ARRT Registry Exam review 550 Questions & Answers rated 100% correct., Exams of Health sciences

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ARRT Registry Exam review 550 Questions & Answers

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1. What is the correct term used to describe an intravenous injection of a concentrated volume of contrast media? a. bolus b. infusion c. extravasation d. luminal - ✓✓✓a. bolus
2. Which of the following methods utilizes a detector that captures x-ray energy and converts it into an electronic signal? a. indirect capture b. CCD c. cassette based radiography d. direct capture - ✓✓✓d. direct capture
3. The energy of a characteristic x-ray photon created when an L shell electron fills a K shell vacancy in a tungsten atom will have which of the following energies? a. 69.5 keV b. 57.5 keV c. 91.5 keV d. 12 keV - ✓✓✓b. 57.5 keV
4. The energy of characteristic photons is determined by the difference in binding energies between the two electron shells involved in the process, which in this question are K and L shells. 69.5 (K shell) minus 12 (L shell) equals 57.5.
5. Identify the position that will place the positive contrast agent in the body of the stomach and pyloris during a double contrast upper GI exam? a. recumbent LPO b. supine c. recumbent RPO d. prone - ✓✓✓d. prone
6. which position/projection will best demonstrate the broad aspect of the frontal air sinus? - ✓✓✓PA
7. Which position will best demonstrate the right axillary portion of the ribs? - ✓✓✓RPO
8. Which position will emphasize the mucosal lining of the medial wall of the descending colon during a lower GI exam? - ✓✓✓left lateral decubitus

9. Which projection of the wrist will best demonstrate the interspaces of the carpal bone? - ✓✓✓AP
10. An image is acquired with computed radiography using which of the following methods? a. a cassette that is electronically charged b. conventional film/screen processing c. the use of a storage phosphor d. nonne of the above - ✓✓✓c. the use of a storage phosphor
11. A transformer constructed with 10,00 primary turns and 2,500 secondary turns will yield an output voltage of _____ when being supplied with 210 volts. a. 2710 volts b. 52.5 volts c. 840 volts d. 525 volts - ✓✓✓b. 52.5 volts
12. Which of the following circuit components is considered to be the source for kVp? a. step-up transformer b. autotransformer c. step-down transformer d. high voltage transformer - ✓✓✓b. autotransformer
13. Which of the following meds is administered to a patient during an allergic reaction? a. Adenocard b. Intropin c. Lasix d. Decadron - ✓✓✓d. Decadron
14. If the improper body part is selected from the exam menu, which of the following may result? a. there will be no image b. there may be image misinterpretation c. will exhibit proper contrast and density d. image sharpness will not be affected - ✓✓✓b. there may be image misinterpretation
15. Which of the following combinations are needed in digital radiography system to produce an image? a. intensifying screen & TFT b. x-ray absorber & CCD
16. c.. storage phosphor plate & CCD
17. d. storage phosphor plate & TFT - ✓✓✓b. x-ray absorber & CCD
18. Exposure latitude is also known as which of the following?

d. 12.5 - ✓✓✓5%

26. Average body build comprising 50% of the population? - ✓✓✓Sthenic
27. Below average body build comprising 35% of the population? - ✓✓✓Hyposthenic
28. Extremely small body build comprising 10% of the population? - ✓✓✓Asthenic
29. Above average or massive body build comprising 5% of the population? - ✓✓✓Hypersthenic
30. What makes up the axial skeleton? - ✓✓✓toward the center or middle of the body- includes skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thorax.
31. What makes up the appendicular skeleton? - ✓✓✓upper & lower extremities, the shoulder girdle & pelvic girdle
32. The mastoid process is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓C
33. The thyroid cartilage is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓C4-
34. The vertebral prominens is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓C
35. The sternal/jugular notch is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓T2-
36. The sternal angle is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓T4-
37. The inferior angle of the scapula is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓T
38. The xiphoid tip is located at the level of... - ✓✓✓T
39. The umbilicus is at the level of... - ✓✓✓L3-
40. The iliac crest is at the level of... - ✓✓✓L
41. The greater trochanter is at the level of... - ✓✓✓the pubic symphysis
42. The lower costal margin is at the level of... - ✓✓✓L1-
43. The ASIS is at the level of... - ✓✓✓S
44. AP Axial Skull is also known as... - ✓✓✓"Townes" method
45. PA Axial skull is also known as... - ✓✓✓Caldwell method

