Effective Communication and Time Management Strategies in the Workplace, Exams of Nursing

Download Effective Communication and Time Management Strategies in the Workplace and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 32 ASAP Exam 2024 (Questions with verified answers) 100% scores 1. Twenty-first century business leaders must be able to: a. Bring out the best in a diverse workforce b. Minimize change and uncertainty c. Identify the best way to complete work tasks d. Access the greatest amount of information possible e. All the above: a. Bring out the best in a diverse workforce (220) 2. Intelligent risk-taking relies on a mindset that allows for: a. Mistakes b. Failure c. Success d. All the above e. a and c only: 3. Team members can take on both task roles and people/process roles. When in a people/process role, a team member would: a. Initiate activities b. Clarify points c. Summarize agreements d. All the above e. None of the above: 4. MIT's Human Dynamics Laboratory found that patterns of communication were the most 2 / 32 important predictor of a team's success. Communication char- acteristics of successful teams include: a. Everyone on the team talks and listens in roughly equal amounts b. Members carry on side conversations within the team c. Members take breaks to explore outside the team d. All the above: 5. You are sending an email to your team that contains instructions for how to place supply orders using the new online system. Which of the following subject lines is most appropriate? a. Important information about ordering b. helpful tips c. Instructions for new online supply ordering system d. Order your own supplies! e. FYI: Supplies: c. Instructions for new online supply ordering system (76) 6. When posting on any social media tool (including FB, Twitter, etc.), always assume your words and photos: a. Can and will be found by current and future employers, regardless of privacy settings. b. Will be judged by others as a reflection of your character. c. Will remain available online forever. d. May create professional consequences for personal activities. e. All the above: e. All the above (79-80) 7. Former employees represent what kind of security threat? a. Internal b. External c. Partners 5 / 32 15. Silently listening to gossip is a. the most effective response b. a way to avoid participation c. a way to keep yourself "in the know" d. viewed by others as implicit agreement and acceptance e. none of the above: d. viewed by others as implicit agreement and acceptance 16. When an unreasonable request is made, or a reasonable one that you cant realistically meet due to circumstances, your first step should be a. acknowledge that you understand what is being asked and want to help b. offer your new terms c. seek managerial support d. explain your competing priorities e. none of the above: 17. Which of the following is NOT a healthy way of preventing conflict. a. set expectations with others b. let others have their way all the time c. let minor irritations go d. address problems before they are problems e. open the lines of communication: 18. According to The Platinum Rule, Thinkers and Relators are both: a. open meaning, they are expressive b. guarded, meaning they are reserved and formal c. direct, meaning they are forceful, extroverted and fast-paced d. indirect, meaning they are cautious, introverted and slower-paced 6 / 32 e. none of the above: d. indirect, meaning they are cautious, introverted and slower- paced 19. When receiving positive feedback, deflecting attention shows others a. you are humble b. you are mature and self-aware c. you don't recognize or appreciate your own value d. you are receptive to praise e. you are a modest professional: 20. Which of the following is traditionally seen as confident body language? a. direct eye contact b. tapping of fingers or feet c. pointing to specific objects d. lips pursed, eyebrows cinched together e. arms folded across the chest: 21. A quick, introductory statement that helps others get to know who you are is also called a. your personal brand b. an elevator speech c. a personal power statement d. an affirmation e. a sales pitch: b. an elevator speech 22. When evaluating the reliability of a resource, you should consider all of the following factors except 7 / 32 a. publication date b. publisher or publication c. presentation d. author's nationality e. objective reasoning: 23. Which of the following statements regarding negotiation is untrue? a. women are significantly more uncomfortable doing it b. women who fail to negotiate salaries at the start of their careers could leave up to $2 million on the table. c. negotiations are naturally adversarial and antagonistic. d. Negotiation is defined as a discussion aimed at reaching an agreement. e. even a small concession creates good will in the negotiation process.: 24. Which of the following statements is an example of perspective feedback? a. "the report could use more graphics to help illustrate the information". b. Your presentation lacked substance, but I still found it entertaining. c. The group failed to meet the established goals of the project. d. You used the wrong checklist; that's why you missed this step. e. I don't know why you keep double-booking appointments.: 25. Which of the following statements is a correctly written affirmation? a. I am successful today and every day b. I will be successful today c. I won't make mistakes today d. You are a successful person e. all the above: 10 / 32 a. paper handling b. document retention c. confidentiality d. information security e. none of the above: 34. All the following are best practices for creating an effective virtual filing system except a. keep individual files in the root directory outside of folders b. use a logical hierarchical structure c. mirror the structure of your paper filing system as much as possible d. Files should start general and become more specific as the go deeper e. all are best practices: 35. In project management, when estimating time for completion of tasks, what is the recommended safety margin? