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ASCP CG Certification Practice 2025: Most Tested Questions with Verified Answers, Exams of Nursing

A collection of practice questions and answers for the ascp cg certification exam, focusing on the 2025 update. It covers various aspects of cytogenetics, including cell culture techniques, chromosome analysis, banding techniques, and common genetic disorders. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of key concepts and procedures in cytogenetics.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 01/11/2025

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Download ASCP CG Certification Practice 2025: Most Tested Questions with Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS What is the best agent to use against mycoplasma? - correct answer BM cyclin - a combination of two antibiotics (tiamulin and minocycline) that effecticely targets mycoplasma growth For successful harvest, each new batch of hypotonic solution should be evaluated by: - correct answer comparing the new lot to a lot already in use Colagenase, pronase, and trypsin are: - correct answer Proteolytic enzymes - break down tissues into single-cell suspensions When harvesting peripheral blood cultures, asceptic technique no longer matters following incubation with: - correct answer Colcemid - mitotic spindle poison that halts cells at metaphase Samples that arrive at the cytogenetics lab should first be: - correct answer Logged in to the system Phytohemagglutinin (PHA) stimulates which type of cells into division? - correct answer T-cell lymphocytes To avoid culture failure, monitoring reagents is crucial. When logging a culture failure, what is the MOST important to document? - correct answer Expiration dates of reagents used Which type of microscope is used when cleaning a CVS (chorionic villus) sample? - correct answer Dissection Which cell type is most problematic if found in a CVS (chorionic villus) sample? - correct answer Decidua (maternal tissue) When looking at a slide under a phase contrast scope and a lot of cytoplasm is still seen around the mets, what is the most likely cause? - correct answer innappropriate slide drying time What will help prevent microbial contamination and cross contamination of cultures? - correct answer Asceptic technique When there are not enough mets to complete the study of a patient/case, what needs to be done next? - correct answer prepare additional slides from any remaining sample When looking at a dropped slide under a phase scope and mets are very spread out and sparse, what could help fix the issue? - correct answer Increading the drying time by using warm slides What is true of an inverted microscope? - correct answer the objectives are beneath the stage High-resolution banding is indicated for a possible diagnosis of: - correct answer DiGenorge syndrome -- microdeletion of 22q11, also called velocardiofacial syndrome "velo" - soft palette,

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS "cardio" - congenital heart defects, "facial" - unique abnormal facial features, short philtrum (upper lip indent), tubular nose, wide spread eyes, etc When verifying if a specimen is appropriate for cytogenetic analysis, what is the MOST important data to accompany the specimen? - correct answer Reason for referral Which type of specimen should be requested for a cytogenetic analysis for turner syndrome? - correct answer Heparinized peripheral blood stored at room temperature (NOT FROZEN) A blood sample can be used to study the cytogenetics of a malignancy only if: - correct answer Dividing leukemic cells are present in circulation All of the cultures in a CO2 incubator failed, what aspects of the incubator are important to monitor to assess the source of the problem? - correct answer Temperature, CO2 level, and Humidity level The most important factor affecting the quality of chromosomes viewed under a phase contrast scope is: - correct answer Slide drying after the cells have been dropped What is the modal number (default number of chromosomes in a cell) for a Down syndrome translocation carrier? - correct answer 45 What is the best tissue to use for both a good success rate and abnormality detection in spontaneous abortion miscarriages? - correct answer Chorionic villi What is a possible cause for a drying oven to not maintain a proper temperature? - correct answer The door does not seal properly If a tech with a cold and sneezing does not take proper precautions while setting up amniotic fluid samples, the specimen could become contaminated with: - correct answer Mycoplasma --> the most common contaminant by a sick tech and can be detected through a specific stain used on the sample mycoplasma can induce abnormalities in a sample, so it is important to avoid contamination