46. In a PA Axial skull, where should the petrous ridges be seen? - ✓✓✓projected in the lower third of the orbits
47. The CR for a PA axial skull? - ✓✓✓15 degrees caudad, exiting the nasion
48. The CR for an AP axial skull? - ✓✓✓30 degrees caudad thru the foramen magnum to the OML
49. Which line in perpendicular to the IR for a lateral skull? - ✓✓✓IPL
50. The cassette-based digital image receptor uses which of the following as the image receptor? a. TFT b. PSP c. CCD d. none of the above - ✓✓✓b. PSP
51. PA Axial 25 degree cephalic angle of the Skull is also known as... - ✓✓✓Hass method or Reverse Towne
52. Parietoacanthial projection is also known as... - ✓✓✓Waters method
53. Which view demonstrates all 4 sinus groups without superimposition? - ✓✓✓lateral
54. The waters view of the sinuses primarily demonstrates which sinus? - ✓✓✓maxillary
55. CR for AP axial C-spine? - ✓✓✓15-20 degrees cephalic, entering level of C
56. CR for Anterior oblique of the C-spine? - ✓✓✓15-20 degrees caudad
57. CR for Posterior oblique C-spine? - ✓✓✓15-20 degrees cephalic
58. Anterior obliques of the C-spine demonstrate which foramina? - ✓✓✓the foramina closest to the IR
59. Posterior obliques of the C-spine demonstrate which foramina? - ✓✓✓the foramina farthest from the IR
60. AP/PA scoliosis series is also known as... - ✓✓✓Ferguson method
61. For an AP T-spine, where does the CR enter? - ✓✓✓level of T
62. AP/PA Lumbar spine CR? - ✓✓✓perpendicular to the IR, at the level of iliac crest(L4-5).

82. AP oblique projection of the pelvis, acetabulum is also known as... - ✓✓✓Judet method
83. Which position demonstrates the sternum over the heart shadow to the left of the vertebral column? - ✓✓✓RAO
84. Lateral upper airway demonstrates: a. nasopharynx b. oropharynx c. hyoid bone d. trachea e. all of the above - ✓✓✓e. all of the above
85. Which colic flexure lies lower than the other one? - ✓✓✓right colic flexure lies lower than the left colic flexure
86. CR for supine KUB? - ✓✓✓level of iliac crests
87. During an upper GI, the Upright PA shows... - ✓✓✓the type and relative position of the stomach
88. During an upper GI, the upright left lateral shows... - ✓✓✓the left retrogastric space
89. for a PA skull, how should the petous ridges be seen? - ✓✓✓filling the orbits
90. During an Upper GI, the recumbent PA(prone) shows... - ✓✓✓entire stomach and duodenal loop. Body and pyloris are filled with barium.
91. During a BE, the right lateral decubitus demonstrates... - ✓✓✓the medial side of the ascending colon & the lateral side of the descending colon
92. During a BE, the left lateral decubitus demonstrates... - ✓✓✓the medial side of the descending colon & the lateral side of the ascending colon
93. During a BE, the LPO demonstrates... - ✓✓✓the hepatic flexure and ascending colon
94. During a BE, the RPO demonstrates... - ✓✓✓the splenic flexure and the descending colon
95. CR for PA axial sigmoid? - ✓✓✓30-40 degrees caudad, entering at the top of sacrum
96. CR for AP axial toes? - ✓✓✓15 degrees cephalad

