Hematopoietic Syndrome 149. 2) GI Syndrome 150. 3) Central Nervous System Syndrome 151. What is hematopoietic syndrome? - ✓✓✓It decreases the total number of all blood cells, and can lead to death. 176. Fluoroscopy timers must sound an alarm after ________ minutes (________ seconds) of beam-on time. - ✓✓✓1) 5 177. 2) 300 178. Fluoroscopy exposure switches must be of the ________ type. - ✓✓✓Dead-Man 179. Limit dose during fluoroscopy at the tabletop may be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute. - ✓✓✓100 180. Limit use of high-level-control fluoroscopy during interventional procedures must be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute. - ✓✓✓200 181. The total of air kerma striking the surface of the patient is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Dose Area Product (DAP) 182. Dose area product (DAP) is expressed as ________. - ✓✓✓mGy-cm² 183. The average dose to active bone marrow is the _________. - ✓✓✓Mean Marrow Dose 184. Radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the persons actually being exposed (the average gonadal dose to the childbearing-age population) is known as: - ✓✓✓Genetically-Significant Dose (GSD) 185. Primary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent. - ✓✓✓1/16-Inch 186. Primary barriers must be located where the ________ may strike the wall or the floor. - ✓✓✓Primary Beam 187. If in the wall, primary barriers must extend to a height of ________ feet. - ✓✓✓7 188. Secondary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent. - ✓✓✓1/32-Inch 189. Secondary barriers must extend from where the primary protective barrier ends, and extend to the ________. - ✓✓✓Ceiling 190. Primary and secondary protective barriers must overlap by at least ________. - ✓✓✓1/2-Inch 191. Secondary protective barriers must be located wherever ________ or ________ radiation may strike. - ✓✓✓1) Leakage 192. 2) Scatter 193. The x-ray control booth is considered to be a ________ protective barrier. - ✓✓✓Secondary 194. The lead window in a control booth enclosure is usually ________ lead equivalent. - ✓✓✓1.5 mm 195. Measured in mA minutes per week, ________ takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. - ✓✓✓Workload 196. The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier defines the ________. - ✓✓✓Use Factor 197. Uncontrolled areas must be shielded to ensure an effective dose limit to the general public of ________ per week. - ✓✓✓20 µSv 198. Controlled areas must be shielded to keep exposure under ________ per week. - ✓✓✓1 µSv 199. Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube housing may not exceed ________ per hour at a distance ________ from the housing. - ✓✓✓1) 1 mGyᵃ 200. 2) 1 m 201. The protective curtain on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent. - ✓✓✓0.25 mm 202. The bucky slot shield on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent. - ✓✓✓0.25 mm 203. The least scatter radiation is measured at a ________- degree angle from the patient. - ✓✓✓90 204. Scatter-beam intensity at an angle 90-degrees from the patient is ________ the intensity of the primary beam at a distance of ________ meter. - ✓✓✓1) 1/1000 205. 2) 1 206. ________ dosimeters use aluminum oxide to record dose. - ✓✓✓OSL 207. An aluminum oxide layer is stimulated by a ________ after the wear period. - ✓✓✓Laser Beam 231. An autotransformer is also known as a ________ transformer. - ✓✓✓Variable 232. An autotransformer is constructed with: - ✓✓✓A single coil of wire with an iron core. 233. The autotransformer is the source for selecting ________. - ✓✓✓kVp 234. Autotransformers operate on the principle of ________. - ✓✓✓Self-Induction 235. The ________ is in the x-ray circuit to indicate the voltage that is selected. - ✓✓✓Prereading Voltmeter 236. The prereading voltmeter is prereading because it indicates the ________ that will be flowing through the tube once the exposure is made. - ✓✓✓Kilovoltage 237. The prereading voltmeter is placed in the circuit between the ________ and the ________. - ✓✓✓1) Autotransformer 238. 2) Step-Up Transformer 239. A ________ is used to regulate the duration of the x-ray exposure. - ✓✓✓Timer 240. The timer is wired in the circuit between the ________ and the ________. - ✓✓✓1) Autotransformer 241. 