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS What about the metaphases on a slide are affected by slide making? - correct answer Cell density - thru dilution of the sample with fix Banding - based on how dark/pale/refractive they are affects trypsin time Chromosome spreading - affected by drying time What test(s) should be ordered on a newborn with suspected Prader-Willi syndrome? - correct answer High resolution banding and FISH for the Prader-Willi locus on 15q11. When capturing a metaphase, a tech cannot get the met into focus, what is the most likely cause? - correct answer The camera is not parfocal (in focus with the microscpe objectives) with the microscope Unstained chromosome preparation should be viewed using which scope? - correct answer Phase contrast condenser The minimum band level necessary to detect prader-willi syndrome is? - correct answer 55 0 at the lowest 15q11.2 is visible at that level See CAP regulation CYG. A regulatory inspecter requests a copy of a lab patient's record for his inspection files, the tech should: - correct answer Deny the inspector a copy of the record See HIPAA compliance policy According to CAP regulations, what is the minimum band level for consitutional specimens? - correct answer 400 The suggested level for most constitutional specimen is 550, but 400 is the lowest acceptible level See CAP regulation CYG. Placental tissue is submitted for chromosome analysis, to optimize the liklihood of obtaining fetal cells, where should the tech select tissue from? - correct answer The fetal side of the spcimen (when possible to be identified from the decidua)

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS In a compound light microscope, the aperature stop affects resolution and contrast by: - correct answer Changing the angle of the cone of light inside the objective What is the correct nomenclature to describe a hematologic disorder with trisomy 21 in 6 cells and 14 cells that are normal? - correct answer 47,XY,+21?c[6]/46,XY[14] ?c -- indicates questioning whether the trisomy is constitutional or not as it was seen in only 6 cells The G-light bands produced by routine GTG banding represent: - correct answer The active regions of the chromosome aka euchromatin -- gene-rich and GC rich DNA, early replicating Which of the following is not assocated with a microdeletion?

  1. Prader-Willi
  2. DiGeorge
  3. Rubinstein-Taybi
  4. Langer-Giedion - correct answer 3. Rubinstein-Taybi Associated with an autosomal dominant mutation in the CREB or CREBBP gene(s) Rarely assocated with a deletion in 16p13.3 (12% of cases, not the predominant cause, detected by FISH) Presents as facial dysmorphism, broad thumbs, broad big toes, and growth and mental retardation The dark bands produced by routune GTG banding represent: - correct answer AT-rich regions of the chromosome aka heterpchromatin, and gene-poor chromatin, late replicating DNA If GTG banded chromosomes appear ghost-like with little visible banding, one should alter banding prep by: - correct answer Decreasing trypsin time (chewed out and non-distinct)

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS If 50 out of 200 interphase nuclei have 3 signals in a prenatal aneusomy FISH analysis for chromosome 18, the results are: - correct answer Consistent with trisomy 18 or a structural anomaly of chromosome 18 If the same hybridization incubator is used for several different probe strategies, the stringency for each probe can be adjusted by: - correct answer adjusting the formamide and salt concentrations Optimal (best) banding quality is achieved for each patient sample by banding: - correct answer one trial slide per patient to ensure BEST quality In fluorescent microscopy, the exciter and barrier filters used depend on ___? - correct answer Stain - because the wavelength for emission can vary per type of fluorescent stain used (i.e. DAPI) What is a possible reason a metaphase cannot be located when switching from the 40x lens to the 100x oil lens? - correct answer The 100x objective is slightly unscrewed (can occur when cleaning the scope) What is an action a technologist can take to reduce the risk of repetitve motion injuries when doing analysis on a computer? - correct answer Supporting the arm that moves the mouse, Standing and moving around often, and alternating hands while operating the computer mouse What is the correct modal number for a patient with Turner syndrome with an isochromosome Xq? - correct answer 46 -- because the isochromosome replaces the normal X, causing Turner syndrome What should be used on a cultured CVS sample to obtain more slides for analysis? - correct answer Trypsin-EDTA -- to remove adherent cells from the flask or coverslip to split into more vessels EDTA improves tryp's effectiveness (chelating agent) Cyto studies were ordered on a prenatal patient at 12 weeks gestation after an abnormality was detected via ultrasound. 2 of 15 colonies from seperate primary cultures showed an abnormal cell line of 47,XX,+21. The next step would be to ___? - correct answer Report the result as this is a true mosaic case and suggest: repeating amniocentesis, repeating a detailed ultrasound, or request percutaneous umbilical blood sample (PUBS)

