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A practice test for the ati level 1 comprehensive basic care (cbc) exam, which is a standardized nursing assessment exam. A series of questions and answers related to various nursing topics, including client care, medication administration, and disease management. The questions cover a wide range of nursing concepts and skills, and the answers have been verified as correct. This practice test could be useful for nursing students preparing for the ati level 1 cbc exam, as it provides an opportunity to assess their knowledge and identify areas for improvement. The document may also be relevant for nursing educators who are designing curriculum or preparing students for the exam.
Typology: Exams
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A nurse who is assisting a client who has right-sided hemiparesis with ambulating should stand on the client's affected side and support the client using a gait belt. R side assistance gait belt anterior assistance L side assistance GAIT BELT. A nurse who is assisting a client who has right-sided hemiparesis with ambulating should stand on the client's affected side and support the client using a gait belt. A nurse is reviewing the labs of an AIDS patient. Which of the following labs should the nurse review to determine if the client's at risk for malnutrition? WBC Albumin CD4 T cell count C-reactive protein ALBUMIN. The nurse should review albumin levels to determine a client's risk for malnutrition. A client who is malnourished will have an albumin level below the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 g/dL. A nurse is providing teaching about home care to the patient of an adolescent who has infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse instruct the parent to report to the provider? Swollen cervical lymph nodes
Exudate on tonsils Lack of energy Onset of abd pain ONSET OF ABD PAIN. The nurse should instruct the parent to report the onset of abdominal pain to the provider because this is an indication of splenomegaly. Splenic hemorrhage or rupture can occur and is usually caused by trauma. A nurse is admitting an infant who has pertussis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Administer antiviral med to infant. Initiate droplet precautions for infant. Limit the infant's oral intake of fluids to 60ml/day. Monitor infant for manifestations of increase intracranial pressure. INITAITE DROPLET PRECAUTIONS FOR THE INFANT. The nurse should initiate droplet precautions for an infant who has pertussis. Other actions the nurse should take include providing humidified oxygen and suctioning secretions to prevent choking. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following info should the nurse include in the teaching? Increase daily intake of foods containing Vit A. Limit alcohol consumption to 10oz daily. Perform exercises to strengthen abdominal core. Start a daily jogging regimen. PERFORM EXERCISES TO STRENGTHEN ABD CORE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform exercises to strengthen the abdominal and back muscles to maintain stability of the spinal column and prevent vertebral fractures. A nurse is assessing a client who's experiencing diarrhea and vomiting and has a NA level of 124mEq/L. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Orthostatic hypotension. Hoarse voice. Neck vein distention. Muscle twitching. ORTHOSTATIC HYPOTENSION. The nurse should monitor the client who has a sodium level of 124 mEq/L for orthostatic hypotension. The expected reference range for sodium is 136 to 145 mEq/L. Other manifestations of hyponatremia include decreased deep tendon reflexes, headache, confusion, and lethargy. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to parents of a newborn about crib use. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? Arranging small stuffed animals in crib is recommended to provide security. Moving the crib near a window will provide baby with necessary fresh air and light. Dressing your baby in a one-piece sleeper for bedtime will replace the need to use a blanket or sheet. Placing your baby on her tummy in the crib will hasten drowsiness and provide a more restful night's sleep. ONE PIECE SLEEPER AND NO BLANKET/SHEET. The nurse should instruct the parents to dress the newborn in a one-piece sleeper or a "sleep-sack" at bedtime, which keeps the newborn's body covered. Blankets and quilts significantly increase the newborn's risk of suffocation and should be avoided. Nurse is assessing a client who has musculoskeletal trauma following a MVC 2 days ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Labs. BP. Pain. ECG results. Diagnostic Results
Hct 42% Hgb 14 g/dL ECG Sinus tachycardia Graphic Record Temperature 38.3°C (100.9°F) Heart rate 106/min Respiratory rate 22/min Blood pressure 144/90 mm Hg Nurses' Notes Client reports pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 in casted left arm IV morphine administered 45 min ago Client is diaphoretic and anxious PAIN. The nurse should report the client's pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 to the provider. Excessive pain in a casted arm that is unrelieved by analgesics can be an indication of compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency. A nurse is assessing an 18mo toddler with gastroenteritis w/ dehydration. The toddler is able to consume 3mL of oral rehydration solution every 5 min but still has emesis and diarrhea. Which of the following meds should the nurse anticipate administering to the toddler? Polyethylene glycol. Bumetanide. Loperamide. Ondansetron. ONDANSETRON. The nurse should anticipate administering ondansetron to the toddler. Ondansetron is administered to
