ATI TEAS 7 TEST BANK WITH 100% verified solutions-2023-2024, Exams of Community Health

Download ATI TEAS 7 TEST BANK WITH 100% verified solutions-2023-2024 and more Exams Community Health in PDF only on Docsity! ATI TEAS 7 TEST BANK WITH 100% verified solutions-2023-2024 This section contains three full-length practice tests. The table below shows the amount of time and number of questions that are on each practice test. It is recommended that you use a timer when taking the test to properly simulate the test taking conditions. Reading Mathematics Science English and Language Usage Total 53 items 36 items 53 items 28 items 170 items 64 minutes 54 minutes 63 minutes 28 minutes 209 minutes DIRECTIONS: The questions you are about to take are multiple-choice with only one correct answer per question. Read each test item and mark your answer on the appropriate blank on the answer page that precedes each practice test. When you have completed a practice test, you may check your answers with those on the answer key that follows each test. Each practice test is followed by detailed answer explanations. ATI TEAS Secrets 1 4. During her research, Lise discovers that Freud’s theory of the Oedipal complex was based on ancient Greek mythology that was made famous by Sophocles’ play Oedipus Rex. To which section of the library should she go if she is interested in reading the play? a. 300 b. 400 c. 800 d. 900 5. Also during her research, Lise learns about Freud’s Jewish background, and she decides to compare Freud’s theories to traditional Judaism. To which section of the library should she go for more information on this subject? a. 100 b. 200 c. 800 d. 900 6. Which of the answer choices best describes the appropriateness of Mara’s data sample in the following vignette? Mara is conducting a study that will examine the ideas of middle school teachers, concerning the usage of iPhones in the classroom. She interviews all teachers who teach a computer software course. a. The sample is biased because it only includes teachers who are immersed in the technology field b. The sample is biased because the sample size is too small c. The sample is biased because the sample size is too large d. The sample is not biased and is appropriate for the study 7. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Although his friends believed him to be enjoying a lavish lifestyle in the large family estate he had inherited, Enzo was in reality impecunious. a. Penniless b. Unfortunate c. Emotional d. Commanding 8. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. • Start with the word ESOTERIC • Remove both instances of the letter E from the word • Remove the letter I from the word • Move the letter T from the middle of the word to the end of the word • Remove the letter C from the word What new word has been spelled? a. SECT b. SORT c. SORE d. TORE The next two questions are based on the following chart, which reflects the enrollment and the income for a small community college. 9. Based on the chart, approximately how many students attended the community college in the year 2001? a. 2100 b. 2300 c. 2500 d. 2700 10. In order to offset costs, the college administration decided to increase admission fees. Reviewing the chart above, during which year is it most likely that the college raised the price of admission? a. 2002 b. 2007 c. 2009 d. 2010 11. If the statements listed below are true, which of the answer choices is a logical conclusion? Literacy rates are lower today than they were fifteen years ago. Then, most people learned to read through the use of phonics. Today, whole language programs are favored by many educators. a. whole language is more effective at teaching people to read than phonics. b. phonics is more effective at teaching people to read than whole language. c. literacy rates will probably continue to decline over the next 15 years. d. the definition of what it means to be literate is much stricter now. 40 35 30 25 20 Student Enrollment (in hundreds) School Income (in millions) 15 10 5 0 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 The next four questions are based on the following passage. The Bermuda Triangle The area known as the Bermuda Triangle has become such a part of popular culture that it can be difficult to separate fact from fiction. The interest first began when five Navy planes vanished in 1945, officially resulting from “causes or reasons unknown.” The explanations about other accidents in the Triangle range from the scientific to the supernatural. Researchers have never been able to find anything truly mysterious about what happens in the Bermuda Triangle, if there even is a Bermuda Triangle. What is more, one of the biggest challenges in considering the phenomenon is deciding how much area actually represents the Bermuda Triangle. Most consider the Triangle to stretch from Miami out to Puerto Rico and to include the island of Bermuda. Others expand the area to include all of the Caribbean islands and to extend eastward as far as the Azores, which are closer to Europe than they are to North America. The problem with having a larger Bermuda Triangle is that it increases the odds of accidents. There is near-constant travel, by ship and by plane, across the Atlantic, and accidents are expected to occur. In fact, the Bermuda Triangle happens to fall within one of the busiest navigational regions in the world, and the reality of greater activity creates the possibility for more to go wrong. Shipping records suggest that there is not a greater than average loss of vessels within the Bermuda Triangle, and many researchers have argued that the reputation of the Triangle makes any accident seem out of the ordinary. In fact, most accidents fall within the expected margin of error. The increase in ships from East Asia no doubt contributes to an increase in accidents. And as for the story of the Navy planes that disappeared within the Triangle, many researchers now conclude that it was the result of mistakes on the part of the pilots who were flying into storm clouds and simply got lost. 12. Which of the following describes this type of writing? a. Narrative b. Persuasive c. Expository d. Technical 13. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage? a. The problem with having a larger Bermuda Triangle is that it increases the odds of accidents. b. The area that is called the Bermuda Triangle happens to fall within one of the busiest navigational regions in the world, and the reality of greater activity creates the possibility for more to go wrong. c. One of the biggest challenges in considering the phenomenon is deciding how much area actually represents the Bermuda Triangle. d. Researchers have never been able to find anything truly mysterious about what happens in the Bermuda Triangle, if there even is a Bermuda Triangle. 14. With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree? a. There is no real mystery about the Bermuda Triangle because most events have reasonable explanations. The latest movie by a certain director gets bad reviews before it opens in theatres. Consequently, very few people go to the movie and the director is given much less money to make his next movie, which is also unsuccessful. a. This director makes terrible movies b. The general public does not pay attention to movie reviews c. The movie reviewers were right about the first movie d. Movie reviewers exert influence on the movie quality The next three questions are based on the following table. NAME COMPOSITION WORLD LITERATURE TECHNICAL LINGUISTICS WRITING (PER 100) (PER 100) (PER 100) (PER 100) TextbookMani $4500 $5150 $6000 $6500 a Textbook Central $4350 $5200 $6100 $6550 Bookstore $4675 $5000 $5950 $6475 Supply University Textbooks $4600 $5000 $6100 $6650 Note: Shipping is free for all schools that order 100 textbooks or more. 22. A school needs to purchase 500 composition textbooks and 500 world literature textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks 23. A school needs to purchase 1000 composition textbooks and 300 linguistics textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks 24. A school needs to purchase 400 world literature textbooks and 200 technical writing textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks The next four questions are based on the following graphic. 