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS After staining, the chromosomes appear to have indistinct bands with little contrast. The problem is corrected by: - correct answer Increasing trypsin exposure (chroms were muddy and dark) When scoring FISH for DiGeorge syndrome, a tech notices the TUPLE1 signal is present, but one of the control ARSA probe signals is missing in every cell. This result suggests __? - correct answer The patient has a deletion of the ARSA region CLIA 1988- (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments) stipulates that equipment must be recalibrated __? - correct answer Every 6 months (Standard 493.1217) What type of stained chromosome would produce a better computer image? - correct answer Lightly stained chromosomes (best contrast and can be digitally edited easier) What is the nomenclature on a patient with down syndrome referred for a hematologic disorder where only trisomy 21 was found? - correct answer 47,XY,+21c[20] 24 hours after culture initiation, a single dish from an amniotic fluid turns cloudy. Which cultures should be disposed? - correct answer The single cloudy dish only What is used to reduce mycoplasma contamination? - correct answer BM cycline CLIA '88 stipulates that equipment must be recalibrated ____? - correct answer After a major repair to ensure still operational How should caustic and corrosive chemicals be stored? - correct answer Both should be stored in a nonflammable cabinet What factors would contribute to ALL cultures failing in a CO2 incubator? - correct answer Temperature CO2 level Humidity level What is the modal number for a diploid karyotype and an additional CBG negative marker chromosome? - correct answer 46 CBG = c-bands achieved with barium with Giemsa stain CBG negative referrs to not having a centromere, which is crucial to being included in the modal number, so this extra fragment does not have a centromere and is not counted towards the total What is included when recording the modal number? - correct answer Mar - a marker chromosome is included because it has a centromere

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS What is the BEST way to avoid producing ghost-like, pale chromosomes while staining? - correct answer Decrease trypsin time In order to ensure successful harvest, each new batch of hypotonic solution should be evaluated ____. - correct answer By comparing new hypotonic solution to that already in use Which cell type would you want to use for long term serial cytogenetic studies? - correct answer Fibroblast cells What is not a necessary (must be added) ingredient which is added to modified medium? - correct answer Antibiotics What chemical is used for cryopreservation? - correct answer Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) You are analyzing a clinical case and discover a small extra marker with satellites. What staining technique would be most useful in determining the chromosomal origin of this marker? - correct answer NOR When using a fluorescein dye (yellow-green) labeled probe during the FISH procedure, which counterstain should be used? - correct answer Propidium iodide (red) A bone marrow sample collected in transport medium is leaking into the sealed plastic bag in which it was transported. The technologist should_______. - correct answer Clean up the tube while wearing gloves A laboratory' quality assurance program includes _______________. - correct answer Proficiency testing All of the following chromosomes have dark bands on chromosome regions that can be used as indicators when preparing the best image: - correct answer Chromosome 11p Chromosome 12q Chromosome 17q The morning after being set-up, a single dish of an amniotic fluid culture turns cloudy and appears contaminated. None of the other cultures set-up that day appears contaminated. What should be done first? - correct answer Harvest the culture as soon as possible When the addition of nonhomologous material to the q-arm of chromosome 16 is suspected after G-banding, what banding technique should be used? - correct answer C-banding What chromosome is most different between C- and G-banding? - correct answer Chromosome 9 What chromosome region does quinacrine and acridine orange dyes stain? - correct answer AT rich DNA