2) Step-Up Transformer 242. Electronic timers allow exposures as low as ________. - ✓✓✓1 ms or 1/1000 second. 243. The ________ provides the safest tube current in the shortest possible time. - ✓✓✓mAs Timer 244. The mAs timer measures the total ________. - ✓✓✓Tube Current 245. The mAs timer is located ________ the secondary coil of the step-up transformer. - ✓✓✓After 246. The mAs timer is generally used with ________ generators. - ✓✓✓Falling Load 247. ________ is used to provide consistency of radiographic quality. - ✓✓✓Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) 248. AEC consists of a flat ________ chamber that is located between the ________ and the ________. - ✓✓✓1) Ionization 249. 2) Patient 250. 3) Image Receptor 251. AEC uses a ________ kVp, while the machine controls the ________. - ✓✓✓1) Fixed 252. 2) mAs 253. The shortest exposure time possible with an AEC is ________. - ✓✓✓1 ms or 1/1000 second. 254. A ________ is a modern generator that takes advantage of extremely short time capabilities and tube heat-loading potential. - ✓✓✓Falling Load Generator 255. With a falling load generator, the radiographer sets ________ and ________, and the generator calculates the most efficient method of obtaining the required ________. - ✓✓✓1) kVp 256. 2) mAs 257. 3) mAs 258. A ________ transformer consists of primary coils and secondary coils. - ✓✓✓Step-Up or High-Voltage 259. A step-up transformer requires ________ current in order to operate. - ✓✓✓Alternating 260. The ________ coil of a step-up transformer receives voltage from the autotransformer . - ✓✓✓Primary 261. Step-up transformers operate on the principle of ________. - ✓✓✓Mutual Induction 262. The ________ describes the number of turns in the wire in the primary coil, compared to the number of turns in the wire of the secondary coil. - ✓✓✓Turns Ratio 263. Turns Ratio Formula (Autotransformer Law): - ✓✓✓ 264. The turns ratio determines how much ________ is stepped-up. - ✓✓✓Voltage 265. The ________ the turns ratio, the higher the resulting ________. - ✓✓✓1) Greater 266. 2) Kilovoltage 267. The turns ratio may be ________ to ________, depending on the equipment. - ✓✓✓1) 500 294. The anode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube. - ✓✓✓Positive 295. The cathode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube. - ✓✓✓Negative 296. An anode rotates anywhere from ________ to ________ rpm. - ✓✓✓1) 3300 297. 2) 10000 298. The target angle of the anode allows for a ________ actual focal spot, while producing a ________ effective focal spot. This effect is known as the ________. - ✓✓✓1) Larger 299. 2) Smaller 300. 3) Line Focus Principle 301. The target angle may be ________ to ________ degrees, depending on the tube design. - ✓✓✓1) 7 302. 2) 20 303. When electrons travel from the cathode to the anode, they travel at up to ________ the speed of ________. - ✓✓✓1) Half 304. 2) Light 305. When electrons strike the anode, the kinetic energy converts the electrons into ________ and ________. - ✓✓✓1) Heat 306. 2) X-Rays 307. When striking the anode, the electron conversion to heat is approximately ________%. - ✓✓✓99.8 308. When striking the anode, the electron conversion to x- rays is approximately ________%. - ✓✓✓0.2 309. ________ are a calculation of the total heat produced during an x-ray exposure. - ✓✓✓Heat Units 310. Heat units for single-phase full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula: - ✓✓✓kVp x mAs 311. Heat units for three-phase, six-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula: - ✓✓✓kVp x mAs x 1.35 312. Heat units for three-phase, twelve-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula: - ✓✓✓kVp x mAs x 1.41 313. The x-ray tube for fluoroscopy is operated at ________ to ________ mA. - ✓✓✓1) 3 314. 2) 5 315. kVp and mAs are automatically adjusted during fluoroscopy by a process known as ________. - ✓✓✓Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) 316. Automatic brightness control is also called ________ or ________. - ✓✓✓1) Automatic Brightness Stabilization 317. 