97. CR for AP Axial foot? - ✓✓✓10 degrees toward the heel
98. How many degrees do you rotate the foot for an oblique foot? - ✓✓✓ 30
99. Which of the following results in all-directional scatter? a. compton b. photoelectric c. classical d. coherent - ✓✓✓a. compton
100. which of the following are byproducts of photoelectric absorption? a. photoelectron and Compton scattered electron b. photoelectron and characteristic photon c. low energy scattererd xray photon and characteristic photon d. low energy scattered xray photon and compton scattered electron - ✓✓✓b. photoelectron and characteristic photon
101. which two interactions between x-radiation and matter result in the production of small-angle scatter? a. coherent scattering and Compton scattering b. coherent scattering and pair production c. photoelectric absorption and Compton scattering d. photoelectric absorption and pair production - ✓✓✓a. coherent scattering and Compton scattering
102. which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter into energy? a. modified scattering b. photoelectric absorption c. annihilation reaction d. classical scattering - ✓✓✓c. annihilation reaction
103. CR for AP axial sigmoid? - ✓✓✓30-40 degrees cephalic, 2 inches below the ASIS
104. During the process of coherent scattering, the incident x-ray photon interacts with a(n): a. atom transferring its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the atom to vibrate momentarily and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves b. single inner shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit c. single outer shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit d. scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it - ✓✓✓a. atom transferring its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the atom

112. The symbol Z indicates the: a. atomic weight of an atom b. atomic number of an atom c. number of vacancies in an atomic shell d. fluorescent yield - ✓✓✓b. atomic number of an atom
113. CR for AP upright KUB? - ✓✓✓2-3 inches above the iliac crest
114. What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process of photoelectric absorption? a. Characteristic absorption b. Fluorescent yield c. Modified pair production d. Classical gain - ✓✓✓b. Fluorescent yield
115. What is the effective atomic number of compact bone? - ✓✓✓13.
116. Compton scattering is synonymous with: a. coherent scattering b. photoelectric absorption c. incoherent scattering d. photodisintegration - ✓✓✓c. incoherent scattering
117. Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering? a. Classical b. Elastic c. Unmodified d. Characteristic - ✓✓✓d. characteristic
118. Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter? a. Compton scattering b. Bremsstrahlung c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption - ✓✓✓b. Bremsstrahlung
119. According to the NCRP Report #160, a. individual effective doses have nearly quadrupled since the early 1980s. b. individual exposures have increased principally due to increased utilization of digital imaging technologies. c. the effective dose per individual in the United States primarily increased because of increased fluoroscopic interventional procedures and CT scans. d. individual exposures have decreased due to improved technology and more discrete utilization. - ✓✓✓c. the effective dose per individual in the

United States primarily increased because of increased fluoroscopic interventional procedures and CT scans.

120. How long does the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome generally last? a. A few hours to several days b. Months c. Less than an hour d. Many years - ✓✓✓a. A few hours to several days
121. What occurs as the number of photoelectric interactions increase? a. Absorbed dose increases b. Potential for biologic damage increases c. Radiographic contrast changes d. All of the above - ✓✓✓d. all of the above
122. Alpha is what form of ionizing radiation? - ✓✓✓particulate
123. What can happen when the metabolic activity of cells increases as a result of irradiation? a. Cell reproduction ceases b. Cells reproduce more rapidly c. Cells atrophy d. Cell fluid viscosity decreases - ✓✓✓b. Cells reproduce more rapidly
124. In a linear or nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship, which of the following is true of the biologic response to radiation? a. It will occur at all doses b. It may not occur at low doses c. It will never occur d. It is estimated to be proportional to the dose - ✓✓✓b. it may not occur at low doses
125. Which interaction requires energy greater than 10 MeV? - ✓✓✓photodisintigration
126. The radiation weighting factor for x-ray or gamma radiation is: a. 2. b. 1. c. 10. d. 20. - ✓✓✓b. 1
127. What affects the speed of interphase and mitosis? a. The cell function b. The person's age c. The person's stress level