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS Under an electron microscope, what is observed as a consequence of all banding procedures? - correct answer Chromosomal collapse Case #777 has an uncertain diagnosis after G and C bands. The director suspects satellites are involved with the chrom marker in question. What banding/stain should be used to confirm satellites are in question? - correct answer NOR banding What procedure should be performed first if sequential banding is required? - correct answer Q-banding A tech suspects an inversion of chrom 9 with G-banding analysis. What banding technique would confirm this? - correct answer C-banding What chromosome polymorphisms can be detected with Q-banding? - correct answer Y-chrom polymorphisms Chrom 3 polymorphisms Poly's of the satellites of acrocentrics After G-banded analysis, a cyto director suspects chrom 10 has a terminal del. What banding procedure would be MOST helpful in determining if a deletion has occurred? - correct answer FISH Cytogenetic studies have been requested for a patient with a diagnosis of questionable leukemia. This patient has a low white cell count, circulating myeloblasts, and has received chemotherapy and a blood transfusion. What procedure is LEAST likely to be informative? - correct answer PHA-stimulated blood culture Special culture conditions or medium are required to demonstrate what conditions? - correct answer Fragile X - folic acid deficient medium Inactive X - use bisulfite, but now diagnosed via molecular methods Sister chromatid exchange - BrdU culture medium 46,XY,der(9)(t(9;10)(q32;q12). What term best describes this written karyotype? - correct answer Unbalanced ("der" means "a derivative chromosome"; "t" translocation. This indi. has only one copy of chromosome 9q from band 9q33 to 9qter), therefore is unbalanced

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS What is the CORRECT ISCN nomenclature for a male with fragile X syndrome? - correct answer 46,Y,fra(X)(q27.3) (the normal sex chromosome is written first followed by the abnormal sex chromosome) NOT 46,XY,fra(X) bc that indicated the presence of another X (= 47 chroms) The peripheral blood culture of a patient suspected of having CML is 46,XY. In order to rule out the presence of the t(9;22) the following tissue would be cultured next: - correct answer Bone marrow (sometimes, the cancer cells go into circulation blood. The bone marrow will be the origin of the cancer cells) Twenty-nine out of 30 metaphases are normal in the amniotic fluid culture of a pregnant woman who has a history of multiple miscarriages. One cell has a translocation. What does this signify? - correct answer Cultural artifact (in order to be considered as mosaicism, you have to have more than one cell in 30-cell count, and it needs to be confirmed by skin tissue if possible) A Cri-du-chat patient has a chromosome abnormality of: - correct answer r(5)(p15.1q35) (this ring chromosome is missing the tip end of 5p and the tip end of 5q. Deletion of 5p15 is cri- du-chat syndrome) When an abnormal cell is detected in an in situ culture all of the following should be considered to rule out pseudomosaicism: - correct answer Confirm the abnormality in other cells in the colony. Confirm the abnormality in another culture. Confirm the abnormality in other colonies on the same coverslip. The optimal objective lens for capturing chromosome images is ___. - correct answer Planapochromatic

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS (this lens is corrected for the both color and spherical aboration) If an incubator runs out of carbon dioxide for 6 hrs, what would you expect? - correct answer pH is higher in the media because the media turns a fuchsia color in the absence of CO How many levels of brightness are in an 8-bit gray scale image? - correct answer 256 When imaging on a microscope, how often should the condenser be focused? - correct answer At least every time you change slides How do you adjust the brightness of a microscope? - correct answer Adjust the regulating transformer or add filters The function of the numerical aperture of a lens is? - correct answer An index of its light gathering capacity Resolutin of an image is determined by: - correct answer Matrix size What component of a standard brightfield scope can be used to manipulate contrast? - correct answer Filters in the base of the scope, and the aperture diaphragm within the condenser When photographing a met, what is the BEST type of objective to use to get the best result? - correct answer PlanApo 100/1.4 Oil 160/0. Planoapochromatic (color and curve correction) 100x magnification 1.4 NA 160mm tube length 0.17 coverslip thickness Why do printed images look different than they do on a computer screen? - correct answer Printers and monitors use diff methods to create a pic including diffs in the basic colors and how they are viewed by the eye Dynamic range determines the camera's ability to capture: - correct answer brightness The primary image of an object is magnified by: - correct answer the eyepiece The field and aperture diaphragms are used to control: - correct answer the focus of light onto the specimen and control glare NEVER to control brightness