2) Automatic Gain Control 318. The ________ receives exit rays from the patient and converts then into visible light. - ✓✓✓Input Phosphor 319. Visible light from the input phosphor strikes the ________, which is a thin layer next to the input phosphor. - ✓✓✓Photocathode 320. The photocathode releases electrons in amounts ________ proportional to the visible light striking it. - ✓✓✓Directly 321. Electrons from the photocathode are concentrated and directed toward the other end of the image-intensifier tube by a series of ________ and by ________ kVp applied through the tube. - ✓✓✓1) Electrostatic Lenses (Focusing Lenses) 322. 2) 25 323. Once electrons are propelled across the tube from the photocathode, they strike the ________. - ✓✓✓Output Phosphor 324. Once the energy of the electrons hits the output phosphor, it is converted by the phosphor to ________ in amounts ________ to ________ times greater than the photocathode. - ✓✓✓1) Visible Light 325. 2) 50 326. 3) 75 327. The increase in brightness from the photocathode to the output phosphor is known as ________. - ✓✓✓Flux Gain 328. The ________ phosphor is smaller than the ________ phosphor, resulting in an increase in brightness known as ________. - ✓✓✓1) Output 329. 2) Input 330. 3) Minification Gain 352. ________ is used for ordering procedures and reporting results. - ✓✓✓Radiology Information System (RIS) 353. ________ is a comprehensive collection of patient information stored in a digital format that may be shared across networks. Data may include history, medications, allergies, test results and vital signs. - ✓✓✓Electronic Medical Record (EMR) 354. The sharpness of the structural edges recorded on the images is known as: - ✓✓✓Spacial Resolution 355. Spacial resolution may be described as the ________ representation of the part being imaged. - ✓✓✓Geometric 356. The highest spacial resolution that can be recorded, and is controlled by pixel pitch, is known as: - ✓✓✓Nyquist Frequency 357. The amount of radiation striking the image receptor is known as: - ✓✓✓Receptor Exposure 358. The measurement of the luminance of an area in a radiographic image displayed on a monitor is known as: - ✓✓✓Brightness 359. The visible difference between any two selected areas of brightness levels within the displayed radiographic images is known as: - ✓✓✓Contrast 360. The number of brightness levels (or shades of gray) visible on an image is linked to the bit depth of a system, and is known as: - ✓✓✓Grayscale 361. When slight differences between gray shades is present (low contrast) but the total number of gray shades is great, it is known as: - ✓✓✓Long Scale Contrast 362. When considerable or major differences between gray shades are present (high contrast), but the total number of gray shades is small, it is known as: - ✓✓✓Short Scale Contrast 363. Contrast resolution is controlled by ________, or the number of bits per pixel. - ✓✓✓Bit Depth 364. With larger the bit depth, ________ levels of gray are possible in an image. - ✓✓✓Greater 365. The range of exposures that may be captured by a detector is known as: - ✓✓✓Dynamic Range 366. The range of exposures that produce quality images at appropriate patient dose is known as: - ✓✓✓Exposure Latitude 367. ________ exposure latitude makes for better visualization of soft tissues and bone. - ✓✓✓Wide 368. The magnitude of the signal difference in the remnant beam as a result of the different absorption characteristics of the tissues and structures making up that part is known as: - ✓✓✓Subject Contrast 369. A digital image is composed of rows and columns called a ________. - ✓✓✓Matrix 370. The matrix size equals the total number of ________ in the image. - ✓✓✓Pixels 371. The ________ component of the martix is the pixel. - ✓✓✓Smallest 372. Pixel stands for ________. - ✓✓✓Picture Element 373. Smaller pixels provide greater ________. - ✓✓✓Spacial Resolution 374. Each pixel in the matrix corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient called a ________. - ✓✓✓Voxel 375. Voxel stands for ________. - ✓✓✓Volume Element 376. The number of pixels per millimeter in the image is known as ________, and is determined by pixel pitch. - ✓✓✓Pixel Density 377. The space from the center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel is known as: - ✓✓✓Pixel Pitch 378. Less space between pixels (pixel pitch) provides for greater ________. - ✓✓✓Spacial Resolution 379. A ________ is constructed to show the radiographer the distribution of pixel values (indicating low, proper, or high exposure). - ✓✓✓Histogram 380. Digital images may be printed onto film by using a ________. - ✓✓✓Laser Camera 401. As kVp potential differences increase, the result is an increased level of ________-wavelength, ________-energy radiation. - ✓✓✓1) Short 402. 