134. In a quality control program, how often should collimation be evaluated? a. Usually every 2 months b. Once every 5 years c. Generally twice a year d. Annually - ✓✓✓c. generally twice a year
135. The dose-response relationship used to approximate the biologic response to an ionizing radiation dose is which of the following? a. Linear threshold dose-response relationship b. Linear nonthreshold dose-response relationship c. Nonlinear nonthreshold dose-response relationship d. Nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship - ✓✓✓b.
136. Linear nonthreshold dose-response relationship
137. All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT: a. film badge. b. ionization chamber instrument. c. Geiger-Mueller counter. d. scintillation detector. - ✓✓✓a. film badge
138. What is the full occupancy factor? a. 10 b. 100 c. 0 d. 1 - ✓✓✓d. 1
139. What increases the probability of biologic damage? a. Increased ionization per micron of soft-tissue b. Increased LET c. Reduced speed of particles d. All of the above - ✓✓✓d. all of the above
140. Which phase of the cell growth cycle has four subphases? a. M b. G c. S d. G2 - ✓✓✓a. M
141. Most biologic damage resulting from diagnostic x-rays occurs from which of the following? a. Interaction of positive and negative ions b. Recombination of free radicals and positive water ions c. Hydrogen and hydroxyl ions d. Hydrogen peroxide and hydroperoxyl radicals - ✓✓✓d. Hydrogen peroxide and hydroperoxyl radicals

142. What is the relationship between the units gray (Gy) and rad? a. 1 Gy = 100 rad b. They are equal c. 1 Gy = 1/100 rad d. 1 Gy = 0.1 rad - ✓✓✓a. 1 Gy = 100 rad
143. Special gonadal shields should be employed any time the gonads are: a. being radiographed. b. within 1 mm of the primary beam. c. directly in the primary beam. d. within 5 cm of the primary beam. - ✓✓✓d. within 5 cm of the primary beam
144. During Compton scattering, the incident photon energy is divided between the: a. incident photon and the scattered photon. b. recoil electron and the photoelectron. c. recoil electron and the scattered photon. d. incident photon and the recoil electron. - ✓✓✓c. recoil electron and the scattered photon
145. What does the dose equivalent allow us to calculate? a. The effective absorbed dose of all types of ionizing radiation b. The quality factor of a given radiation dose c. The total ionizing radiation exposure during a specific period d. The amount of biologic damage from a particular radiation dose - ✓✓✓a. the effective absorbed dose of all types of ionizing radiation
146. When an embryo-fetus is exposed to high doses of ionizing radiation, mental retardation is most likely to occur at what point in development? a. After week 30 b. During the first 2 weeks c. During the last trimester d. Between weeks 8 and 15 - ✓✓✓d. between weeks 8 and 15
147. Indirect action usually involves what molecule first? a. Non-critical (water) b. Critical c. DNA d. RNA - ✓✓✓a. Non-critical (water)
148. What is the amount of radiation exposure at waist level under a protective lead apron? a. The same as the exposure to the embryo-fetus b. Zero c. Lower than the exposure level of the embryo-fetus

157. Research indicates that high levels of radiation follow which model? a. Linear quadratic nonthreshold b. Linear quadratic threshold c. Linear nonthreshold d. Linear threshold - ✓✓✓c. linear nonthreshold
158. For x-rays and gamma rays approximately ____ of the biological effects on tissue are the result of indirect actions. a. 100 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 70 percent - ✓✓✓d. 70 percent
159. Protective aprons and gloves are usually made of lead-impregnated vinyl within the range of ____ lead equivalency. a. 0.25-1.0 mm b. 0.25-1.0 cm c. 0.1-0.25 mm d. 0.1-0.25 cm - ✓✓✓a. 0.25-1.0 mm
160. The term effective dose-equivalent (EDE) limit refers to which of the following? a. The maximum allowable occupational dose b. The maximum exposure limit of radiographic equipment c. The dose limits of patients d. The point at which adverse biologic effects can be expected - ✓✓✓a. the maximum allowable occupational dose
161. The NCRP recommends a minimum total filtration of ____ for x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp. - ✓✓✓2.5 mm Al/Eq
162. Those who should be included in a personnel monitoring program include which of the following? a. Anyone exposed to radiation b. Anyone likely to receive more than the monthly dose equivalent in 1 month c. Anyone likely to receive more than 1% of the annual total effective dose equivalent in 1 month d. Everyone working in a radiation facility - ✓✓✓c. Anyone likely to receive more than 1% of the annual total effective dose equivalent in 1 month
163. How does the size of a radiation dose affect mean survival time? a. As the dose increases, the mean survival time decreases b. As the dose increases, the mean survival time increases c. As the dose decreases, the mean survival time decreases d. No relationship has been established - ✓✓✓a. As the dose increases, the mean survival time decreases