toddlers who have gastroenteritis and dehydration to decrease the episodes of emesis and to help eliminate the need for intravenous fluids. A nurse is reviewing a client's home med list during admission to a LTC facility. The nurse should identify that the client takes which of the following meds to manage OA? Lidocaine 5% patches. Celecoxib. Vancomycin. Cyclobenzaprine. Glucosamine. LIDOCAINE 5% PATCH, CELECOXIB, CYCLOBENZAPRINE, & GLUCOSAMINE. The nurse should identify lidocaine 5% patches as a topical medication that can relieve joint pain associated with osteoarthritis.The nurse should identify celecoxib as a cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor that treats osteoarthritis pain. Providers usually prescribe celecoxib when over-the-counter medications, such as NSAIDs, are no longer effective in relieving osteoarthritis pain. The nurse should identify cyclobenzaprine as a muscle relaxant medication that relieves muscle spasms in the back that can occur with osteoarthritis of the vertebral column. The nurse should identify glucosamine as an over-the- counter dietary supplement that clients can take to relieve osteoarthritis discomfort. A nurse is counseling a client who's recently lost her partner in a MVC. Which of the following reactions should the nurse identify as part of the 2nd stage of the grieving process? Persistent feeling of hopelessness. Loss of self-esteem. Chronic physical manifestations. Feeling anger toward family members.
The nurse should identify that feelings of anger towards herself, her partner, and others is an expected grief reaction and is identified as the second stage of the grieving process. A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of a heat stroke. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Hypertension. Somnolence. Oliguria. Bradycardia. OLIGURIA. A client who has heat stroke will manifest a body temperature of 40° C (104° F) or greater, which can lead to dehydration and oliguria. Complications include multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, which includes renal impairment. The nurse should closely monitor the client's urine output and specific gravity to assist with determining fluid needs. A nurse is reviewing the lab results of an adult client who has metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Calcium 9. Bicarb 23 Potassium 3 pH 7. POTASSIUM 3mEq/L STUPID. The nurse should expect to find hypokalemia in a client who has metabolic alkalosis due to the response to decreased blood cation levels. This decrease in potassium can lead to an increased stimulation of the nervous, neuromuscular, and cardiac systems. The client's potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?
Monitor I&Os. Provide teaching about antibiotic therapy. Administer the flu vaccine. Observe the client perform incentive spirometry. OBSERVE THE CLIENT PERFORM IS. When using the airway, breathing, and circulation framework, the priority action the nurse should take is to observe the client perform incentive spirometry. Incentive spirometry improves gas exchange and oxygenation and stimulates coughing, which assists in clearing secretions. A nurse is planning for a client following collection of admission data. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority client need? Client requests to see a priest for spiritual guidance. Client reports coughing and a change of voice whenever he eats. Client reports pain immediately following physical therapy. Client is worried about financially support his family because of his illness. COUGHING AND CHANGE OF VOICE WHENEVER HE EATS. When using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is the client's physiological needs, such as coughing and a change of voice whenever he eats. This finding indicates a risk for aspiration, which can impair the client's breathing and oxygenation status. Difficulty eating also creates an impairment of nutrition. Breathing, oxygenation, and nutrition are all physiological needs. Therefore, the nurse should identify this finding as the priority client need. A nurse is assessing a 6mo infant who has bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? Protruding tongue. Facial flushing. Nasal flaring. Tympany with chest percussion. NASAL FLARING. Infants who have bacterial pneumonia can exhibit manifestations such as nasal flaring and retractions of
the intercostal and substernal spaces due to attempts to breathe in more oxygen to compensate for hypoxia. A nurse is providing teaching for a client following cataract surgery. Which of the following statements indicates to the nurse that the client understands the teaching? I will have my best vision 3 weeks after surgery. I should report a creamy white discharge from my eye to my doctor. I will avoid getting water in my eyes until the second day after surgery. I should avoid using the vacuum cleaner for several weeks. AVOID VACUUMING. Infants who have bacterial pneumonia can exhibit manifestations such as nasal flaring and retractions of the intercostal and substernal spaces due to attempts to breathe in more oxygen to compensate for hypoxia. A nurse is providing teaching to the parent of a school age child who has a severe bee allergy and a new RX for