25. Which of the following expense categories decreased in the year prior to June 2009? a. Rent of primary residence b. Boys’ and men’s apparel c. Transportation d. Meats, fish, and eggs 26. On a seasonally adjusted basis, which of the following decreased by the greatest percentage between April and May of 2009? a. Gasoline b. Fuel oil and other fuels c. Infants’ and toddlers’ apparel d. Fruits and vegetables 27. According to the organization of the table, which of the following expense categories is not considered to be a component of the “Food at Home” category? a. Cereals and bakery products b. Fats and oils c. Other miscellaneous foods d. Alcoholic beverages 28. Which expenditure category was the most important in December of 2008? a. Housing b. Food and Beverages c. Apparel d. Transportation The next question refers to the following image. Starting Image Start with the shape pictured above. Follow the directions to alter its appearance. • Rotate section 1 90° clockwise and move it to the right side, against sections 3 and 5. • Remove section 4. • Move section 2 immediately above section 3. • Swap section 2 and section 5. • Remove section 5. • Draw a circle around the shape, enclosing it completely. 29. Which of the following does the shape now look like? ATI TEAS Secrets 199 fourth son of King George III. Ahead of Edward were three brothers, two of whom became king but none of whom produced a legitimate, surviving heir. King George’s eldest son, who was eventually crowned King George IV, secretly married a Catholic commoner, Maria Fitzherbert, in 1783. The marriage was never officially recognized, and in 1795, George was persuaded to marry a distant cousin, Caroline of Brunswick. The marriage was bitter, and the two had only one daughter, Princess Charlotte Augusta. She was popular in England where her eventual reign was welcomed, but in a tragic event that shocked the nation, the princess and her stillborn son died in childbirth in 1817. Realizing the precarious position of the British throne, the remaining sons of King George III were motivated to marry and produce an heir. The first in line was Prince Frederick, the Duke of York. Frederick married Princess Frederica Charlotte of Prussia, but the two had no children. After Prince Frederick was Prince William, the Duke of Clarence. William married Princess Adelaide of Saxe-Meiningen, and they had two sickly daughters, neither of whom survived infancy. Finally, Prince Edward, the Duke of Kent, threw his hat into the ring with his marriage to Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld. The Duke of Kent died less than a year after his daughter’s birth, but the surviving Duchess of Kent was not unaware of the future possibilities for her daughter. She took every precaution to ensure that the young Princess Victoria was healthy and safe throughout her childhood. Princess Victoria’s uncle, William, succeeded his brother George IV to become King William IV. The new king recognized his niece as his future heir, but he did not necessarily trust her mother. As a result, he was determined to survive until Victoria’s eighteenth birthday to ensure that she could rule in her own right without the regency of the Duchess of Kent. The king’s fervent prayers were answered: he died June 20, 1837, less than one month after Victoria turned eighteen. Though young and inexperienced, the young queen recognized the importance of her position and determined to rule fairly and wisely. The improbable princess who became queen ruled for more than sixty-three years, and her reign is considered to be one of the most important in British history. 202 ATI TEAS Secrets 34. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the information in the passage above? a. Victoria’s long reign provided the opportunity for her to bring balance to England and right the wrongs that had occurred during the reigns of her uncles. b. It was the death of Princess Charlotte Augusta that motivated the remaining princes to marry and start families. c. The Duke of Kent had hoped for a son but was delighted with his good fortune in producing the surviving heir that his brothers had failed to produce. d. King William IV was unreasonably suspicious of the Duchess of Kent’s motivations, as she cared only for her daughter’s well-being. 35. What is the author’s likely purpose in writing this passage about Queen Victoria? a. To persuade the reader to appreciate the accomplishments of Queen Victoria, especially when placed against the failures of her forebears. b. To introduce the historical impact of the Victorian Era by introducing to readers the queen who gave that era its name. c. To explain how small events in history placed an unlikely princess in line to become the queen of England. d. To indicate the role that King George III’s many sons played in changing the history of England. 36. Based on the context of the passage, the reader can infer that this information is likely to appear in which of the following types of works? a. A scholarly paper b. A mystery c. A fictional story d. A biography The next five questions are based on the following passage. In 1603, Queen Elizabeth I of England died. She had never married and had no heir, so the throne passed to a distant relative: James Stuart, the son of Elizabeth’s cousin and onetime rival for the throne, Mary, Queen of Scots. James was crowned King James I of England. At the time, he was also King James VI of Scotland, and the combination of roles would create a spirit of conflict that haunted the two nations for generations to come. The conflict developed as a result of rising tensions among the people within the nations, as well as between them. Scholars in the 21st century are far too hasty in dismissing the role of religion in political disputes, but religion undoubtedly played a role in the problems that faced England and Scotland. By the time of James Stuart’s succession to the English throne, the English people had firmly embraced the teachings of Protestant theology. Similarly, the Scottish Lowlands was decisively Protestant. In the Scottish Highlands, however, the clans retained their Catholic faith. James acknowledged the Church of England and still sanctioned the largely Protestant translation of the Bible that still bears his name. James’s son King Charles I proved himself to be less committed to the Protestant Church of England. Charles married the Catholic Princess Henrietta Maria of France, and there were suspicions among the English and the Lowland Scots that Charles was quietly a Catholic. Charles’s own political troubles extended beyond religion in this case, and he was beheaded in 1649. Eventually, his son King Charles II would be crowned, and this Charles is believed to have converted secretly to the Catholic Church. Charles II died without a legitimate heir, and his brother James ascended to the throne as King James II. James was recognized to be a practicing Catholic, and his commitment to Catholicism would prove to be his downfall. James’s wife Mary Beatrice lost a number of children during their infancy, and when she became pregnant again in 1687 the public became concerned. If James had a son, that son would undoubtedly be raised a Catholic, and the English people would not stand for this. Mary gave birth to a son, but the story quickly circulated that the royal child had died and the child named James’s heir was a foundling smuggled in. James, his wife, and his infant son were forced to flee; and James’s Protestant daughter Mary was crowned the queen. In spite of a strong resemblance to the king, the young James was generally rejected among the English and the Lowland Scots, who referred to him as “the Pretender.” But in the Highlands the Catholic princeling was welcomed. He inspired a group known as Jacobites, to reflect the Latin version of his name. His own son Charles, known affectionately as Bonnie Prince Charlie, would eventually raise an army and attempt to recapture what he believed to be his throne. The movement was soundly defeated at the Battle of Culloden in 1746, and England and Scotland have remained ostensibly Protestant ever since. 37. Which of the following sentences contains an opinion on the part of the author? a. James was recognized to be a practicing Catholic, and his commitment to Catholicism would prove to be his downfall. b. James’ son King Charles I proved himself to be less committed to the Protestant Church of England. c. The movement was soundly defeated at the Battle of Culloden in 1746, and England and Scotland have remained ostensibly Protestant ever since. d. Scholars in the 21st century are far too hasty in dismissing the role of religion in political disputes, but religion undoubtedly played a role in the problems that faced England and Scotland. 38. Which of the following is a logical conclusion based on the information that is provided within the passage? a. Like Elizabeth I, Charles II never married and thus never had children. b. The English people were relieved each time that James II’s wife Mary lost another child, as this prevented the chance of a Catholic monarch. c. Charles I’s beheading had less to do with religion than with other political problems that England was facing. d. Unlike his son and grandsons, King James I had no Catholic leanings and was a faithful follower of the Protestant Church of England. 