2) High 403. kVp ________ affects receptor exposure, although not in a directly ________ relationship. - ✓✓✓1) Directly 404. 2) Proportional 405. As kVp increases, receptor exposure ________. - ✓✓✓Increases 406. As kVp decreases, receptor exposure ________. - ✓✓✓Decreases 407. kVp determines the ________ ability of the x-ray beam. - ✓✓✓Penetrating 408. As kVp is increased, wavelength ________, and x-rays become more penetrating. - ✓✓✓Decreases 409. As kVp is decreased, wavelength ________, and x-rays become less penetrating. - ✓✓✓Increases 410. In increase in kVp of ________% will double the receptor exposure, while a decrease in kVp of ________% will halve the receptor exposure. This is known as the ________. - ✓✓✓1) 15 411. 2) 15 412. 3) 15% Rule 413. The intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of x-rays and the image receptor. This defines the: - ✓✓✓Inverse Square Law 414. Inverse Square Law Formula: - ✓✓✓I₁(D₁)² = I₂(D₂)² 415. Elongation (body part appears longer than normal) is caused by angulation along the ________ axis of the part being imaged. - ✓✓✓Long 416. Foreshortening (body part appears shorter than normal) is caused by angulation against the ________ axis of the part being imaged. - ✓✓✓Main 417. Grids are constructed of ________ strips separated by ________ interspacers. - ✓✓✓1) Lead 418. 2) Aluminum 419. The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips is known as: - ✓✓✓Grid Ratio 420. Grid Ratio Formula: - ✓✓✓H/D 421. The number of lead strips in a grid per inch (or centimeter) is known as: - ✓✓✓Grid Frequency 422. The measure of the ability of a grid to increase contrast is the ________. - ✓✓✓Contrast Improvement Factor 423. The ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is the ________. - ✓✓✓Grid Selectivity 424. Grid conversion factor (GCF) is the amount of exposure ________ necessary to compensate for the ________ of image-forming x-rays and scatter in the cleanup process. - ✓✓✓1) Increase 425. 2) Absorption 426. Grid conversion factor is also known as: - ✓✓✓Bucky Factor Value 427. How do you calculate the new mAs required for a specific grid using the grid conversion factor? - ✓✓✓GCF of selected grid times the current mAs 428. What is the grid conversion factor for a 5:1 grid? - ✓✓✓2 429. What is the grid conversion factor for a 8:1 grid? - ✓✓✓4 430. What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid? - ✓✓✓5 431. What is the grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid? - ✓✓✓6 432. When normal density appears in the middle of a radiograph with decreased density on the sides, this is likely a result of: - ✓✓✓Grid Upside Down 433. When image-forming x-rays are absorbed all across the radiographic field, with cutoff (decreased density) visible over the entire radiograph, this is a result of: - ✓✓✓Grid Off- Level 434. When the central ray does not strike the grid in the center, and there is visible cutoff more to one side of the 459. Fibrous joints are known as ________. - ✓✓✓Synarthroses 460. Fibrous joints are generally ________ and have no joint cavity or capsule. - ✓✓✓Immovable 461. Cartilaginous joints are known as ________. - ✓✓✓Amphiarthroses 462. Cartilaginous joints are ________ movable, but have no joint cavity and are contiguous bones united by cartilage and ligaments. - ✓✓✓Slightly 463. Synovial joints are known as ________. - ✓✓✓Diarthroses 464. Synovial joints are ________ movable, and have bones held together by a fibrous capsule lined with synovial membrane and ligaments. - ✓✓✓Freely 465. There are ________ types of movements capable with synovial joints. - ✓✓✓6 466. A ________ joint permits motion in one plane only, such as an elbow. - ✓✓✓Hinge 467. A ________ joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis, such as a proximal radio- ulner articulation. - ✓✓✓Pivot 468. A ________ joint has opposing surfaces that are concavo-convex, and allow flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, such as the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. - ✓✓✓Saddle 469. A ________ joint is capable of movement in an infinite number of axes, and has a round head of one bone that moves in a cuplike cavity of the approximating base, such as a hip. - ✓✓✓Ball and Socket 470. A ________ joint is capable of permitting articulation of contiguous bones and allows only for gliding momements, such as a wrist or ankle. - ✓✓✓Gliding 471. A ________ joint permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another. Circumduction is possible, but rotation is not. Occurs in areas such as the radiocarpal joints. - ✓✓✓Condyloid 472. A ________ skull is considered to be a typical skull. - ✓✓✓Mesocephalic 473. A ________ skull is short from front to back, and broad from side to side, and shallow from vertex to base. - ✓✓✓Brachycephalic 474. A ________ skull is long from front to back, narrow from side to side, and deep from vertex to base. - ✓✓✓Dolichocephalic 475. Digital radiography is more efficient in ________, ________ and ________ than screen-film radiography. - ✓✓✓1) Time 476. 2) Space 477. 3) Personnel 478. What are the three basic components of a DR imaging system? - ✓✓✓1) Capture Element 479. 2) Coupling Element 480. 3) Collection Element 481. What is a capture element? - ✓✓✓The location where the x-ray is captured. 482. In CR, the capture element is ________ phosphor. - ✓✓✓1) Photostimulable 483. In DR, the capture element may be ________, ________, ________ or ________. - ✓✓✓1) Cesium Iodide (CsI) 484. 2) Sodium Iodide (NaI) 485. 3) Gadolinium Oxysulfide (GdOS) 486. 4) Amorphous Selenium (a-Se) 487. What is a coupling element? - ✓✓✓It is where the x-ray generated signal is transferred to the collection element. 488. A coupling element may be a ________ or ________ optic assembly, a ________ layer or ________. - ✓✓✓1) Lens 489. 2) Fiber 490. 3) Contact 491. 4) a-Se 492. What is a collection element? - ✓✓✓The area in which the x-ray signal is captured via light or electrons. 493. The collection system may be a ________, a ________ or a ________. - ✓✓✓1) Photodiode 494. 2) CCD 521. 3) Electric 522. Overcoming the challenge of creating a seamless image at the edge of each CCD is accomplished by ________ of pixel values at each tile ________. - ✓✓✓1) Interpolation 523. 2) Interface 524. An early application of DR involved the use of CsI to capture the x-rays, as well as transmission of the resulting scintillation light to a ________ element. - ✓✓✓Collection 525. A collection element is ________ sandwiched as a ________. - ✓✓✓1) Silicon 526. 2) TFT 527. Silicon is a ________ that is usually grown as a ________. - ✓✓✓1) Semiconductor 528. 2) Crystal 529. When identified as amorphous silicon (a-silicon), the silicon is not ________ but is a ________ that can be painted onto a supporting surface. - ✓✓✓1) Crystalline 530. 2) Liquid 531. CsI has a high ________ capture because the atomic number of cesium is ________ and Iodine is ________. - ✓✓✓1) Photoelectric 532. 2) 55 533. 3) 53 534. X-ray interaction with CsI is high, resulting in ________ patient dose. - ✓✓✓Low 535. A DR image receptor is fabricated into individual ________. - ✓✓✓Pixels 536. Each pixel in a DR has a light-sensitive face of ________, with a capacitor and a TFT embedded. - ✓✓✓a- Si 537. CsI/a-Si is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first into light and then to electric signal. - ✓✓✓Indirect 538. Because a portion of the DR pixel face is occupied by conductors, capacitors and the TFT, it is not totally sensitive to the incident image-forming ________. - ✓✓✓X-ray Beam 539. The percentage of the pixel face in DR that is sensitive to x-rays is known as: - ✓✓✓Fill Factor 540. The fill factor is approximately ________%, therefore ________% of the x-ray beam does not contribute to the image. - ✓✓✓1) 80 541. 2) 20 542. As pixel size is reduced ________ resolution improves, but at the expense of ________. - ✓✓✓1) Spacial 543. 2) Patient Dose 544. With smaller pixels, the fill factor is ________ and x-ray intensity must be ________ to maintain adequate signal strength. - ✓✓✓1) Reduced 545. 