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%: 36. "completing one task after another in order of priority" is the definition of what term? a. serial tasking b. background tasking c. switch tasking d. rapid focus e. none of the above: 11 / 32 37. The difference between a meeting and event is a. meetings are operational in nature while events are considered special. b. meetings may require procedural rules, where events do not. c. meetings may require minutes, where events do not. d. meetings are often smaller in scale than events. e. all the above.: 38. What is the name of the leading professional membership association for the project, program and portfolio management profession? a. the project management institute b. the program managers association of america c. the international project managers association d. the project management collective e. none of the above: 39. The cost of an alternative that must be foregone in order to pursue a certain action is the definition of what term? a. opportunity cost b. economic scarcity c. time wasters d. interruptions e. none of the above: 40. All of the following characteristics describe 'events' except a. are often larger in scale and tend to require more resources, planning and time. b. an occurrence, happening or activity wherein something notable takes place. c. are typically special in nature 12 / 32 d. use procedural rules and requires minutes e. can take place in-person or virtually: 41. A task that must be completed before another one can be done is called a task. a. dependent b. deliverable c. precedent d. concurrent e. priority: 42. All of the following are best practices regarding meeting minutes except a. meeting minutes reflect only the true important information b. when capturing notes during the meeting, do not attempt to write what was said word for word or in complete sentences; instead use bullet points keywords and short phrases c. always include emotions and personal perceptions to fully demonstrate the intent of the speaker d. Always note the accurate order of discussion even if it doesn't match the agenda. e. all are best practices.: 43. The strategy of making time on the calendar to focus on one specific item or a batch of items is called what? a. multitasking b. serial tasking c. background tasking d. time blocking e. batching: 15 / 32 ramp up and slow down time is known as what? a. multitasking b. serial tasking c. background tasking d. time blocking e. batching: 52. In the world of process improvement, what is the name of the methodology commonly cited? a. five beta b. eight alpha c. six sigma d. seven delta e. none of the above: 53. A task that can only be done after another task is completed is called a task. a. dependent b. deliverable c. precedent d. concurrent e. priority: 54. Rapid refocus is best described as: a. doing two things at once b. the ability to focus fully on the task at hand and then smoothly transition that concentration wholly to the next task c. two tasks that can be done simultaneously because one or both does not require mental 16 / 32 effort d. multitasking e. none of the above: 55. The person or people who are impacted by the outcome of a project are called the a. project manager(s) b. team member(s) c. stakeholder(s) d. Risk manager(s) e. Project owner(s): 56. What is the name of the time management tool that logs all activity in any given day? a. time management matrix b. paired comparison matrix c. activity (or utilization) log d. in-between task list e. not-to-do-list: 57. Which of the following is NOT one of the three reasons that physical space becomes disorganized? a. you have to much stuff b. the things you have don't have a place where they belong c. you possess the personality type for disorganization d. you don't put things back where they belong e. none of the above: 17 / 32 58. According to a study cited it the New York Times, a typical office worker gets only 11 minutes between each interruption. According to this same study, how long does it take on average to return to the original task after an interruption? a. 5 minutes b. 11 minutes c. 25 minutes d. 1 hour e. no verifiable time information: 59. "producing a desired or intended result" is the definition of what term? a. Effectiveness b. Efficiency c. projects d. tasks e. none of the above: 60. An artificial intelligence application used to conduct an online chat con- versation is an example of a. instant messaging b. a chatbot c. yammer d. private message: 61. Which of the following is NOT an example of Business Social Media Best Practices? a. make it personal b. make it authentic 20 / 32 a. word processing b. productivity application c. google doc d. portable document format (PDF): 70. Which of the following is NOT an example of how the Internet of things, or IoT, is omnipresent in daily life? a. computerized car b. phone controlled home thermostat c. automated home locks with camera d. tablets: 71. Which of the following is NOT true of cloud computing? a. it is seemingly unlimited capacity for a fee b. it is synonymous with the term internet c. it has no maintenance responsibilities d. it is more secure than your laptop: 72. What term is the umbrella category that covers all the various forms of computer- altered reality? a. Augmented Reality b. Extended Reality c. Mixed Reality d. Virtual Reality: 73. Which of the following is a strategy for handling daily email communication by quickly prioritizing it into order of urgency? 21 / 32 a. triangulation b. rule of thirds c. 70-20-10 rule d. triage: d. triage 74. Which service analyzes how a potential customer found your company website? a. B2C b. Google Analytics c. CNET d. Website builder: b. Google Analytics 75. A superior video editor, a preview utility and a streaming music service are features of which operating system? a. microsoft windows b. android c. mac os d. chrome os: c. mac os 76. A software acquisition model where you pay a monthly subscription fee instead of purchasing the entire product all at once and then download all or parts of the software package is called a. package b. software as a service c. consumption lease d. business-to-business purchase: b. software as a service 77. Which input device is a data collection machine that creates a digital imprint of a physical 22 / 32 characteristics to provide security without the need for passwords? a. touchpad b. cloud storage c. nonvolatile d. biometric: 78. Malware includes all the following except a. trojan horse b. spyware c. virus d. spam: 79. A set of online communication practices and rules is a. cyberstalking b. cyberbullying c. netiquette d. guideline: 80. Simple tools or web apps such as Amazon Assistant or Last Pass, that can be added to your web browser to customize and ease your browsing experience are called a. library b. web tracking c. collections d. extensions: 81. What term is defined as using technology to automate tasks that once required humans? 