39. Based on the information that is provided within the passage, which of the following can be inferred about King James II’s son? a. Considering his resemblance to King James II, the young James was very likely the legitimate child of the king and the queen. 204 ATI TEAS Secrets a. By now, many of you have probably seen your grade and are a little concerned. (And if you’re not concerned, you should be—at least a bit!) b. With each class comes a new challenge, however, and as any good instructor will tell you, sometimes the original plan has to change. c. The purpose of the group project is to allow students to work together and arrive at a stronger response than if each worked individually. d. At the beginning of the semester, I informed the class that I have a strict grading policy and that all scores will stand unquestioned. The next seven questions are based on this passage. In the United States, where we have more land than people, it is not at all difficult for persons in good health to make money. In this comparatively new field there are so many avenues of success open, so many vocations which are not crowded, that any person of either sex who is willing, at least for the time being, to engage in any respectable occupation that offers, may find lucrative employment. Those who really desire to attain an independence, have only to set their minds upon it, and adopt the proper means, as they do in regard to any other object which they wish to accomplish, and the thing is easily done. But however easy it may be found to make money, I have no doubt many of my hearers will agree it is the most difficult thing in the world to keep it. The road to wealth is, as Dr. Franklin truly says, "as plain as the road to the mill." It consists simply in expending less than we earn; that seems to be a very simple problem. Mr. Micawber, one of those happy creations of the genial Dickens, puts the case in a strong light when he says that to have annual income of twenty pounds per annum, and spend twenty pounds and sixpence, is to be the most miserable of men; whereas, to have an income of only twenty pounds, and spend but nineteen pounds and sixpence is to be the happiest of mortals. Many of my readers may say, "we understand this: this is economy, and we know economy is wealth; we know we can't eat our cake and keep it also." Yet I beg to say that perhaps more cases of failure arise from mistakes on this point than almost any other. The fact is, many people think they understand economy when they really do not. 47. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage? a. Getting a job is easier now than it ever has been before. b. Earning money is much less difficult than managing it properly. c. Dr. Franklin advocated getting a job in a mill. d. Spending money is the greatest temptation in the world. 48. What would this author’s attitude likely be to a person unable to find employment? a. descriptive b. conciliatory c. ingenuous d. incredulous 49. According to the author, what is more difficult than making money? a. managing money b. traveling to a mill c. reading Dickens d. understanding the economy 50. Who is the most likely audience for this passage? a. economists b. general readers c. teachers d. philanthropists 51. What is the best definition of economy as it is used in this passage? a. exchange of money, goods, and services b. delegation of household affairs c. efficient money management d. less expensive 52. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards those who believe they understand money? a. supportive b. incriminating c. excessive d. patronizing 53. This passage is most likely taken from a(n) . a. self-help manual b. autobiography c. epistle d. novel Mathematics Number of Questions: 36 Time Limit: 54 Minutes 1. Which of the following is the percentage equivalent of 0.0016? a. 16% b. 160% c. 1.6% d. 0.16% 2. Curtis is taking a road trip through Germany, where all distance signs are in metric. He passes a sign that states the city of Dusseldorf is 45 kilometers away. Approximately how far is this in miles? a. 42 miles b. 37 miles c. 28 miles d. 16 miles 3. On a floor plan drawn at a scale of 1:100, the area of a rectangular room is 30 cm2. What is the actual area of the room? a. 30,000 cm2 b. 300 m2 c. 3,000 m2 d. 30 m2 4. Mandy can buy 4 containers of yogurt and 3 boxes of crackers for $9.55. She can buy 2 containers of yogurt and 2 boxes of crackers for $5.90. How much does one box of crackers cost? a. $1.75 b. $2.00 c. $2.25 d. $2.50 The next two questions are based on the following information: Pernell’s scores on her last five chemistry exams were 81, 92, 87, 89, and 94. 5. What is the approximate average of her scores? a. 81 b. 84 c. 89 d. 91 6. What is the median of Pernell’s scores? a. 87 b. 89 c. 92 d. 94 7. Gordon purchased a television when his local electronics store had a sale. The television was offered at 30% off its original price of $472. What was the sale price that Gordon paid? a. $141.60 b. $225.70 c. $305.30 d. $330.40 8. Simplify the following expression: a. 1 b. 1 c. 2 d. 2 9. Simplify the following expression: a. 2.0358414 b. 0.0427378 c. 0.2341695 d. 0.3483240 2 4 5 ÷ × 3 15 8 0.0178 × 2.401 b. 110 pounds c. 156 pounds d. 137 pounds 20. Which of the following is listed in order from least to greatest? a. − , −7 , −8,18%,0.25,2.5 b. −8,−7 , − , 0.25,2.5,18% c. 18%, 0.25,− , 2.5, −7 , −8 d. −8,−7 , − , 18%,0.25, 2.5 21. Solve for x: 2 − 7 = 3 a. = 4 b. = 3 c. = −2 d. = 5 22. Between the years 2000 and 2010, the number of births in the town of Daneville increased from 1432 to 2219. Which of the following is the approximate percent of increase in the number of births during those ten years? a. 55% b. 36% c. 64% d. 42% 23. Simplify the following expression: 1 3 1 × ÷ 1 4 5 8 a. b. c. d. 24. While at the local ice skating rink, Cora went around the rink 27 times total. She slipped and fell 20 of the 27 times she skated around the rink. What approximate percentage of the times around the rink did Cora not slip and fall? a. 37% b. 74% c. 26% d. 15% 25. A can has a radius of 1.5 inches and a height of 3 inches. Which of the following best represents the volume of the can? a. 17.2 in³ b. 19.4 in³ c. 21.2 in³ d. 23.4 in³ 26. Simplify the following expression: a. 2 b. 1 c. 2 d. 1 5 3 − 1 6 6 27. Four more than a number, , is 2 less than of another number, . Which of the following algebraic equations correctly represents this sentence? a. + 4 = − 2 b. 4 = 2 − c. 4 − = 2 + d. + 4 = 2 − 28. Given the double bar graph shown below, which of the following statements is true? Number of Vehicles Owned 15 10 5Group A 0Group B 12345 Number of Vehicles a. Group A is negatively skewed, while Group B is approximately normal. b. Group A is positively skewed, while Group B is approximately normal. c. Group A is approximately normal, while Group B is negatively skewed. d. Group A is approximately normal, while Group B is positively skewed. 29. A gift box has a length of 14 inches, a height of 8 inches, and a width of 6 inches. How many square inches of wrapping paper are needed to wrap the box? a. 56 b. 244 c. 488 d. 672 ATI TEAS Secrets 213 The next question refers to the following graphic. Donations Medical relief, $650,000Construction, $300,000 Food and clothing, $240,000Sanitation, $130,000 $130,000 $240,000 $650,000 $300,000 30. After a hurricane struck a Pacific island, donations began flooding into a disaster relief organization. The organization provided the opportunity for donors to specify where they wanted the money to be used, and the organization provided four options. When the organization tallied the funds received, they allotted each to the designated need. Reviewing the chart above, what percentage of the funds was donated to support construction costs? a. 49% b. 23% c. 18% d. 10% 31. Margery is planning a vacation, and she has added up the cost. Her round-trip airfare will cost $572. Her hotel cost is $89 per night, and she will be staying at the hotel for five nights. She has allotted a total of $150 for sightseeing during her trip, and she expects to spend about $250 on meals. As she books the hotel, she is told that she will receive a discount of 10% per night off the price of $89 after the first night she stays there. Taking this discount into consideration, what is the amount that Margery expects to spend on her vacation? a. $1328.35 b. $1373.50 c. $1381.40 d. $1417.60 32. Arrange the following numbers above from least to greatest: 7 9 10 7 , , , 3 2 9 8 4. What is the name of the structure that prevents food from entering the airway? a. trachea b. esophagus c. diaphragm d. epiglottis 5. Which substance makes up the pads that provide support between the vertebrae? a. bone b. cartilage c. tendon d. fat 6. The two criteria for classifying epithelial tissue are cell layers and . Which of the following completes the sentence above? a. Cell composition b. Cell absorption c. Cell shape d. Cell stratification 7. Where is the parathyroid gland located? a. neck b. back c. side d. brain 8. How many organ systems are in the human body? a. 12 b. 15 c. 9 d. 11 9. Which element within the respiratory system is responsible for removing foreign matter from the lungs? a. Bronchial tubes b. Cilia c. Trachea d. Alveoli 10. Organized from high to low, the hierarchy of the human body’s structure is as follows: organism, organ systems, organs, tissues. Which of the following comes next? a. Molecules b. Atoms c. Cells d. Muscle The next two questions are based on the periodic table. Note: The row labeled with * is the Lanthanide Series, and the row labeled with ^ is the Actinide Series. 