ASCP EXAM ALL VERSIONS 2024 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANS, Exams of Chemistry

Download ASCP EXAM ALL VERSIONS 2024 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANS and more Exams Chemistry in PDF only on Docsity! ASCP EXAM ALL VERSIONS 2024 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE WITH 100+ QUESTIONS Which is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not a limitation of real-time PCR? Select one: a. Requirement of a large initial sample b. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only c. Ability to detect PCR product during the plateau stage - ANSWER B. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only A patient has the following test results:ANA = positive 1:320RA = positiveComplement = decreasedThe above results would be seen in patients with: Select one: a. Rheumatic fever b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Lupus Erythematosus d. Glomerulonephritis - ANSWER C. Lupus Erythmatosus A 40-year-old female receives two units of Red Blood Cells during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums, with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5X109/L (reference interval 150-400 X 109 /L). What is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) b. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) d. Allergic reaction - ANSWER A. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) Approximately what percent of the overall population is Rh negative: Select one: a. 10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35% - ANSWER B. 15% Which one of the following statements concerning endocytosis is NOT TRUE? Select one: a. Cells may employ endocytosis to ingest large polar molecules (macromolecules) from extracellular fluid. b. In endocytosis, the cell membrane often extends outward until it surrounds the material that will be ingested. c. Endocytosis is a natural process of intracellular digestion for nutrition. d. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside . - ANSWER D. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside Which of the following represents the approximate percentage of the population that is Rh positive: Select one: Which is the first marker (antigen or antibody) which will become positive after exposure to Hepatitis B: Select one: a. HBsAg b. Anti-HBs c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HBc - ANSWER A. HBsAg Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using: Select one: a. Cultured T cells b. Human plasma cells c. Hybridomas d. Cytotoxic T cells - ANSWER C. Hydridomas During routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation? Select one: a. the unit was frozen b. donor had DIC c. viral contamination d. bacterial contamination - ANSWER D. Bacterial Contamination Given the following results, what is the immune status for the patient?HbsAg: positiveHbeAg: positiveAnti-HBc IgM: positiveAnti-HBs: negative Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. immunization d. susceptible - ANSWER A. Acute infection Twelve weeks after onset of the disease, patients with uncomplicated acute hepatitis B usually will demonstrate which of the following in their serum? Select one: a. HBsAg b. Anti-HTLV c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HIV - ANSWER C. Anti-HBe While ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU are clinically significant, which of the following antibodies generally react at ONLY the Coombs phase (also knowns as Antihuman Globulin phase): Select one: a. Rh, Kell b. ABO c. Kell, Duffy, Kidd d. SsU, Kidd - ANSWER C. Kell, Duffy, Kidd Platelets should be stored at what temperature: Select one: a. 1-6 degrees Celsius b. 10-16 degrees Celsius c. 20-24 degrees Celsius d. 34-37 degrees Celsius - ANSWER C. 20-24 degrees Celsius If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? Select one: a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae - ANSWER C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies A delayed hemolytic reaction occurring a week later is MOST likely caused by: Select one: a. Volume overload b. Kidd system antibodies c. Iron overload d. ABO incompatibility - ANSWER B. Kidd system antibodies It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank and you have been receiving a steady stream of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room and several of them have positive antibody screens which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours (normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be ̴14 g/dL).Your workup reveals a Type O patient with the following antibodies:Anti - K , anti Fya. The prevalence of K negative donors in your donor population is 91% while the prevalence of Fya negative donors is 37%. Two units of crossmatched RBCs are requested by the physician. How many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype, in order to fulfill the request for two cross matched units? Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg: negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. recovery d. immunization - ANSWER C. Recovery Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? Select one: a. C1 b. C2 c. C4, C2, C3 d. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 e. C1, C2, C9 - ANSWER C4,C2,C,3 The Hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation. Which type of immunity is expected and provide long-term protection? Select one: a. Active b. Passive c. Adoptive d. Innate - ANSWER A. Active HIV is known as a retrovirus because: Select one: a. It can only attach to reticulocytes b. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis c. DNA is used as the template for RNA synthesis d. It can cause AIDS immediately upon entering the body. - ANSWER B. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis An isolate of S. pneumoniae from a respiratory specimen gave a zone of inhibition of 18 mm around a 1 ug oxacillin using the disk diffusion test. What should the next step be? Select one: a. Report the isolate as penicillin sensitive b. Report the isolate as penicillin resistant c. Set up an MIC on the isolate d. Report the isolate as moderately susceptible - ANSWER C. Set up MIC on the isolate The Mycobacterium species capable of growing on modified MacConkey agar (crystal violet removed from the formula), as illustrated in this photograph, is: Select one: a. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium marinum d. Mycobacterium fortuitum - ANSWER D. Mycobacterium fortuitum The Quellung test is useful for which of the following: Select one: a. Differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus b. Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus d. Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus - ANSWER B. Serological typing of strep pneumo Which of the following test(s) that are the most useful in separating Listeria monocytogenesfrom Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae? Select one: a. Room temperature motility b. Catalase c. Esculin hydrolysis d. All of the above - ANSWER D. All of the above A small gram-negative rod isolated from an eye grows on chocolate agar but NOT on sheep blood agar. It produces satellite growth around staphylococci on sheep blood agar, however. The organism requires: Select one: a. X and V factor b. X factor only c. V factor only d. Neither X or V factor - ANSWER A. X and V factor The lecithin hydrolysis, indicated by the tips of the arrows in this photograph of an egg yolk agar plate, may be produced by each of the following Bacillus species except: Select one: a. Bacillus cerebus b. Bacillus subtilis c. Bacillus mycoides d. Bacillus anthracis - ANSWER B. Bacillus subtilis The increased resistance of MRSA strains to beta-lactam antibiotics is due to production of which of the following penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)? Select one: a. PBP 2 a. Tofu b. Cola c. Alcohol - ANSWER B. cola The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amoebae is the: Select one: a. Trophozoite b. Cyst c. Larva d. Egg - ANSWER B. cyst Each of the following characteristics will differentiate between Listeria monocytogenes and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiaeexcept: Select one: a. Hydrolsis of esculin b. Motility c. Catalase d. Fermentation of glucose - ANSWER D. Fermentation of glucose ________________ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs), such as abcesses, cellulitis, folliculitis and impetigo. Select one: a. Hospital-associated MRSA b. Community-associated MRSA - ANSWER B. Community acquired MRSA T A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus was isolated from a throat culture. It gave the following biochemical reactions:· Bacitracin - Susceptible· Bile esculin - Negative· 6.5% NaCl - No growth· CAMP - Negative· SXT - ResistantWhat is the presumptive identification? Select one: a. Beta Streptococcus, group B b. Beta Streptococcus, not group A, B, or D c. Beta Streptococcus, group G d. Beta Streptococcus, group A - ANSWER D. strep A Which is not positive for ALA? a. Haemophilus parainfluenzae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Haemophilus parahaemolyticus d. Haemophilus aphrophilus - ANSWER B. H influenzae What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? Select one: a. Bacteria b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) d. Malarial parasites - ANSWER A. bacteria Thick Giemsa-stained smears are primarily used to screen for the presence of: Select one: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Plasmodium species d. Onchocerca volvulus - ANSWER C. Plasmodium species Which of the following HPV types are most likely to be associated with cervical cancer? Select one: a. 6 and 11 b. 16 and 18 c. 42 and 43 d. 44 and 54 - ANSWER b. 16 and 18 Surprise! Animals are not the only creatures with bacteria. The bacterial species causing onion rot is: Select one: a. Shewanella putrifaciens b. Burkholderia cepacia c. Pantoea agglomerans (Erwinia herbicola) d. Klebsiella planticola - ANSWER B. Burkholderia cepacia Which of the following species of Mycobacteriummight be associated with contamination of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals? Select one: a. M. xenopi b. M. ulcerans c. M. marinum d. M. haemophilum e. M. tuberculosis - ANSWER a. M. xenopi The Iodine prep method is used to detect which of the following protozoan stages: Select one: Select one: a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Standard Deviation d. Specificity - ANSWER B. precision The following laboratory data are indicative of which of the disorders listed below:1. Marked hemolysis in the serum obtained from clotted blood incubated at 37oC (90.6oF) for one hour2. Hemolysis of erythrocytes in acidified serum3. Accelerated lysis after 48 hours with addition of sucrose4. Low erythrocytic cholinesterase activity5. Erythrocytes develop pits on their surface6. Strong Prussian blue reaction in the urinary sediment Select one: a. Organic phosphate poisoning b. Lead poisoning c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria e. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency - ANSWER C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria This state of the granulocytic series is characterized by the appearance of specific granules. Select one: a. Progranulocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Band e. Monocyte - ANSWER B. Myelocyte A peak or spike at the left end (2-3 fl area) of a platelet histogram may indicate interference by: Select one: a. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC's b. Nucleated red blood cells c. Schistocytes d. Platelet clumps e. None of the above - ANSWER A. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC's The globin component of hemoglobin F Select one: a. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains b. is composed of 4 epsilon chains c. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains d. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains - ANSWER D. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains Hemolysis produced by intravascular erythrocyte fragmentation is characterized by the appearance of: Select one: a. spherocytes b. acanthocytes c. schizocytes d. Heinz bodies - ANSWER C. Shistocytes For the hematologic condition, Aplastic anemia, what is the most likely reticulocyte response? Select one: a. Normal reticulocyte count b. Increased reticulocyte count c. Decreased reticulocyte count d. Total absence of reticulocytes e. Reticulocyte count irrelevant - ANSWER C. Decreased retic count All of the following are characteristics of vitamin K except: Select one: a. Required for biological activity of some coagulation factors b. Activity is enhanced by heparin therapy c. Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors d. Prolonged antibiotic treatment causes vitamin K deficiency - ANSWER B. Activity is enhanced by heparin therapy A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Prolonged APTT b. Decreased fibrinogen levels c. Increased risk of thrombosis d. Spontaneous hemorrhage - ANSWER C. increased risk of thrombis The most common cause of hemostasis abnormalities is: Select one: a. Factor VIII deficiency b. Factor IX deficiency c. Fibrinogen deficiency d. Quantitative platelet abnormality - ANSWER D. Quantitative platelet abnormality Transfusions of stored blood can lead to diminished levels of: Select one: a. II and XIII Patient screening tests had the following results:Prothrombin = -->11 secondsActivated Partial Thromboplastin Time = -->100 secondsThe patient's plasma was mixed with fresh plasma and the APTT was repeated. The result was 95 seconds. Select one: a. This confirms that the patient has a plasma factor deficiency b. This suggests the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient's plasma c. Platelets are either quantitatively or qualitatively affected d. The tech. must have erred in the repeat procedure - ANSWER B. This suggest the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient's plasma After coumadin or warfarin administration the prothrombin time: Select one: a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged - ANSWER A. increases Which statement about the fibrin degradation product (FDP) test is false? Select one: a. Detects early degradation products b. Elevated in DIC c. Evaluates the fibrinolytic system d. Detects late degradation products - ANSWER A. detects early degradation products The coagulation factors affected by coumarin-type drugs include: Select one: a. VIII, IX, and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX, and X d. II, V, and VII - ANSWER C. II, VII, IX, X The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Select one: a. Accurately identifies the presence of disease b. Accurately identifies the absence of disease c. Has many false-positives d. Has few false-negatives - ANSWER B. Accurately identifies the absence of the disease A three-year old boy was brought unconscious to the emergency room. Arterial blood gas results were as follows:This patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabokic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis - ANSWER C. respiratory acidosis An electrophorectic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: Select one: a. A normal LD isoenzyme pattern b. Hemolysis c. Pancreatitis d. None of the above - ANSWER B. hemolysis Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following except: Select one: a. MB b. MM c. MBM d. BB - ANSWER C. MBM Which one of the following usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? Select one: a. Albumin b. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin c. Fibrinogen d. Ceruloplasmin - ANSWER A. Albumin A urine specimen was collected at 6:00 a.m. and remained at room temperature until it was received in the laboratory at 3:30 p.m. How may the pH of the specimen be affected by the extended time at room temperature if bacteria are present in the specimen? Select one: a. The pH may become more acidic. b. The pH may become more alkaline. c. The pH will become neutral. d. The pH would probably not be affected - ANSWER B. The pH may become more alkaline Oliguria is usually correlated with: Select one: a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Hepatitis d. Tubular damage - ANSWER A. Acute glomerularnephritis Select one: a. Cerebrospinal b. Peritoneal c. Pleural d. Synovial e. Seminal - ANSWER synovial Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would be most indicative of kidney disease: Select one: a. WBCs and bacteria b. Tubular epithelial cells c. Squamous epithelial cells d. RBCs - ANSWER tubular epithelial cells Which of the following conditions produce glycosuria? Select one: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Fanconi's syndrome c. Impaired tubular reabsorption/advanced kidney failure d. All of the above - ANSWER all of the above At what temperature should the urine be prior to testing with the reagent strip method? Select one: a. 4o C b. 37 o C c. Room temperature d. Temperature does not affect test results - ANSWER room temperature Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown products of: Select one: a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. monocytes d. lymphocytes e. basophils - ANSWER eosinophils A 62-year-old man drank an unknown liquid in a suicide attempt, and his urine contained crystals similar in shape to those shown in this image. This man MOST likely ingested: Select one: a. Methanol b. Isopropanol c. Ethylene glycol d. Ethanol - ANSWER ethylene glycol binary fission is the means of reproduction for which of the following groups of parasites? -Amebae -round worm -tape worm -fluke - ANSWER amebae what is the most prevalent blood type found in the US? o pos b pos a pos o neg - ANSWER o pos If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae - ANSWER C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection? a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) b. Lateral Flow Immunoassay c. Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA) d. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme - ANSWER D. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme What is the most common combination of ANA patterns? a. Homogeneous and centromere b. Speckled and nucleolar c. Speckled and SSA/Ro d. Homogeneous and speckled - ANSWER D. Homogenous and speckled Which two stages of cell division are the most important for reading ANAs? a. Prophase and metaphase b. Interphase and anaphase c. Anaphase and telophase d. Interphase and metaphase - ANSWER D. Interphase and Metaphase