an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Admin the med into your child's abdomen. Expect your child to sleep for several hours after receiving the med. Place your child's unused extra syringes in the refrigerator for storage. Give a second injection if the first fails to reverse your child's symptoms. GIVE ANOTHER INJECTION IF 1ST DOESN'T REVERSE SYMPTOMS. The nurse should instruct the parent to administer a second dose, using a second auto-injector, if the first dose doesn't completely reverse the child's allergic reaction. The effects of the medication will begin to fade in 20 min. However, the child should be transported to the nearest hospital immediately because hospitalization for a few hours following administration of the injection is recommended. The nurse should instruct the parent to bring the auto-injector with the child to the hospital. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving intravenous meds. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of respiratory distress? Confusion
Flushed, moist skin. Hyperreflexia. Bounding peripheral pulses. CONFUSION. The client who has respiratory acidosis can display mental cloudiness or confusion due to elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) retention as a result of hypoventilation. A nurse is assessing a client who has a partial obstruction of the large bowel. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? Presence of peristaltic waves. Epigastric distention. Large amounts of emesis of fecal material. Ribbon-like stools. RIBBON LIKE STOOLS, BISH. Ribbon-like stools The client who has a partial obstruction of the large bowel will have ribbon-like stools with an alteration in bowel habits and blood in the stools. A client who has a partial obstruction of the small bowel can have diarrhea. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record prior to a lap appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Prothrombin time of 12 seconds. HX of sinusitis several times a year. BMI of 24. Report of urinating small amounts twice daily. URINATING SMALL AMOUNTS TWICE DAILY. The nurse should recognize that a report of oliguria, or urinating only small amounts daily, indicates possible impaired kidney function. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. Kidney function affects medication metabolism and impaired function increases the client's risk for postoperative complications.
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute cholecystitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA. Fever. Dyspepsia. Pain radiating to L shoulder. Blood-tinged stools. Eructation. FEVER. DYSPEPSIA. ERUCTATION. Fever is correct. The nurse should expect to find a fever in the client who has acute cholecystitis due to the inflammatory process.Dyspepsia is correct. The nurse should expect to find dyspepsia or indigestion in the client who has acute cholecystitis due to the biliary stasis from conditions affecting the filling or emptying of the gallbladder. Pain radiating to the left shoulder is incorrect. The nurse should expect to find pain that often radiates to the right shoulder or scapula in the client who has acute cholecystitis.Blood-tinged stools is incorrect. The nurse should expect to find pale or clay-colored stools due to the lack of bile in the client who has acute cholecystitis.Eructation is correct. The nurse should expect the client who has acute cholecystitis to exhibit eructation, or belching, due to the biliary stasis from conditions affecting the filling or emptying of the gallbladder. A nurse in a community health clinic is reviewing data from the medical records of 4 clients. Which of the following communicable diseases requires reporting by the nurse? Gonorrhea. Herpes genitalis. HPV. Bacterial vaginosis. GONORRHEA. Gonorrhea is an infectious condition listed on the Nationally Notifiable Infectious Conditions Listing. The nurse should report this communicable disease to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
A nurse is teaching about ezetimibe with a client who has hyperlipidemia. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? I should avoid taking this med w milk. I'll return to have my cholesterol checked in 2wks. I can expect to lose weight while taking this med. I understand that muscle tenderness is an expected result of this med. RETURN TO HAVE LIPIDS CHECKED IN 2 WKS. The nurse should instruct the client that their cholesterol level will be reevaluated within 2 to 4 weeks after initiating therapy, and periodically thereafter. A hospice nurse is visiting with a client following the death of her partner 1mo ago. The client is tearful and states she doesn't see how she can ever be happy again. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? You're sad now, but the grief will pass eventually. You should attend a grief support group to see how others cope with loss. What are some of the best times with your partner that you remember? How are other members of your family managing? What are some of the best times with your partner that you remember? Encouraging the client to reminisce about her partner allows the client to acknowledge the loss and to progress through the grief process. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypokalemia about nutrition management. Which of the following fruits should the nurse recommend as the best source of potassium? One small apple. One half cup of sweet cherries. One half cup of fresh pineapple. One small orange.