11. On average, how many neutrons does one atom of bromine (Br) have? a. 35 b. 44.90 c. 45 d. 79.90 12. On average, how many protons does one atom of zinc (Zn) have? a. 30 b. 35 c. 35.39 d. 65.39 13. What is the name of the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood? a. osmosis b. diffusion c. dissipation d. reverse osmosis 14. Which gland is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels? a. The parathyroid glands b. The pituitary gland c. The adrenal glands d. The pancreas 15. Which section of the digestive system is responsible for water reabsorption? a. The large intestine b. The duodenum c. The small intestine d. The gallbladder 16. In your garden, you noticed that the tomato plants did better on the north side of your house than the west side and you decided to figure out why. They are both planted with the same soil that provides adequate nutrients to the plant, and they are watered at the same time during the week. Over the course of a week, you begin to measure the amount of sunlight that hits each side of the house and determine that the north side gets more light because the sunlight is blocked by the house’s shadow on the west side. What is the name of the factor in your observations that affected the tomato plants growth? a. The control b. The independent variable c. The dependent variable d. The conclusion 17. Which of the following describes one responsibility of the integumentary system? a. Distributing vital substances (such as nutrients) throughout the body b. Blocking pathogens that cause disease c. Sending leaked fluids from cardiovascular system back to the blood vessels d. Storing bodily hormones that influence gender traits 18. When are the parasympathetic nerves active within the nervous system? a. When an individual experiences a strong emotion, such as fear or excitement b. When an individual feels pain or heat c. When an individual is either talking or walking d. When an individual is either resting or eating 19. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the circulatory system and the integumentary system? a. Removal of excess heat from body b. Hormonal influence on blood pressure c. Regulation of blood’s pressure and volume d. Development of blood cells within marrow 20. Once blood has been oxygenated, it travels through the pulmonary veins, through the left atrium, and then through the before entering the left ventricle. a. Tricuspid valve b. Mitral valve c. Pulmonary arteries d. Aorta a. Quadriceps b. Uterus c. Triceps d. Gastrocnemius 35. Which of the following can be found in the dorsal cavity of the body? a. Heart b. Testes c. Stomach d. Spine 36. Which of the following best describes the careful ordering of molecules within solids that have a fixed shape? a. Physical bonding b. Polar molecules c. Metalloid structure d. Crystalline order 37. Which of the following structures move downward during inspiration? a. Lungs b. Diaphragm c. Ribs d. Heart 38. Which of the following describes the transport network that is responsible for the transference of proteins throughout a cell? a. Golgi apparatus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondria d. Nucleolus 39. During the anaphase of mitosis, the , originally in pairs, separate from their daughters and move to the opposite ends (or poles) of the cell. a. Chromosomes b. Spindle fibers c. Centrioles d. Nuclear membranes 40. Using the table below, what conclusions can be made about the students’ scores? 222 ATI TEAS Secrets 0 a. The scores increased as the year progressed b. The girls did better than the boys on the test each quarter c. The test was about math d. The scores were heavily impacted by the test reviews that were provided 41. Which of the following statements is correct about normal human lung anatomy? a. The right lung has three lobes; the left lung has two lobes b. The right lung has two lobes; the left lung has three lobes c. Both lungs have two lobes d. Both lungs have three lobes 42. All of the following belong together except: a. Ventricle b. Alveoli c. Atrium d. Septum 43. A(n) is the physical and visible expression of a genetic trait. a. Phenotype b. Allele c. Gamete d. Genotype 44. Which system’s primary function is to release hormones? a. Cardiovascular b. Endocrine c. Integumentary d. Immune 45. The heart is located in which of the following areas? a. Pelvic b. Abdominopelvic c. Abdominal Student Averages After Test Review 100 90 80 Jacob Kate 70 60 Samantha 50 40 30 20 10 1st Qtr 2nd Qtr 3rd Qtr 4th Qtr d. Thoracic 46. A substance is considered acidic if it has a pH of less than which of the following? a. 12 b. 9 c. 7 d. 4 47. Which of the following choices best describes the location of the trachea in relation to the esophagus? a. Lateral b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Dorsal 48. A triple beam balance would show the units of measurement in which form? a. Liters b. Grams c. Meters d. Gallons 49. Which of the following best describes a section that divides the body into equal upper and lower portions? a. Coronal b. Transverse c. Oblique d. Median 50. Which of the following best describes one of the roles of RNA? a. Manufacturing the proteins needed for DNA b. Creating the bonds between the elements that compose DNA c. Sending messages about the correct sequence of proteins in DNA d. Forming the identifiable “double helix” shape of DNA 51. Which of the following do catalysts alter to control the rate of a chemical reaction? a. Substrate energy b. Activation energy c. Inhibitor energy d. Promoter energy 52. How many layers of skin do humans have? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 53. The Punnett square shown here indicates a cross between two parents, one with alleles BB and the other with alleles Bb. Select the correct entry for the upper right box in the Punnett square, which is indicated with the letter, x: B B d. acceptible 7. Which of the answer choices best combines the following four sentences into two sentences? I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys. I lost them. I spent hours looking for them. I found them in the freezer. a. I lost my keys, even though I’m usually good about keeping track of them. I found them in the freezer and spent hours looking for them. b. I spent hours looking for my keys and found them in the freezer. I had lost them, even though I’m usually good about keeping track of them. c. I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys, but I lost them. After spending hours looking for them, I found them in the freezer. d. I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys, but I lost them in the freezer. I had to spend hours looking for them. 8. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The warning against smoking may have been tacit, but Beryl instinctively knew that her mother wanted her to avoid picking up the habit. a. complicated b. empty c. wordy d. unstated 9. Which of the answer choices shows the correct punctuation of the city and the state in the following sentence? After living in Oak Ridge Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. a. After living in Oak Ridge, Missouri, all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. b. After living in Oak Ridge, Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. c. After living in Oak, Ridge, Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. d. After living in Oak Ridge Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. 10. What transition should be added to the beginning of sentence 2 below? (1) I zoned out in class, turned work in late, talked out in class, and handed in assignments after the due date. (2) Mr. Shanbourne just nodded. a. Surprisingly b. Actually c. Furthermore d. Instead 11. The following words all end in the same suffix, -ism: polytheism, communism, nationalism. Considering the meaning of these three words, how does the suffix -ism apply to all of them? a. Doctrine b. Condition c. Characteristic d. State of being 12. What is the most effective way to rewrite the following sentence? She is saying that some of the students are wearing to school is being distracting and inappropriate. a. Some of the outfits students wear to school, she is saying, are distracting and not appropriate. b. The outfits are distracting and inappropriate, she says, that students wear to school. c. She says that some of the outfits that students wear to school are distracting and inappropriate. d. She says that it is distracting and inappropriate that students wear outfits to school. 