2) Increased 546. ________ in DR is pixel limited. - ✓✓✓Spacial Resolution 547. With amorphous selenium, the image-forming x-ray beam interacts directly with the ________, producing a charged ________. - ✓✓✓1) a-Se 548. 2) Pair 549. a-Se is a ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted to electric signal. - ✓✓✓Direct 550. X-rays incident on the a-Se create electron hole ________ through direct ________ of selenium. - ✓✓✓1) Pairs 551. 2) Ionization 552. A created a-Se charge is collected by a storage ________ and remains there until the signal is read by the ________ action of the TFT. - ✓✓✓1) Capacitor 553. 2) Switching 554. In mammography, ________ is more important than spacial resolution for soft tissue radiography. - ✓✓✓Contrast Resolution 555. Because contrast resolution is most important in mammography, ________ has been shown to be superior to screen-film mammography. - ✓✓✓DR 556. What is spacial resolution? - ✓✓✓The ability of an imaging system to record small high-contrast objects. 557. Spacial resolution is usually described as the ________ of an object that can be ________. - ✓✓✓1) Size 558. 2) Viewed 582. Digital imaging systems have ________ contrast resolution than screen-film imaging. - ✓✓✓Better 583. The principal descriptor for contrast resolution is grayscale, also called ________ range. - ✓✓✓Dynamic 584. ________ range is the number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce. - ✓✓✓Dynamic 585. The dynamic range of digital imaging systems is identified by the ________ of each pixel. - ✓✓✓Bit Capacity 586. CT and MRI imaging systems generally have a ________-bit dynamic range. - ✓✓✓12 (2¹²) 587. 12-bit (2¹²) systems contain ________ shades of gray. - ✓✓✓4096 588. DR may have a ________-bit dynamic range. - ✓✓✓14 (2¹⁴) 589. 14-bit (2¹⁴) systems contain ________ shades of gray. - ✓✓✓16,384 590. Because contrast resolution is so important in mammography, these systems have a ________-bit dynamic range. - ✓✓✓16 (2¹⁶) 591. 16-bit (2¹⁶) systems contain ________ shades of gray. - ✓✓✓65,536 592. The response of a digital imaging system is ________ to ________ orders of magnitude, as opposed to ________orders of magnitude for a screen-film system. - ✓✓✓1) Four 593. 2) Five 594. 3) Three 595. A principal advantage of digital imaging is the ability to ________-process and ________-process the image. - ✓✓✓1) Pre 596. 2) Post 597. ________ allows visualization of all shades of gray. - ✓✓✓Postprocessing 598. With the use of ________ and ________ postprocessing tools, any region of grayscale can be expanded into a white-to-black grayscale. - ✓✓✓1) Window 599. 2) Level 600. ________ resolution is more important that ________ resolution when soft tissue is imaged. - ✓✓✓1) Contrast 601. 2) Spacial 602. What is SNR? - ✓✓✓Signal-to-Noise Ratio 603. The signal in a radiographic image is that portion of the image-forming x-rays that represents ________. - ✓✓✓Anatomy 604. A signal represents the ________ between those x-rays transmitted to the image receptor, and those ________ photoelectrically. - ✓✓✓1) Difference 605. 2) Absorbed 606. Sources of image noise include ________ radiation and factors associated with the image ________. - ✓✓✓1) Scatter 607. 2) Receptor 608. Noise ________ contrast resolution, therefore we strive for the highest SNR possible, while adhering to ALARA. - ✓✓✓Limits 609. In general, as the ________ is increased, the SNR is also increased, but at the expense of patient ________. - ✓✓✓1) mAs 610. 2) Dose 611. Another way to increase SNR is seen in digital ________ angiography (DSA). - ✓✓✓Subtraction 612. With digital imaging, we can reduce patient dose by ________% to ________%. The opposite has occurred because of dose ________. - ✓✓✓1) 20 613. 2) 50 614. 3) Creep 615. Because digital can always yield a good image, it's possible for the technologist to forget to change the ________ factors between exposures. This results in an overall ________ in patient dose. - ✓✓✓1) Technique 616. 2) Increase 617. Patient dose reduction should be possible because of the way in which a digital image receptor responds to x-rays, and because of a property known as detective ________ efficiency. - ✓✓✓Quantum 643. Liquid crystal materials are ________ organic molecules that are ________ charged, forming a natural molecular ________. - ✓✓✓1) Linear 644. 