The nurse should recommend that a client who has hypokalemia eat oranges due to the high potassium content. One orange that is 7.1 cm (2.8 in) in diameter contains 232 mg of potassium. A nurse is assessing a client who has gestational diabetes and ketoacidosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? Increased urination. Sweating. Dizziness. Loose stools. INCREASED URINATION. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit manifestations of hyperglycemia, including increased thirst, nausea, vomiting, increased urination, flushed dry skin, acetone breath odor, and a weak, rapid pulse. A nurse is assessing a client who has an external fixator to the R lower arm following musculoskeletal trauma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client has developed compartment syndrome? Serous drainage is present on the pin site dressings. Flushing of the skin on the R arm. Bounding pulse palpated in radial artery. Numbness to the fingers on the R arm. NUMBNESS TO THE FINGERS ON THE R ARM, BISH. The nurse should identify a decrease in sensation, such as numbness and tingling of the fingers, as one of the first indications that the client might be developing compartment syndrome of the right lower arm. Compartment syndrome is the result of edema and ischemia, a complication following musculoskeletal injury. Other manifestations include increased pain, paralysis, pallor, and decreased or absent pulses. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Pain w/ palpation to the substernal notch. Urinary burning. Ecchymosis over the flank. Radiating pain to the R shoulder. URINARY BURNING, YOU DUMB HOE. A client who has acute pyelonephritis can experience burning, frequency, and urgency with urination. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for developing respiratory acidosis? Client w/ fever. Client w/ abd ascites. Client who is anxious. Client who is receiving nasogastric suctioning. WTF... CLIENT WITH ABD ASCITES. THEY CAN'T ****ING BREATHE. The nurse should identify that a client who has abdominal ascites can experience a restriction of chest expansion, which impairs gas exchange and places the client at an increased risk for developing respiratory acidosis. A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism and has been taking methimazole for 6mo. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication? Client's skin is warm and moist. Client reports sleeping longer during the night. Client is experiencing increased bowel movements. Client's weight is 1.4kg (3.1lbs) less than baseline. REPORTS OF SLEEPING LONGER DURING THE NIGHT. The nurse should recognize that insomnia is a manifestation of hyperthyroidism. The client's ability to sleep longer during the night indicates a therapeutic response to the medication.
A nurse is assessing a client who has generalized anxiety disorder and has been practicing adaptive use of coping mechanisms. Which of the following responses indicates the client's adaptive use of suppression? I teach my kids about healthy eating bc my anxiety makes me want to overeat. I started taking kickboxing classes to release the stress I feel from work. I avoid thinking about problems that worry me until I have time to focus on a solution. I let my partner choose the movie for date night since I yelled at him when I was stressed. AVOIDANCE OF PROBLEMS UNTIL ONE CAN FOCUS ON A SOLUTION. The nurse should recognize that this statement indicates the client's conscious choice to avoid thinking about anxiety producing thoughts until he has time to focus on them in a positive way. This indicates an adaptive use of suppression. A nurse is reviewing the labs of a client who's taking sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis. Which of the following lab findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of sulfasalazine? Total bilirubin 0. WBC 4K Platelets 190K Creatinine 1 WBC 4K. Agranulocytosis, or a very low WBC count, is an adverse effect of sulfasalazine. This condition results in a decreased WBC count. The nurse should identify that a WBC count of 4,000/mm3 is less than the expected reference range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm3, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client about managing diverticulitis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? Use bisacodyl suppositories to stimulate a BM. Avoid lifting objects >50lbs. Consume a clear liquid diet until symptoms resolve. Take a probiotic 15mins after taking a prescribed antibiotic to prevent antibiotic related diarrhea.