13. Which of the following is an example of a correctly punctuated sentence? a. Beatrice is very intelligent, she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. b. Beatrice is very intelligent: she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. c. Beatrice is very intelligent she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades d. Beatrice is very intelligent; she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. 14. What is the most effective way to combine the two sentences below? Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk. An obelisk is the same shape as the Washington Monument. a. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk, which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. b. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. c. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk, that is the same shape as the Washington Monument. d. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk; which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. 15. Which of the following is a compound sentence? a. Tabitha and Simon started the day at the zoo and then went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. b. Tabitha and Simon started the day at the zoo, and then they went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. c. After starting the day at the zoo, Tabitha and Simon then went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. d. Tabitha and Simon had a busy day, because they started at the zoo, and then they went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. 16. Which of the following follows the rules of capitalization? a. Dashiell visited his Cousin Elaine on Tuesday. b. Juniper sent a card to Uncle Archibald who has been unwell. c. Flicka and her Mother spent the day setting up the rummage sale. d. Lowell and his twin Sister look alike but have very different personalities. 17. What is the most likely meaning of the underlined phrase in the sentence below? The Western perspective expects moral actions to be quid pro quo; to put it another way, a Westerner assumes that if he or she does something considered “good,” then he or she should and will be rewarded. a. “something for nothing.” b. “good merits money.” c. “to each his own.” d. “this for that.” 18. Which of the following sets of words correctly fill in the blanks in the sentence below? We cannot allow the budget cuts to the plans to improve education; the futures of children are at stake. a. effect; your b. affect; you’re c. effect; you’re d. affect; your 19. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The experience of being the survivor of a plane crash left an indelible impression on Johanna, and she suffered from nightmares for years afterwards. a. candid b. permanent c. inexpressible d. indirect 20. Which of the following sentences contains an incorrect use of capitalization? a. For Christmas, we are driving to the South to visit my grandmother in Mississippi. b. Last year, we went to East Texas to go camping in Piney Woods. c. Next month, we will visit my Aunt Darla who lives just East of us. d. When my sister-in-law Susan has her baby, I will take the train north to see her. 21. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? a. Krista was not sure who to hold responsible for the broken window. b. Krista was not sure whom was responsible for the broken window. c. Krista was not sure whom to hold responsible for the broken window. d. Krista was not sure on who she should place responsibility for the broken window. 22. The word capacity functions as which part of speech in the following sentence? Irish politician Constance Markiewicz was the first woman elected to the British House of Commons, but she never served in that capacity due to her activity in forming the Irish Republic. a. Verb b. Noun c. Adverb ATI TEAS Secrets 229 explained in a reasonable way. The passage mentions that some expand the Triangle to the Azores, but this is a Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 point of fact, and the author makes no mention of whether or not this is in error. The author quotes the Navy’s response to the disappearance of the planes, but there is no reason to believe the author questions this response. The author raises questions about the many myths surrounding the Triangle, but at no point does the author connect these myths with what are described as accidents that fall “within the expected margin of error.” 15. C: The inclusion of the statement about the ships from East Asia is an opinion statement, as the author provides no support or explanation. The other statements within the answer choices offer supporting evidence and explanatory material, making them acceptable for an expository composition. 16. A: When a researcher has conducted an original experiment and reports the results, findings, and associated conclusions in a research report, that report is considered a primary source. Academic textbooks, journal articles, articles in other periodicals, and authoritative databases may all be primary sources. When an academic textbook cites research (B) by others, that citation is considered a secondary source as it refers to information originally presented by others. When a news article quotes a researcher’s writing (C), that is also a secondary source. So is a description given on a website of another person’s research (D). 17. B: Only the word introspection can fall between intrauterine and invest. The words intransigent and intone come before, and the word investiture follows. 18. C: The chart shows that plastic and cardboard materials both comprise 15% of the collected materials, and therefore it is incorrect to say that there is more plastic than cardboard. They are present in equal quantities. 19. D: The spaghetti and the garlic bread are definitely concerns for Ninette if she is unable to consume products with wheat in them. With all other meals, there appear to be gluten- free options that she can eat. 20. A: The government website would publish the most recent data on seatbelt information, like how many people wore seatbelts in the accident and how many survived. Choices B and C are more likely to be opinion-based. Choice C is tempting, but it would not give someone the most up-to-date information. 21. D: The negative reviews led to the poor quality of the second movie. 22. B: This question and the two that follow require simple multiplication and addition. Since the quantities needed are the same for both texts, one need only find the supplier with the lowest combined price (per 100) for the two texts. Textbook Central’s combined price for 100 each of the two texts is $9,550. The closest competitor is University Textbook with a combined price of $9,600. The other two suppliers come in at $9,650 and $9,675. The total for the transaction with Textbook Central is $47,750. 23. B: Once again, Textbook Central prevails. In this case, it is not even necessary to do the calculations. The cost for composition textbooks is $4350 (per 100) and for linguistics textbooks is $6550 (per 100). The lower cost for the composition textbooks–$150 less per 234 ATI TEAS Secrets Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 100 than the closest company in cost–outweighs the slight difference in cost for the linguistics textbooks. 24. C: Bookstore Supply has the lowest cost of the four for the technical writing textbooks, and it has a comparable cost to University Textbook for the world literature textbooks. The slight difference for the technical writing textbooks will make the overall cost lower than University Textbook’s and give Bookstore Supply the competitive edge in cost. 25. C: This should be read from the column labeled “Unadjusted percent change to June 2009 from June 2008”, a period of one year. For transportation, the index is down 13.2%. This is the only negative change among the choices given. 26. B: Read this answer in the second column from the right. Fuel oil and other fuels decreased by 3.1% during this period. Gasoline increased by 3.1%. The other commodities decreased, but by lesser amounts. 27. D: In the table, components of each category are shown by indentation under the name of the category itself. There may be sub-categories within each category that are further indented. All of the Choices are indented under “Food at Home” except for “Alcoholic Beverages”, which is a separate category. 