2) Electrically 645. 3) Dipole 646. Liquid crystals can be ________ through the action of an external ________ field. - ✓✓✓1) Aligned 647. 2) Electric 648. AMLCD's are fashioned ________ by ________. - ✓✓✓1) Pixel 649. 2) Pixel 650. An AMLCD has a very intense white ________ that illuminates each ________. - ✓✓✓1) Backlight 651. 2) Pixel 652. Each pixel of an AMLCD contains light-________ filters and ________ to control the intensity and color of light transmitted through the pixel. - ✓✓✓1) Polarizing 653. 2) Films 654. The pixels in an AMLCD consists of ________ glass plate substrates that are separated by ________ glass beads, and act as spacers. - ✓✓✓1) Two 1) Spherical 655. How large are the spherical glass beads contained in the glass plate substrates of an AMLCD pixel? - ✓✓✓A few microns in diameter. 656. Bus lines (conductors) control each pixel of an AMLCD with a thin-________ transistor (TFT). - ✓✓✓Film 657. With AMLCD, ________ resolution improves with the use of a higher-megapixel digital display device. - ✓✓✓Spacial 658. An AMLCD is a very ________ device. - ✓✓✓Inefficient 659. Only about ________% of the backlight of an AMLCD is transmitted through a monochrome monitor, and ________ of that through a color monitor. - ✓✓✓1) 10 660. 2) Half 661. Why is the luminescence of AMLCD so inefficient? - ✓✓✓Because light is absorbed in the filters and polarizers. Also due to each pixel being blocked by the TFT and bus lines. 662. What is an aperture ratio? - ✓✓✓The portion of the pixel face that is available to transmit light. 663. Aperture ratios of ________% and ________% are characteristic of medical AMLCD devices. - ✓✓✓1) 50 664. 2) 80 665. The term "active" in AMLCD refers to the ability to control individually each ________ of the digital display device. The ________ is required for the active read. - ✓✓✓1) Pixel 666. 2) TFT 667. AMLCD's have better ________ definition than CRT's, and less intrinsic ________. - ✓✓✓1) Grayscale 668. 2) Noise 669. AMLCD's are designed to better reduce the influence of ________ light on image ________. - ✓✓✓1) Ambient 670. 2) Contrast 671. The principal disadvantage of an AMLCD is the ________ dependence of viewing. - ✓✓✓Angular 672. Levels of ambient light at a workstation must be near ________ for best viewing. - ✓✓✓Darkness 673. Preprocessing is designed to produce ________-free digital images. - ✓✓✓Artifact 674. Preprocessing implements electronic ________ to reduce pixel-to-pixel, row-to-row, and column-to-column ________ differences. - ✓✓✓1) Calibration 675. 2) Response 676. The process of pixel ________, lag ________, and ________ correction are automatically applied with most systems. - ✓✓✓1) Interpolation 677. 2) Correction 678. 3) Noise 679. ________ is where digital imaging shines. - ✓✓✓Postprocessing 680. Postprocessing refers to anything that can be done to a digital image after it is acquired by the ________. - ✓✓✓Digital Imaging System 702. What does PACS stand for? - ✓✓✓Picture Archiving and Communication System 703. What are the four principal components of a PACS system? - ✓✓✓1) Image Acquisition System 704. 2) Display System 705. 3) Network 706. 4) Storage System 707. The term ________ is used to describe the manner in which many computers and devices can be connected to interact with one another. - ✓✓✓Network 708. ________ is the process of remote transmission and viewing of images. - ✓✓✓Teleradiology 709. To ensure adaptability between imaging systems, the ACR and NEMA have produced a standard imaging interface format known as ________. - ✓✓✓DICOM 710. What does DICOM stand for? - ✓✓✓Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine 711. A great advantage of PACS is ________, which helps to save space in the hospital usually allocated to film storage. - ✓✓✓Archiving 712. With PACS, a film room is replaced by a ________ or ________ memory device. - ✓✓✓1) Magnetic 713. 