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS The magnification of an object is measured by: - correct answer The tube length divided by the focal length of the lens (i.e.) tube length 160mm and focal length for 10x objective is 16mm Magnification = 160mm/16mm = 10x magnification What level of openness in the aperture diaphragm will allow the best resolution? - correct answer Completely open One should not use the aperture diaphragm to: - correct answer Control brightness of light For the imaging of chromosomes, I want the best resolution possible, so I always use: - correct answer An obj lens with an NA of 1.3 to 1. Koehler illumination should be performed daily to observe chroms under the scope. How does one describe the process of koehler illumination? - correct answer The process of centering the light source and spreading the light uniformly over the field of view The light histogram on the monitors of an automated karyotype system is used to: - correct answer Achieve optimal light intensity for the met being captured, set the threshold which affects the contrast (A and B values), and to enhance the image selecting values above or below which a pixel is either white or black What type of objective provides the greatest depth of field and field of view? - correct answer Low power After performing koehler illumination, what other scope part should be adjusted to ensure optimal contrast between light and dark bands of the chroms? - correct answer The condenser diaphragm should be closed down by 1/4 to 1/ The primary limiting factor for resolution in a light microscope is: - correct answer The wavelength of light r = (wavelength)/2NA NA can be adjusted through the type of objective being used, so the only part that cannot be actively changed is the wavelenth of light Why is it necessary to adjust the amount of light after changing the objective lens? - correct answer Higher magnification needs more light, Proper lighting is needed to see specimen detail,

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS and the lens aperture decreases with higher magnificaction lenses When reviewing a final karyotype a possible overlapper chromosome is suspected. What is needed to confirm the chrom # of this cell? - correct answer ID # of the patient, Scope used to capture the cell analyzed, and the coordinates of the met A fetus with an increased risk for trisomy 18 would have a serum analytes that is: - correct answer low AFP, low hCG, and low uE AFP = Alpha feto protein hCG = human chorionic gonadotropin uE3 = Unconjugated estriol Parental chrom analysis would be recommended for these karyotypic abn's: - correct answer 46,XX,der(14;21)(q10;q10),+ del(13q) dup(11q) 50% of cells from an amniotic flask have 92,XXYY and the other 50% have 46,XY. This probably indicated: - correct answer Pseudomosaicism The type of cell analyzed with the CVS direct preparation is: - correct answer cytotrophoblast Peripheral blood G-band karyotype analysis is requested for all the following: - correct answer Multiple malformations seen in a newborn Mental retardation of unknown etiology Multiple miscarriages A technologist wants to stain chromosomes using a banding technique that manifests AT-rich regions on chromosomes. What staining procedure should he use? - correct answer QFQ What is the optimum pH for the trypsin? - correct answer 7.2 - 7. Quinacrine molecules bind to the DNA by: - correct answer Binding to the AT rich regions What statements about G-banding are true? - correct answer Methanol-acetic fixation is necessary for chromosome spreading and has aneffect on G-banding, G-dark bands are late replicating DNA regions,

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS G-banding correlates with the chromomere pattern of pachytene chromosomes of meiosis. Which location can be shown by C-band? - correct answer Constitutive heterochromatin The culture method used to obtain chromosome preparations from amniotic fluid is considered: - correct answer Short term culture What is the purpose of establishing a PHA-stimulated blood culture for a leukemia patient? - correct answer To see if an abnormality is constitutional rather than acquired What is the purpose of establishing an unstimulated blood culture for a leukemia patient? - correct answer To check for circulating immature cells in the peripheral blood. All of the following ARE characteristics of the horizontal laminar flow hood? - correct answer Protects the culture from contamination Should not be used with transformed cell lines. Sterlizes the air entering the hood This type of culture has a decreased turn around time and allows easier distinction between mosaicism and pseudomosaicism. - correct answer In situ-amniotic fluid culture If a laboratory is consistently having problems with poor culture growth, what measures could remedy this situation? - correct answer Test for mycoplasma contamination How would a technologist know when to harvest an in situ amniotic fluid culture? - correct answer The number of colonies present Monday morning around 2:30, Incubator A ran out of carbon dioxide. What change in the cultures, if any wouldyou expect for the technologists to find at 8:00 am Monday. - correct answer A higher pH PHA causes: - correct answer Causes peak in DNA synthesis at 72 hours In short term culture the following is true: - correct answer Most commercially prepared media is suitable "Starring-in" is a method of - correct answer Immobilizing the tissue in the culture vessel A change of 1 pH unit in culture medium is caused by a ________ change in CO2 concentration.