28. A: Read this from the second column in the table, “Relative Importance December 2008”. These numbers represent the average percentage of household budgets that are spent on the expenditure category. The greatest number, 43.421%, is on the row corresponding to housing. 29. D: Answer choice D is the only option that correctly follows the instructions in the question. Sections 4 and 5 are removed; section 1 is placed on the right sides along sections 3 and 2; and there is a circle drawn around the entire shape. Answer choice A places section 1 in the wrong location and fails to switch sections 2 and 5. Answer choice B incorrectly removes section 1 altogether. Answer choice C changes the shape of section 1 to a rectangle and reverses sections 2 and 3. 30. D: Anna is ultimately looking for a good all-around guidebook for the region. The Top Ten Places to Visit in Brittany might have some useful information, but it will not provide enough details about hiking trails, beaches, restaurants, and accommodations. Getting to Know Nantes limits the information to one city, and Anna’s destination in Brittany is not identified. Hiking Through Bretagne limits the information to one activity. These three guidebooks might offer great supplemental information, but The Complete Guide to Brittany is the most likely to offer all of the information that Anna needs for her trip. 31. D: According to Figure 1, the radius is a bone in the lower arm. The femur, tibia, and patella are located in the leg. Therefore, choice C is correct. 32. A: According to the passage, the skull is part of the axial skeleton. Therefore, choice A is correct. 33. B: According to Figure 1, the metacarpals are located in the hand. The metatarsals are located in the foot. The fibula is in the leg, and the ulna is in the arm. Therefore, choice B is correct. 34. B: The passage does not state this outright, but the author indicates that the younger sons of King George III began considering the option of marrying and producing heirs after Princess Charlotte Augusta died. Since she was the heir-apparent, her death left the succession undetermined. The author mentions very little about any “wrongs” that Victoria’s uncles committed, so this cannot be a logical conclusion. The passage says nothing about the Duke of Kent’s preference for a male heir over a female. (In fact, it was likely that he was delighted to have any heir.) And the author does not provide enough detail about the relationship between the ATI TEAS Secrets 235 Duchess of Kent and King William IV to infer logically that his suspicions were “unreasonable” or that the duchess cared only for her daughter’s well-being. Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 35. C: The author actually notes in the last paragraph that Victoria was an “improbable princess who became queen” and the rest of the passage demonstrates how it was a series of small events that changed the course of British succession. The passage is largely factual, so it makes little sense as a persuasive argument. The author mentions the Victorian Era, but the passage is more about Queen Victoria’s family background than it is about the era to which she gave her name. And the passage is more about how the events affected Victoria (and through her, England) than it is about the direct effect that George III’s sons had on English history. 36. D: This passage is most likely to belong in some kind of biographical reference about Queen Victoria. A scholarly paper would include more analysis instead of just fact. The information in the passage does not fit the genre of mystery at all. And since the passage recounts history, it is not an obvious candidate for a fictional story. 37. D: All other sentences in the passage offer some support or explanation. Only the sentence in answer choice D indicates an unsupported opinion on the part of the author. 38. C: The author actually says, “Charles’s own political troubles extended beyond religion in this case, and he was beheaded in 1649.” This would indicate that religion was less involved in this situation than in other situations. There is not enough information to infer that Charles II never married; the passage only notes that he had no legitimate children. (In fact, he had more than ten illegitimate children by his mistresses.) And while the chance of a Catholic king frightened many in England, it is reaching beyond logical inference to assume that people were relieved when the royal children died. Finally, the author does not provide enough detail for the reader to assume that James I had no Catholic leanings. The author only says that James recognized the importance of committing to the Church of England. 39. A: The author notes, “In spite of a strong resemblance to the king, the young James was generally rejected among the English and the Lowland Scots, who referred to him as “the Pretender.” This indicates that there was a resemblance, and this increases the likelihood that the child was, in fact, that of James and Mary Beatrice. Answer choice B is too much of an opinion statement that does not have enough support in the passage. The passage essentially refutes answer choice C by pointing out that James “the Pretender” was welcomed in the Highlands. And there is little in the passage to suggest that James was unable to raise an army and mount an attack. 40. B: The passage is composed in a chronological sequence with each king introduced in order of reign. 41. D: The passage is largely informative in focus, and the author provides extensive detail about this period in English and Scottish history. There is little in the passage to suggest persuasion, and the tone of the passage has no indication of a desire to entertain. Additionally, the passage is historical, so the author avoids expressing feelings and instead focuses on factual information (with the exception of the one opinion statement). 42. B: Both of the speakers are arguing over the respect due to an individual, but they are going about it in different ways. 14. B: To solve, first subtract Jerry’s weight from the total permitted: 800 – 200 = 600. Divide 600 by 4 (the four pieces of equipment) to get 150, the average weight. 15. C: Turn both expressions into fractions, and then multiply the first by the reverse of the second: 14 7 ÷ 3 6 14 6 × 3 7 The result is the whole number 4. 16. A: Start by adding the first two expressions, and then subtract 1.294 from the sum: 1.034 + 0.275 = 1.309 1.309 – 1.294 The result is 0.015. 17. D: Begin by subtracting 4 from both sides: 2 + 4 − 4 = − 6 − 4 2 = − 10 Then, subtract x from both sides: You are left with: 2 − = − 10 − = −10 18. D: The points do not show any trend line or trend curve at all. So, there is no association in the scatter plot. 19. A: To find the correct answer, simply multiply 56 by 2.2. The result is 123.2, or approximately 123. This is Stella’s weight in pounds. 20. D: The smallest negative integers are those that have the largest absolute value. Therefore, the negative integers, written in order from least to greatest, are −8,−7 , − . The percentage, 18%, can be written as the decimal, 0.18; 0.18 is less than 0.25. The decimal, 2.5, is the greatest rational number given. Thus, the values, −8,−7 , − , 18%,0.25, 2.5, are written in order from least to greatest. 21. D: To solve the equation for x, you can follow the steps below: 2 − 7 = 3 2 − 7 + 7 = 3 + 7 2 = 10 Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 = = 5 22. A: Begin by subtracting 1432 from 2219. The result is 787. Then, divide 787 by 1432 to find the percent of increase: 0.549, or 54.9%. Rounded up, this is approximately a 55% increase in births between 2000 and 2010. 23. C: Solve the equation in the order of operations: × , or . Follow this up with division, which requires a reversal of the fraction: ÷ , or × , which equals . The result simplifies to . 24. C: Cora did not fall 7 out of 27 times. To find the solution, simply divide 7 by 27 to arrive at 0.259, or 25.9%. Rounded up, this is approximately 26%. 25. C: The volume of a cylinder may be calculated using the formula = 2ℎ, where r represents the radius and h represents the height. Substituting 1.5 for r and 3 for h gives = (1.5)2(3), which simplifies to ≈ 21.2. 26. B: Since the denominator is the same for both fractions, this is simple subtraction. Start by turning each expression into a fraction: − . The result is , or 1 = 1 . 27. A: The expression “Four more than a number, ” can be interpreted as + 4. This is equal to “2 less than of another number, ,” or − 2. Thus, the equation is + 4 = − 2. 