2) Optical 714. Electronically, images stored in PACS can be recalled from the archival system to any ________ in seconds. - ✓✓✓Workstation 715. Backup PACS storage is accommodated ________ at a digital data storage vendor. - ✓✓✓Offsite 716. Offsite PACS backups are needed should the main storage files onsite become ________. - ✓✓✓Corrupted 717. Rotor - ✓✓✓ 718. Stator Coils - ✓✓✓ 719. Rotating Anode - ✓✓✓ 720. Target - ✓✓✓ 721. Window - ✓✓✓ 722. Glass Envelope - ✓✓✓ 723. Filament - ✓✓✓ 724. Focusing Cup - ✓✓✓ 725. Supporting Wires - ✓✓✓ 726. 2 - ⁰ ✓✓✓Due to, Secondary to 727. ć - ✓✓✓With 728. ś - ✓✓✓Without 729. ∆ - ✓✓✓Change 730. ↑ - ✓✓✓Increased 731. ↓ - ✓✓✓Decreased 732. ♂ - ✓✓✓Male 733. ♀ - ✓✓✓Female 734. + - ✓✓✓Positive - - ✓✓✓Negative 735. AAA - ✓✓✓Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm 736. AAS - ✓✓✓Acute Abdominal Series 737. abd - ✓✓✓Abdomen 738. ABG - ✓✓✓Arterial Blood Gas 739. Abn - ✓✓✓Abnormal 740. AC - ✓✓✓Acromioclavicular 741. AIDS - ✓✓✓Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome 742. AK - ✓✓✓Above the Knee 743. AKA - ✓✓✓Above the Knee Amputation 744. ALOC - ✓✓✓Altered Level of Consciousness 745. AMA - ✓✓✓Against Medical Advise 746. AMS - ✓✓✓Altered Mental Status 780. CHF - ✓✓✓Congestive Heart Failure 781. cm - ✓✓✓Centimeter 782. CNS - ✓✓✓Central Nervous System 783. c/o - ✓✓✓Complains of 784. COPD - ✓✓✓Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 785. CSF - ✓✓✓Cerebrospinal Fluid 786. CT - ✓✓✓Computerized Tomography 787. CVA - ✓✓✓Cerebrovascular Accident 788. CVP - ✓✓✓Central Venous Pressure 789. CXR - ✓✓✓Chest X-Ray 790. dc - ✓✓✓Discontinue (Stop Giving) 791. DC - ✓✓✓Discharge (From Hospital, Unit, Etc.) 792. DJD - ✓✓✓Degenerative Joint Disease 793. DM - ✓✓✓Diabetes Mellitus 794. DNR - ✓✓✓Do Not Resuscitate 795. DOA - ✓✓✓Dead on Arrival 796. DOB - ✓✓✓Date of Birth 797. DT's - ✓✓✓Delirium Tremens 798. DVT - ✓✓✓Deep Vein Thrombosis 799. Dx - ✓✓✓Diagnosis 800. Dz - ✓✓✓Disease 801. ED - ✓✓✓Emergency Department 802. EKG - ✓✓✓Electrocardiogram 803. ECG - ✓✓✓Electrocardiogram 804. ENT - ✓✓✓Ear, Nose and Throat 805. ER - ✓✓✓Emergency Room 806. ERCP - ✓✓✓Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram 807. ET - ✓✓✓Endotracheal 808. ETA - ✓✓✓Estimated Time of Arrival 809. ETOH - ✓✓✓Ethanol (Drinking Alcohol) 810. ETT - ✓✓✓Endotracheal Tube 811. F - ✓✓✓Female 812. FB - ✓✓✓Foreign Body 813. FU - ✓✓✓Follow-Up 814. F/U - ✓✓✓Follow-Up 815. FUO - ✓✓✓Fever of Undetermined Origin 816. Fx - ✓✓✓Fracture 817. GB - ✓✓✓Gallbladder 818. GCS - ✓✓✓Glasgow Coma Scale 819. GI - ✓✓✓Gastrointestinal 820. GSW - ✓✓✓Gunshot Wound 821. GU - ✓✓✓Genitourinary 822. Gyn - ✓✓✓Gynecology 823. H&P - ✓✓✓History and Physical 824. H/A - ✓✓✓Headache 825. HIV - ✓✓✓Human Immunodeficiency Virus 826. HSG - ✓✓✓Hysterosalpingogram 827. HTN - ✓✓✓Hypertension 828. I&D - ✓✓✓Irrigation and Drainage 829. IBD - ✓✓✓Inflammatory Bowel Disease 864. MICU - ✓✓✓Medical Intensive Care Unit 865. ml - ✓✓✓Milliliter 866. mm - ✓✓✓Millimeter 867. MRI - ✓✓✓Magnetic Resonance Imaging 868. MVA - ✓✓✓Motor Vehicle Accident 869. Na - ✓✓✓Sodium 870. N/A - ✓✓✓Not Applicable 871. N&V - ✓✓✓Nausea and Vomiting 872. N/V - ✓✓✓Nausea and Vomiting 873. neg - ✓✓✓Negative 874. NG - ✓✓✓Nasogastric 875. NGT - ✓✓✓Nasogastric Tube 876. NICU - ✓✓✓Neonatal Intensive Care Unit 877. NKA - ✓✓✓No Known Allergies 878. NKDA - ✓✓✓No Known Drug Allergies 879. NKFA - ✓✓✓No Known Food Allergies 880. NPO - ✓✓✓Nothing by Mouth 881. NWB - ✓✓✓Non-Weight Bearing 882. O2 - ✓✓✓Oxygen 883. o.d. - ✓✓✓Overdose 884. O.D. - ✓✓✓Right Eye 885. O.S. - ✓✓✓Left Eye 886. obl. - ✓✓✓Oblique 887. OR - ✓✓✓Operating Room 888. ORIF - ✓✓✓Open Reduction, Internal Fixation 889. PA - ✓✓✓Posteroanterior 890. PACU - ✓✓✓Post Anesthesia Care Unit 891. PCN - ✓✓✓Penicillin 892. PCXR - ✓✓✓Portable Chest X-Ray 893. PE - ✓✓✓Pulmonary Embolus 894. PID - ✓✓✓Pelvic Inflammatory Disease 895. PIP - ✓✓✓Proximal Interphalangeal 896. po - ✓✓✓By Mouth 897. pos - ✓✓✓Positive 898. Post. - ✓✓✓Posterior 899. post red. - ✓✓✓Following Reduction (of Fracture or Dislocation) 900. PPD - ✓✓✓Purified Protein Derivative (TB Test) 901. prn - ✓✓✓When Needed 902. pt. - ✓✓✓Patient 903. Pt. - ✓✓✓Patient 904. q - ✓✓✓Each, Every 905. QID - ✓✓✓Four Times a Day 906. r/o - ✓✓✓Rule Out 907. R/O - ✓✓✓Rule Out 908. R - ✓✓✓Right 909. RA - ✓✓✓Rheumatoid Arthritis 910. RAT - ✓✓✓Rapid Assessment Team 911. RBC - ✓✓✓Red Blood Cells 912. RDS - ✓✓✓Respiratory Distress Syndrome 913. RLE - ✓✓✓Right Lower Extremity