  • correct answer 10 - fold What are principles behind the culturing of solid tumors? - correct answer To generate an expandable cell population which may be used for sequential and long-term experimentation.

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS Culturing of living cells provides better morphology chromosomes for analysis than chromosomes obtained by direct harvest. Which of the following is not an effect of fixation? - correct answer A short exposure to Colcemid Which of the following chemicals ARE intercalating agents? - correct answer Quinacrine dihydrochloride Ethidium bromide Actinomycin D A new hypotonic solution causes overspreading of chromosomes. What technique can be used to prevent the overspreading? - correct answer Reduce the drying time What is the best time to freeze cells for long term storage? - correct answer 80% confluent log phase What happens to the enzymatic activity of trypsin as pH increases to 8? - correct answer The enzymatic activity increases What do you add in order to detect SCE (sister chromatid exchange)? - correct answer BrdU Media in the incubator has turned magenta and cell death has occurred. Most likely the: - correct answer CO2 was too low You have just received fetal and placental tissue suspected of fungal contamination. How do you culture this sample? - correct answer Fetal tissue w/ Nystatin What is true about slide preparation for FISH? - correct answer Slides should be kept at room conditions. When using the Applied Imaging system to capture the FISH image, which program should be chosen to use? - correct answer Probe The M-FISH procedure makes use of combinatorial labeling in order to uniquely label all chromosomes human chromosomes. Which of the following represents the correct mathematical equation for determining the number of combinations based on the number of fluorochromes (n) available? - correct answer (2^n - 1) (i.e.) How many combos of 3 fluorocromes are there? (2^3 - 1) = 7 What is the maximum number of color combinations that can be obtained from 5 fluorochromes? - correct answer 31

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS Which of the following ARE advantages of FISH diagnostics concerning interphase testing? - correct answer Can rapidly detect sex chromosomes or aneuploidy of chromosomes. Requires no culture Requires only simple microscope analysis. The temperature of - 20oC is necessary in which of the following FISH procedures? - correct answer Probe storage The temperature of 4oC is necessary in which of the following FISH procedures? - correct answer FITC-avidin storage The temperature of 90oC is necessary in which of the following FISH procedures? - correct answer simultaneous denaturation Most important pretreatment to age slides for FISH is: - correct answer 2x SSC at 37 degrees for 30 minutes What would you do if you see high non-specific background on the FISH slide just postwashed?

  • correct answer Increase postwash temperature Which is preferred as a metaphase probe? - correct answer SKY probe A MLL FISH gave the following signal pattern 1F 1R 1G. What is the ISCN of this cell? - correct answer nuc ish (MLLx2)(5?MLL sep 3?MLLx1) Fluorescence can be caused by what light source? - correct answer Mercury vapor lamps To AVOID empty magnification, the total magnification seen by the eye should: - correct answer Not exceed 1000X the N.A. of the objective What ARE functions of the CCD camera? - correct answer Capturing light Controlling the resolution of the image Determination of matrix size based on the number of photo cells How many bands are on chromosome 10 in the 350 to 400 band level range? - correct answer 12 to 14 How many bands are on chromosome 10 in the 425 to 475 band level range? - correct answer 15 to 21 How many bands are on chromosome 10 in the 500 to 550 band level range? - correct answer 22 to 28 AML M0 type - correct answer AML with minimal differentiation (no chromosome change associated)

VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+ ASSURED SUCCESS AML M1 type - correct answer AML w/o differentiation (no associated chrom changes either) AML M2 type - correct answer AML with differentiation t(8;21)(q22;q22) AML M3 type - correct answer Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) t(15;17)(q22;q11-12) AML M4 type - correct answer Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia (AMML) inv(16)(p13q22) AML M5 type - correct answer Acute Monocytic Leukemia t(9;11)(p22;q23) other 11q23 rearrangements AML M6 type - correct answer Acute Erythroleukemia del(5q), del(7q), + AML M7 type - correct answer Acute Megakaryocytic leukemia (no chrom abn associated)