28. B: Data is said to be positively skewed when there are a higher number of lower values, indicating data that is skewed right. An approximately normal distribution shows an increase in frequency, followed by a decrease in frequency, of approximately the same rate. 29. C: The surface area of a rectangular prism may be calculated using the formula = 2 + 2ℎ + 2ℎℎ . Substituting the dimensions of 14 inches, 6 inches, and 8 inches gives = 2(14)(6) + 2(6) (8) + 2(8)(14). Thus, the surface area is 488 square inches. 30. B: Start by locating the section of the pie chart that represents construction. It looks close to a quarter of the pie chart, which means that it is probably 23%, but you can verify by adding up the numbers. The total amount of all donations is about $1.3 million and the amount given for construction is $0.3 million. 0.3/1.3 = 0.227 ≈ 23%. 31. C: Start by adding up the costs of the trip, excluding the hotel cost: $572 + $150 + $250, or $972. Then, calculate what Margery will spend on the hotel. The first of her five nights at the hotel will cost her $89. For each of the other four nights, she will get a discount of 10% per night, or $8.90. This discount of $8.90 multiplied by the four nights is $35.60. The total she would have spent on the five nights without the discount is $445. With the discount, the amount goes down to $409.40. Add this amount to the $972 for a grand total of $1381.40. 32. D: Turn the fractions into mixed numbers to see the amounts more clearly. The result is that is smaller than , 1 , which is smaller than , 2 , which is smaller than , 4 . 240 ATI TEAS Secrets Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 33. D: In order to divide the terms, they must first be rearranged as a multiplication by keeping the first fraction as is, changing the division sign to multiplication, and taking the reciprocal of the second fraction: × . Then, multiply the new terms: × = . In Answer A, a common denominator was found, but the numerators were not also adjusted. Therefore, became and became . Then, the fraction division process resulted in ÷ = × = . In Answer B, the reciprocal was taken of the first fraction instead of the second fraction before multiplying the terms. In Answer C, the fractions were incorrectly just multiplied as is. 34. B: Start by calculating the amount in parentheses, completing the multiplication first: 5 + 6 × 3, which is 5 + 18 or 23. Then calculate the product at the end: 10 × 2 which is 20 and complete the equation: 7 + 16 − 23 − 20 23 − 23 − 20 0 − 20 = −20 35. A: This equation is a linear relationship that has a slope of 3.60 and passes through the origin. The table shows that for each hour of rental, the cost increases by $3.60. This matches with the slope of the equation. Of course, if the bicycle is not rented at all (0 hours), there will be no charge ($0). If plotted on the Cartesian plane, the line would have a y intercept of 0. Choice A is the only one that follows these requirements. 36. D: The correct answer is $4000. Chan has paid out a total of 85% (30% + 30% +25%) of his bonus for the items in the question. So, the $600 is the remaining 15%. To find out his total bonus, solve × 600 = $4000. Science 1. B: There are six steps in the scientific process, the fifth of which is “Analyze the results” (the results of the experiments that were conducted in step four). The results of step four must be analyzed before reaching the final step, “Develop a conclusion.” 2. D: The two types of measurement important in science are quantitative (when a numerical result is used) and qualitative (when descriptions or qualities are reported). 3. C: The chart shows two specific changes: snowfall levels from November to April and sunny days from November to April. Based on the chart alone, the only information that can be determined is that the fewest sunny days coincide with the months that have the heaviest snowfall. Anything further reaches beyond the immediate facts of the chart and moves into the territory of requiring other facts. As for answer choice D, it uses the word “relationship,” which is not required in the question. The question only asks for what can be concluded. 4. D: The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, thus preventing food from entering the airway. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a cylindrical portion of the respiratory tract that joins the larynx with the lungs. The esophagus connects the throat and the stomach. When a person swallows, the esophagus contracts to force the food down into the stomach. Like other structures in the respiratory system, the esophagus secretes mucus for lubrication. ATI TEAS Secrets 241 Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 that performs a number of functions in the body: It removes bacteria from tissues, replaces lymphocytes in the blood, and moves fat away from the small intestine. Lymph contains white blood cells. As you can see, some of the questions in the vocabulary section will require technical knowledge. 26. A: The immune system consists of the lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus and bone marrow. 27. A: Turn it into an “if/then” statement. A formalized hypothesis written in the form of an if/then statement can then be tested. A statement may make a prediction or imply a cause/effect relationship, but that does not necessarily make it a good hypothesis. In this example, the student could rewrite the statement in the form of an if/then statement such as, “If the length of the string of the pendulum is varied, then the time it takes the ball to make one complete period changes.” This hypothesis is testable, and doesn’t simply make a prediction or a conclusion. The validity of the hypothesis can then be supported or disproved by experimentation and observation. 28. C: The mass of the ball. The mass of the ball is appropriately called a control variable for the experiment. A control or controlled variable is a factor that could be varied, but for testing purposes should remain the same throughout all experiments, otherwise, it could affect the results. In this case, if the mass of the ball was changed, it could also affect the length of the period. The length of the string is meant to be an independent variable, one that is changed during experiments to observe the results upon the dependent variable, which is the variable (or variables) that are affected. In this case, the period would be the dependent variable. 29. B: The substance thymine cannot exist in RNA. 30. B: Smooth muscle tissue is said to be arranged in a disorderly fashion because it is not striated like the other two types of muscle: cardiac and skeletal. Striations are lines that can only be seen with a microscope. Smooth muscle is typically found in the supporting tissues of hollow organs and blood vessels. Cardiac muscle is found exclusively in the heart; it is responsible for the contractions that pump blood throughout the body. Skeletal muscle, by far the most preponderant in the body, controls the movements of the skeleton. The contractions of skeletal muscle are responsible for all voluntary motion. There is no such thing as rough muscle. 31. C: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland. One of the primary functions of melatonin is regulation of the circadian cycle, which is the rhythm of sleep and wakefulness. Insulin helps regulate the amount of glucose in the blood. Without insulin, the body is unable to convert blood sugar into energy. Testosterone is the main hormone produced by the testes; it is responsible for the development of adult male sex characteristics. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, performs a number of functions: It quickens and strengthens the heartbeat and dilates the bronchioles. Epinephrine is one of the hormones secreted when the body senses danger. 32. A: The midsagittal plane refers to a lengthwise cut that divides the body into equal right and left portions; it is also called the medial plane. The frontal or coronal plane refers to a cut that divides the body into anterior and posterior sections. The oblique plane is when a cylindrical organ is sectioned with an angular cut across the organ. 33. B: Each gene must match to a protein for a genetic trait to develop correctly. 34. B: Skeletal or striated muscles are voluntary muscles that help support the skeletal structures. Examples of striated muscles are the biceps, triceps, quadriceps, gluteus, and 244 ATI TEAS Secrets Answer Key and Explanations for Test #1 gastrocnemius muscles to name a few. Smooth or involuntary are involuntary muscles primarily found in the visceral organs such as the intestines, prostate, reproductive organs, bladder and trachea. ATI TEAS Secrets 245 35. D: The vertebral cavity (containing the spine) can be found in the dorsal cavity along with the cranial cavity (containing the brain). The ventral body cavity is divided into several subsections: the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The heart is in the thoracic cavity, the stomach is in the abdominal cavity, and the testes are in the pelvic cavity. 