25 / 32 d. sway: 89. Today's administrative professionals must possess the skills necessary to use which of the following tools in their daily job responsibilities? a. videoconferencing b. social media c. cybersecurity protocols d. all the above: 90. Which of these can sabotage individual or team performance? a. Lack of necessary resources b. public criticism c. support for improvement efforts d. unclear instructions and priorities e. a, b and d: 91. In order to boost motivation and morale, managers can a. give feedback frequently b. establish a personal connection with team members c. use stories, anecdotes, and word pictures to describe the future and create a shared history for team members d. all of the above e. only a and b: 92. Which of these is NOT a phase of the business life cycle a. maturity b. launch 26 / 32 c. growth d. saturation: 93. Brainstorming is as technique for generating multiple options or ideas in a group. Which of these is NOT a part of the brainstorming process a. the question, issue, or problem is described and agreed upon b. a goal is set for number of ideas and/or a time limit is imposed to create urgency c. as many ideas as possible are generated d. members of the group critique each idea: 94. Brainstorming is a technique for generating multiple options or ideas in a group. Which of these is NOT a part of the brainstorming process? a. The question, issue or problem is described and agreed upon b. A goal is set for number of ideas and/or a time limit is imposed to create urgency c. As many ideas as possible are generated d. Members of the group critique each idea: 95. When putting together a team, which of these are NOT a consideration? a. Looking for complementary strengths b. Avoiding those who are apt to question and challenge c. A mix of the four social/behavioral styles d. Including imaginative 'blue sky' thinkers: 96. Which of these would NOT be considered a disruptive business model that harnesses the power of networks a. uber b. Airbnb 27 / 32 c. Facebook d. Apple: 97. Managers should create an action plan for performance objectives that includes a. tasks and timelines b. assignments and resources c. supporting factors and restraining forces d. all the above e. a and b only: 98. Decision fatigue is the deteriorating quality of decisions when we are called upon to make numerous decisions in a limited time. Which of these is NOT a tool for minimizing decision fatigue a. Sleep on it b. use checklists whenever possible c. put a time limit on the decision d. all the above are tools for sidestepping decision fatigue e. none of the above are tools of sidestepping decision fatigue: 99. A corporate enterprise is an organization whose mission combines rev- enue growth and profits with supporting the physical and social environment and stakeholders a. true b. false: 100. The first step in effective problem solving is to describe the problem including the gap between the desired and the current state. a. true 30 / 32 110. In contrast to modern organizations, "old style" organizations focus on a. competition b. efficiency c. quantity and costs d. rules e. all of the above: 111. When we overuse our strengths, they can become weaknesses. Which of the social/behavioral temperaments might become emotional, unrealistic, and hot-headed? a. optimistic b. calm c. decisive d. analytical: 112. A promising career is most likely to get derailed because of a manager's a. incompetence b. lack of intelligence c. inability to handle pressure d. failure to understand and relate to others: 113. The coordination of work tasks so they are completed efficiently and effectively with and though other people is known as a. six sigma b. management c. leadership d. process improvement: 31 / 32 114. When prioritizing, an urgent task is different than an important task. a. true b. false: 115. A clearly defined outcome that describes what you want to accomplish is a. net revenue b. an action plan c. a performance standard d. a goal: 116. Resisting ideas that come from someone else; looking for a quick fix; over investing in the routine and familiar; looking for a quick fix or good enough- these are all obstacles to a. critical thinking b. teamwork c. creative thinking d. strategic thinking: 117. You're writing an email to Amy and want to include Brian in the exchange. Brian doesn't need to take action but would appreciate the information as a courtesy. Where should Brian's email information be added? a. to the 'to' line b. the 'cc' line c. the 'bcc' line d. the body of the email message e. the subject line of the email message: 118. All of the following are helpful practices when receiving negative feed- back except 32 / 32 a. ask questions to gain clarity and restate what you're hearing to ensure accuracy b. Concentrate on feedback that is based in fact or comes from people whose opinions matter c. when emotions are running high, request to pause the conversation d. dismiss messages from those who deliver feedback poorly e. demonstrate willingness and ability to develop by taking action: 119. Closed ended questions are best used when a. probing b. clarifying c. paraphrasing d. reflecting e. encouraging: 120. Of the 5 levels of leadership outlined by John Maxwell, which is the lowest, weakest and most ineffective form of leadership? a. Level 1: position (rights) b. Level 2: Permission (relationships) c. Level 3: Production (results) d. Level 4: People Development (reproduction) e. Level 5: Pinnacle (respect):