The nurse should recommend the client consume a clear liquid diet until manifestations such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting have resolved. A clear liquid diet is low in fiber and does not stimulate intestinal motility. A nurse is assessing a client who has developed C.DIFF as an adverse effect to ciprofloxacin. Which of the following meds should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe to treat C.DIFF? Vancomycin. Mag hydroxide. Rifampin. Metoclopramide. VANCOMYCIN. Magnesium hydroxide is prescribed as a laxative, antacid, and for the treatment of hypomagnesemia. Rifampin is prescribed for the treatment of active tuberculosis. Metoclopramide is prescribed for the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting. A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of R sided HF. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? JVD. Fatigue. Angina. Hacking cough. JVD. The nurse should expect to find jugular vein distention (JVD) in the client who has right-sided heart failure due to right ventricular failure and pressure building in the venous system. A nurse is assessing a client who has peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Brown discoloration of the lower extremities. Superficial ulcer on the medial aspect of the ankle.
Dependent rubor. Telangiectasis. DEPENDENT RUBOR. YOU STUPID? The nurse should expect redness to the lower extremities, or dependent rubor, when the client's legs are dangling or in a dependent position. The nurse should expect brown discoloration of the lower extremities in a client who has venous insufficiency. The nurse should expect a superficial ulcer on the ankle of a client who has venous insufficiency. Arterial ulcers are deep wounds that usually appear on or between the client's toes. The nurse should expect telangiectasias, or spider veins, in a client who has varicose veins. These are small, intradermal veins that are visible due to vein dilation. A nurse is caring for a client who has RESP ACID due to opioid oversedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Place client on mech ventilation. Apply O2 using a rebreather O2 mask. Ensure a patent airway using a chin-lift maneuver. Admin a reversal agent to the client. You stupid bish. ENSURE A PATENT AIRWAY. ABC Bish. A nurse is caring for a client who has developed cellulitis in a lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Apply warm, dry packs then cool, moist packs to LE. Elevate extremity 7.6-15.3cm (3-6in) above heart. Gentle massage affected extremity for 10-15 mins. Apply a topical corticosteroid to any open areas on the affected extremity twice daily.
A nurse is providing teaching about home care with the parent of a child who has scabies. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching? I should apply cream only to areas where there's a rash. Wash bed linens and clothing in hot water and detergent. Expect rash to resolve in 72 hrs post treatment initiation. Leave cream on child for 4 hours before washing it off. WASHING in HOT WATER. The parent should wash the child's clothing and bed linens in hot water and detergent, and dry all articles in a clothes dryer on the highest heat setting. This will kill the mites and prevent transmission of the infestation. A nurse in an emergency dept is reviewing labs of a client who has hyperventilation. The client's ABGs are: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29, HCO3 25. Which acid-base imbalance? Met alk. Met acid. Resp alk. Resp acid. RESP ALK. A nurse is caring for a client who's experiencing an asthma attack. Which of the following procedures should the nurse use to assess the client's respiratory status? Peak exp flow meter. Spiro monitoring. PFT. Chest XR.
The peak expiratory flow meter provides a means of evaluating the maximum flow of air the client expels during forceful exhalation. It provides information on how well asthma is being controlled as a part of daily monitoring and can be used when a client is having an asthma attack. The flow meter testing helps to gauge the peak-expiratory zone the client is experiencing and determines if the client should use immediate-acting bronchial dilator inhalers or seek emergency help. A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of L HF. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Wt gain. Enlarged liver. Distended abd. Cool extremities. COOL EXTREMITIES. The nurse should expect to find cool extremities in the client who has left-sided heart failure due to a decreased cardiac output leading to impaired tissue perfusion. A nurse is participating in a health fair by providing screenings for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for the disease? BMI >26. Excessive sun exposure. Frequent weight bearing exercises. Hip fracture 6mo ago. HIP FRACTURE. The nurse should recognize that a client who has a history of hip fracture, especially after the age of 50, is at greater risk for developing regional osteoporosis. A nurse is caring for a client who has GAD. Which of the following meds should the nurse plan to admin? Methylphenidate.