164. As linear energy transfer(LET) decreases, how is relative biologic effectiveness(RBE) affected? a. RBE is not affected by LET b. decreasing LET neutralizes RBE c. decreasing LET increases RBE d. decreasing LET decreases RBE - ✓✓✓d. decreasing LET decreases RBE
165. How should the technologist identify an in-patient prior to beginning an exam? a. ask the secretary b. check the patient's ID bracelet c. ask the patient their full name d. shout the patient's name out - ✓✓✓b. check the patient's ID bracelet
166. An ER patient's dressing over the site of a puncture wound to the upper extremity quickly becomes saturated with blood. What should be the technologist's first response? a. apply ice over wound b. apply pressure distal to the site and elevate the arm c. apply direct pressure to the site and elevate the arm d. remove the bandage and replace it with a fresh one - ✓✓✓c. apply direct pressure an elevate the arm
167. Identify the type of contrast below that would be the first choice when performing an injection to evaluate a sinus tract in a patient's abdomen? a. water soluble iodinated media b. barium suspension c. oily based iodinated media d. gaseous media - ✓✓✓a. water soluble iodinated media
168. Urticaria is the medical term for... - ✓✓✓hives
169. At what site would you expect to measure the highest value for a "normal" patient temperature? a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. inguinal - ✓✓✓b. rectal
170. what is the minimum height required for hanging an IV to prevent blood from backing up in a patient's IV tubing? a. 2 times the measurement of the patient's chest b. 40 cm (16 inches) above the patient's arm c. 30 cm (12 inches) above the table

b. protective c. universal d. respiratory - ✓✓✓b. protective

178. The normal diastolic blood pressure range for an adult is: a. 40 to 60 mm Hg b. 60 to 80 mm Hg c. 80 to 100 mm Hg d. 110 to 140 mm Hg - ✓✓✓b. 60 to 80 mm Hg
179. The normal respiratory rate for adults is: a. 5 to 8 per minute b. 10 to 12 per minute c. 15 to 20 per minute d. 25 to 30 per minute - ✓✓✓c. 15 to 20 per minute
180. This device delivers oxygen to the patient in the 21-60% range: a. nasal cannula b. oxygen mask c. nasal catheter d. rebreather mask - ✓✓✓a. nasal cannula
181. A Swan-Ganz catheter is a(n): a. urinary catheter b. chest tube c. nasogastric catheter d. angio catheter - ✓✓✓d. angio catheter
182. Negative contrast agents cause subject receptor exposure to ___________ and radiographic receptor exposure to ___________. a. decrease; increase b. increase; increase c. increase; decrease d. decrease; decrease - ✓✓✓a. decrease; increase
183. Syncope is also known as: a. dizziness b. fainting c. headache d. low blood pressure - ✓✓✓b. fainting
184. Which of the following radiographic procedures would require surgical asepsis? a. OCG b. sialography c. myelography

d. bronchography - ✓✓✓c. myelography

185. Which of the following is an example of a non-ionic contrast agent? a. Hypaque b. Isovue c. Renographin d. Conray - ✓✓✓b. Isovue
186. Which of the following procedures would require written informed consent? a. IVU b. UGI c. BE d. Acute abdominal series - ✓✓✓a. IVU
187. Which of the following has no bearing on the type and volume of contrast used on a particular patient? a. age b. weight c. gender d. medication used - ✓✓✓c. gender
188. Which of the following types of shock is the result of external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss? a. septic shock b. anaphylaxis c. cardiogenic shock d. hypovolemic shock - ✓✓✓d. hypovolemic shock
189. Which of the following is an example of a moderate reaction to a contrast agent? a. nausea and vomiting b. very low blood pressure c. tachycardia d. cyanosis - ✓✓✓c. tachycardia
190. What are the 5 things required to be on the requisition? - ✓✓✓1. the patient to be examined
191. 2. the exact region or part to be radiographed
192. 3. the suspected or existing patient diagnosis
193. 4. the ordering physician
194. 5. the date of the requisition
195. What does HIPAA stand for? - ✓✓✓Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act