36. D: Solids with a fixed shape have a crystalline order that defines and maintains that shape. 37. B: The diaphragm moves downward or contracts to increase the space in the thoracic cavity. This downward motion inflates the lungs and contracts the ribs. The heart’s position does not change during inspiration or expiration. 38. B: The endoplasmic reticulum is the cell’s transport network that moves proteins from one part of the cell to another. The Golgi apparatus assists in the transport but is not the actual transport network. Mitochondria are organelles (“tiny organs”) that help in the production of ATP, which the cells need to operate properly. The nucleolus participates in the production of ribosomes that are needed to generate proteins for the cell. 39. A: The chromosomes separate during anaphase and move to the opposite ends of the cells. 40. A: The table reflects student scores for each quarter. The trend that can be seen in the graph is an increase in scores as the year progressed. The graph label mentions a test review, but there is not enough information about that to know if that is the reason for the scores changing. 41. A: The right lung has three segments: upper, medial and lower. The left lung has two lobes: upper and lower. The lobes are further divided into segments. The right lung comprises ten segments: three in the right upper, two in the right medial lobe, and five in the right lower lobe. The left lung comprises eight segments: four in the left upper lobe and four in the left lower lobe. 42. B: Alveoli are air sacs found within the lung parenchyma and are not part of the cardiac system. The septum is dividing wall between the right and left sides of the heart. The heart has four chambers: the upper two chambers are the right and left atrium and the lower two chambers are the right and left ventricles. 43. A: The physical expression—such as hair color—is the result of the phenotype. The genotype is the basic genetic code. 44. B: The endocrine system is made up of the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, pancreas, ovaries, and testicles. They secrete hormones which help regulate mood, growth and development, tissue function, metabolism, and sexual function and reproductive processes. 45. D: The heart is located in the thoracic cavity. The thoracic cavity extends from the neck to the diaphragm, which divides the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity. Some of the major structures contained in the thoracic cavity are the ribs, heart, lungs, mediastinum, trachea, and the esophagus. 46. C: The number of 7 is the “breaking point” between basic and acidic. Above 7 solutions are considered basic; below 7 solutions are considered acidic. For instance, milk, with a pH of 6.5, is actually considered acidic. Bleach, with a pH of 12.5, is considered basic. previous clause. Answer choice C is incorrect because it offers no punctuation to separate the two independent clauses and thus creates more confusion than clarity. 14. A: A comma should be used to separate the independent clause beginning with some members from the non-essential phrase beginning with which is. Choice B is incorrect because it is missing the comma. Choice C is incorrect because it incorrectly uses that instead of which. Choice D is incorrect because it uses a semicolon instead of a comma. 15. B: Answer choice B contains two independent clauses that are joined with a comma and the coordinating conjunction and. Answer choice A, though it contains a compound subject and a compound verb, is still a simple sentence. Answer choice C opens with a dependent clause, so it is a complex sentence. Answer choice D is a compound-complex sentence because it includes a dependent clause as well as two independent clauses. 16. B: Answer choice B correctly capitalizes Uncle Archibald, where Uncle Archibald is used as one whole to a specific name, which makes it a proper noun. If the sentence said “her uncle Archibald,” then uncle would remain lower case. In answer choice A, the word cousin needs no capitalization, because it is used to describe Elaine but is not used as part of her name. (The only distinctions are when the word is used within a direct address or opens a sentence.) Similarly, mother and sister do not need to be capitalized unless they are the first word of the sentence or are used to directly address someone. 17. D: Within the context of the sentence, it seems as if “quid pro quo” means something like “if I do something, then I will be rewarded with something good.” Choice A is not a good choice because it says “if I don’t do anything, I will get something good.” Choice B is inappropriate because money is not mentioned. While choice C might seem like a good choice, the phrase is not put in another way to talk about what people deserve as much as it talks about what people should do or how they should behave. Choice D is the best choice because “something for something” implies the sort of exchange described in the passage. 18. D: The word affect is a verb in this context and is the correct usage within the sentence. The possessive pronoun your also correctly modifies children, so answer choice D is correct. All other answer choices incorrectly apply the words to the sentence. 19. B: The context of the sentence suggests that the trauma of surviving the plane crash left longterm memories that haunted Johanna for many years. As a result, permanent is the best meaning of indelible. The other meanings make little sense in the context of the sentence. The only possible option is indirect, but there is nothing about the sentence to suggest that the nightmares are indirect impressions of a traumatic experience. 20. C: The word east in answer choice C is simply a directional indication and does not need to be capitalized in the context of the sentence. All other uses of capitalization are correct in the context of the sentences. The word South should be capitalized when it refers to a region of the United States (as indicated by the mention of Mississippi). The word East should be capitalized when it refers to the region of Texas. And the word north does not need to be capitalized when it is simply a directional indication (as in answer choice D). 21. C: The word whom correctly indicates the objective case—as in “to hold him/her responsible”— so answer choice C is correct. The word who in answer choice A incorrectly indicates the subjective case. Similarly, answer choice B is incorrect because the word who is the subjective case (instead of the objective case) here. Answer choice D is incorrect because it incorrectly applies the objective whom instead of the subjective who. 22. B: The word capacity is a noun in this context, so answer choice B is correct. Because the word functions as the object of the preposition, the options of verb and adverb cannot be correct. Answer choice D is incorrect because the word capacity is not a pronoun in any context. 23. C: Answer choice C summarizes the ideas within the sentence simply and clearly. Answer choice A moves the ideas around to make them awkward instead of effective. Answer choice B creates a dangling modifier with the phrase without adequate preparation, so it cannot be correct. Similarly, answer choice D makes this phrase a dangling modifier that makes the flow of thought awkward instead of clear. 24. A: The pronoun all is plural, so it requires the plural verb are. The pronouns each and neither are singular and require singular verbs (not provided in answer choices B and C). The pronoun any can be either singular or plural depending on the context of the sentence. In this case, any suggests a singular usage, so answer choice D is incorrect with the plural verb. 25. B: The use of substantial in this sentence has a meaning that is closest to “considerable.” The other choices are antonyms of substantial. 26. D: While answer choice D is arguably the longest of the four sentences, it is actually a simple sentence. It contains a compound subject and a compound verb, but because it represents only one independent clause it still functions as a simple sentence. Answer choices A and B contain two independent clauses and are thus compound sentences. Answer choice C contains a dependent clause, so it is a complex sentence. 27. D: Answer choice D correctly arranges the ideas to reflect the most effective meaning of the sentence. All other answer choices place the ideas in such a way as to create confusion or incorrect punctuation instead of clarity. 28. D: The prefix poly- means “many.” A is incorrect because the prefix poly- does not mean “few.” B is incorrect because the prefix poly- does not mean “several.” C is incorrect because the prefix poly- does not mean “none.”