Escitalopram. Verenicline. Lithium carbonate. ESCITALOPRAM. The nurse should plan to administer escitalopram, an antidepressant medication, to a client who has generalized anxiety disorder. Escitalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that decreases anxiety and panic attack A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving TPN for malabsorption disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client's nutritional status is improving? Intake of fluids < than output of urine over past 2 days. 1kg (2.2lb) wt gain over the past 2 days. Blood glucose 206. Prealbumin 13. WT GAIN. Total parenteral nutrition is administered to clients who have inflammatory bowel disorders and are unable to tolerate enteral nutrition. A weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) daily is an indication that the client is responding to the parenteral nutrition. A nurse is planning DC teaching for the parent of a newborn. Which of the following should the nurse include? Cover your newborn with a light blanket while sleeping. Don't bathe newborn immediately after she eats. Place newborn in a crib with a bumper pad. Was your newborns face with a mild soap. DONT FEED AND BATHE IMMEDIATELY. The nurse should instruct the parent to avoid bathing the newborn immediately following a feeding to decrease the risk of regurgitation. The parent should bathe the newborn every 2 to 3 days.
A nurse is planning teaching for an adolescent who has exercise-induced asthma and has new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol inhalers. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teach? Inhale a 2nd puff of cromolyn 2 min after 1st. Use cromolyn following exercise if SOB occurs. Use albuterol prior to planned exercise. Cleanse the albuterol mouthpiece once every 2 weeks. ALBUTEROL BEFORE EXERCISE. Albuterol is a short-acting beta adrenergic medication that causes bronchodilation. In children who have exercise-induced asthma, albuterol is used prophylactically 5 to 20 min prior to exercise. A nurse is reviewing the labs of a client who's receiving gentamicin for the treatment of an infection related to renal calculi. Which of the following findings should the nurse report immediately to the provider? K 4.2. WBC 10K. Mag 2. Creatinine 2.5. CREATININE 2. The greatest risk to this client is injury from decreased renal function evidenced by a creatinine level greater than the expected reference range of 0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL. Aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin, are nephrotoxic and ototoxic. Therefore, the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is the client's elevated creatinine level. A nurse is an ED is assessing a client who displays manifestations of a small bowel obstruction. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA. Abd distention. Flank pain. Hypervolemia.
Vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds. ABD DISTENTION. VOMITING. HYPERACTIVE BOWEL SOUNDS. MY ANSWER Abdominal distention is correct. A client who has a small bowel obstruction will manifest abdominal distention from the buildup of intestinal contents that are unable to advance through the intestines.Flank pain is incorrect. A client who has a small bowel obstruction will manifest abdominal pain. Flank pain will manifest with renal obstructions.Hypervolemia is incorrect. A client who has a small bowel obstruction can manifest hypovolemia, not hypervolemia. As fluid from the vascular space leaks into the peritoneal cavity, circulating blood volume decreases. Hypovolemia from a small bowel obstruction can be mild or extensive enough to lead to a shock state.Vomiting is correct. A client who has a small bowel obstruction can experience nausea and vomiting. Emesis might contain fecal contents.Hyperactive bowel sounds is correct. A client who has a small bowel obstruction will initially manifest increased bowel sounds, also known as borborygmi, as peristalsis heightens in an attempt to move the blocked intestinal contents forward. A nurse is preparing to admin meds to client who has hx of HTN. The nurse should identify that which of the following is administered for antiHTN therapy? Ginkgo biloba. Digoxin. HCTZ. Acetaminophen. HCTZ. The nurse should identify that hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, is the first class of medication to administer to a client who has hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide inhibits sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the distal tubules of the kidneys.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who's schedule to be induced of labor due to fetal demise. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? Limit the amount of time the client spends w/ the newborn after birth. Discourage the client from having other family members see the newborn. Inform the client that an autopsy of the newborn is required by federal law. Bathe, diaper, and dress the child before bringing the newborn to the client. BATHE, DIAPER, DRESS NEWBORN :( The nurse should treat the child as a live newborn, including bathing, diapering, and dressing the child. Applying identification bands, a hat, and swaddling the newborn in a blanket show the client that the newborn has been cared for in a meaningful way. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has calcium oxalate renal calculi. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? Decrease your calcium intake. You should consume at least 2400mg of salt daily. Limit the amount of spinach in your diet. Increase your fluid intake to 1.5L daily. LIMIT THE SPINACH. The nurse should instruct the client to decrease intake of foods that contain oxalates. Restricting foods that are high in oxalates, such as spinach, tea, nuts, chocolate, and strawberries, can decrease the risk of further calculi formation. The nurse should instruct clients who have calcium phosphate calculi to limit their intake of calcium. However, clients who develop calcium oxalate renal calculi should consume the recommended amount of calcium, which is between 800 to 1,200 mg per day. A nurse is assessing the client for manifestations of GERD. Which of the following findings indicates to the nurse that the client might have GERD? Decreased salivation. Diarrhea.
Tonsillitis. Globus. GLOBUS BISH! The client who has manifestations of GERD will have globus, which is a feeling of something being in the back of the throat. The client who has manifestations of GERD will have pharyngitis, rather than tonsillitis, and might have coughing, hoarseness, and wheezing at night. The client who has manifestations of GERD will have generalized abdominal pain and flatulence, not diarrhea. The client who has manifestations of GERD will have hypersalivation, or water brash. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has asthma and SOB. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as the priority? Inaudible lung sounds. Persistent cough. Yellow zone peak flow meter reading. Prolonged expiration phase. INAUDIBLE LUNG SOUNDS! A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? Hyperactive DTRs. Abd distention. Bradycardia. Positive Trousseau's sign. BRADYCARDIA. The nurse should expect to find bradycardia in a client who has hypermagnesemia, as well as other cardiac manifestations, including peripheral vasodilation and hypotension due to a reduced membrane excitability. Clients who have severe hypermagnesemia are at an increased risk for cardiac arrest. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has GERD. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following items?
Caffeinated coffee. Shellfish. Apple juice. Green beans. ............. Coffee. The answer is coffee. A nurse is providing teaching about exercise to a client who has OA. Which of the following info should the nurse include? Apply heat to joints following exercise. Avoid aerobic exercises such as biking. Perform exercise even on days when joints are painful. Household chores can count as exercise. PERFORM EXERCISE EVEN ON DAYS WHEN JOINTS ARE PAINFUL. NO EXCUSES BISH. The nurse should instruct the client to continue exercising even if joints are painful because consistency will help with management of the disease. The client can reduce the amount of exercise if joints are especially painful. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe hypothermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Place the client in semifowlers. Admin IV pain meds if the client is having extremity pain. Heat the client's body by using external rewarming devices. Contact a specialized team to place the client on cardiopulmonary bypass. You don't know shit, huh? CONTACT THE SPECIALTY TEAM. Extracorporeal rewarming, such as cardiopulmonary bypass or hemodialysis, is the rewarming method of
choice for core warming when a client has severe hypothermia. This rewarming method requires a specialized team. A nurse is providing DC teaching for a client who has a new dx of COPD. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? I will quickly complete my household errands in the AM before taking a break. I will breathe out slowly through pursed lips if I feel short of breath. I will try to eat 3 large meals daily. I will not get a flu shot b/c I might get an infection. PURSED LIP BREATHING. The nurse should instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing to assist with dyspnea. This technique includes breathing in through the nose, pursing the lips, and breathing out slowly. A nurse is assessing a client in the triage room of an ED. Based on the findings, which of the following actions should the nurse take? Inform client she'll require an IV fluid bolus. Perform rapid flu testing. Place a surgical mask on client. Request a RX for a single dose of short acting insulin. Nurses' Notes Medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Reports weight loss, lethargy, and night sweats over the last 3 weeks. Cough with hemoptysis. Client traveled overseas 3 months prior. Graphic Record Blood pressure 110/62 mm Hg Heart rate 90/min