ATPL Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

Download ATPL Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! ATPL Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers 2024 What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight? - Correct Answer-Drag. Thrust. Lift and Weight What is direct lift control? - Correct Answer-The elevator / stabilizer provide the direct lift control. What are high lift devices? - Correct Answer-Trailing edge flaps. Leading edge flaps. Slots Define the two major types or Drag. - Correct Answer-Profile and induced drag which equals total drag What are high drag devices? - Correct Answer-Trailing edge flaps, spoilers, landing gear, revere thrust, braking parachute. How do you prevent span-vise airflow on a wing especially swept wing? - Correct Answer-Fences, vortex generators What is the purpose vortex generators and fences? - Correct Answer-To reduce spanwise airflow and thereby reduce its effects What are winglets and how do they work? - Correct Answer- Winglets are aerodynamically efficient surfaces located at the wing tips. They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the spanwise airflow from the upper and lower surfaces at different points. How does a forward center of gravity affect the stall speed? - Correct Answer-A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will cause a higher stall speed What advantages does an aircraft gain from a swept swing? - Correct Answer-High mach cruise speeds, stability in turbulence. Where does a swept wing stall first? - Correct Answer-A simple swept or tapered wing will stall at the wing tip first. Explain speed stability. - Correct Answer-It's the behavior of the speed after a disturbance at a fixed power setting How do flap affect takeoff ground run? - Correct Answer-A higher flap within the take off range, will reduce the takeoff' ground run for a given aircraft weight. What's the purpose is of yaw and roll dampers? - Correct Answer-To prevent Dutch roll and coordinate turns What are the four reasons for a variable-incident tailplane / stabilizer? - Correct Answer-Provide a balancing force for a large C of G range, cope with large trim changes. Provide balancing force for a large speed range, reduce elevator trim drag. What is a mass balance? - Correct Answer-It is another form of aerodynamic balance control on a control surface. What are active controls? - Correct Answer-A surface that moves automatically / actively in response to non-direct inputs What is engine torque? - Correct Answer-A force causing rotation What is specific fuel consumption (SFC)? - Correct Answer-The quantity / weight (Ib) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds Why do operators use reduced de-rated thrust takeoffs in a jet aircraft? - Correct Answer-To protect engine life and improve reliability, reduce noise. What is the purpose of engine re-light boundaries? - Correct Answer-To ensure that correct proportion of air is delivered to the engines combustion chamber to restart the engine in flight. Why are bleed valves fitted to gas turbine engines? - Correct Answer-To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, to regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections What fuels are commonly used on jet aircraft? - Correct Answer-Jet A1 - waxing point of - 50 C, Jet A - waxing point of - 40C. Is there a critical engine on a jet aircraft? - Correct Answer-No How does INS/IRS find true north? - Correct Answer-It is aligned to true north by its gyroscopes. What are the advantages of an INS? - Correct Answer-Very accurate, self-contained system, totally global system enabling aircraft to fly great circle tracks What are the disadvantages of INS? - Correct Answer- Bounded errors, unbounded errors, Inherent system errors. What does ISA stand for? - Correct Answer-International standard atmosphere. What is pressure altitude? - Correct Answer-Pressure altitude or pressure height is the international standard atmosphere (ISA) height above the 29.92 / 1013 pressure datum, at which the pressure value experienced represents that of the level under consideration. What is VMCG speed? - Correct Answer-Is the minimum control speed (directional control) on the ground for a multi engine aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration What is V1 speed? - Correct Answer-Is the decision speed. What is VR speed? - Correct Answer-Rotation speed What is Vs speed? - Correct Answer-Stall speed. What is Va speed? - Correct Answer-Maneuvering speed What is VMCA speed? - Correct Answer-Is the minimum control speed (directional control) in the air for a multi engine aircraft in the take-off and climb out configuration. What is the relationship between VMCG and V1? - Correct Answer-VMCG must be equal to or less than V1 What is V2 speed? - Correct Answer-Is the take off safety speed. What is V3 speed? - Correct Answer-Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve at the screen height. What is V4 sped? - Correct Answer-Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve by 400ft. What's maximum range cruise (MRC)? - Correct Answer-The speed at which for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is obtained. What is Long range cruise (LRC)? - Correct Answer-The speed significantly higher than the maximum range speed. What is a cost index? - Correct Answer-Is a performance management function that optimizes the aircrafts speed for the minimum cost. What is the pressure gradient force? - Correct Answer-Is a natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance. What is a trough? - Correct Answer-Is a V-shaped extension of a low pressure system What is an occluded front? - Correct Answer-Is a combination of both a cold and a warm front. What is windshear? - Correct Answer-Is any variation of wind speed and or direction from place to place including updrafts and downdrafts. What is a microburst? - Correct Answer-Is a severe downdraft. What is CAT? - Correct Answer-Is an acronym for clear air turbulence What is the IT'CZ? - Correct Answer-The intertropical convergence zone is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator. What is ETOPS? - Correct Answer-Ex-tended twin operations What system controls the braking during a rejected T/O? - Correct Answer-The Auto Brake System with Anti Skid protection What will occur if the DALR (Dry Adiabatic lapse Rate) ie: Dry Bulb = the SALR (Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) ie: Wet Bulb?A Cloud Base will form - Correct Answer-Other options: It will rain or the air mass will be unstable For a 2 engine aircraft what are the return airfield requirements ie: How far do you require and adequate A/D to be? - Correct Answer-The airport must be within 60 min SE airspeed unless the company has ETOPS Approval. What are the T/O minima for 2 crew? - Correct Answer-800m & 0 unless company has dispo & crew are approved What is the T/O visibility predicated on? Visibility or RVR? - Correct Answer-depends on the A/D & the operator Use RVR If RVR 150 to 200 m Vis If Vis 800 to 300 m Vis Apparently the Vis is predicated on RVR A question relating to the C of G and the Centre of Pressure? - Correct Answer-A rear ward C of G is the best therefore the Centre of Pressure must be forward of the C of G At what levels can windshear occur? - Correct Answer-All levels ie: Low Level Mid Level & High Level Where is the FAF point on an ILS? - Correct Answer-At the intercept of G/S at the altitude you are at or by the min altitude published on the chart The Maltese Cross is for Non Precision Approaches For a CAT 1 Approach what are the minima? - Correct Answer- 200' & 550 RVR Where can you intercept the ILS Approach? - Correct Answer- By the minimum altitude & GS intercept unless being radar vectored You have commenced an ILS approach. The WX has now gone below the minima. What do you do? - Correct Answer-Execute a G/A Is De-Icing fluid effective in flight? - Correct Answer-No. Designed for ground use only. Designed to leave the aircraft once airborne AT what point do you use Anti Ice / De-Ice protection? - Correct Answer-10'C to - 40'C SAT What determines your choice of HF frequency for communication - Correct Answer-The position of the sun in the sky during the day the ionosphere is lower that at night therefore a lower frequency is required to travel the same distance at night What is available with ICAO 2 procedures - Correct Answer- Airspace classification and definition What does the rudder PSI reducer do - Correct Answer-Takes the stress off the vertical tail fin What cloud is indicative of turbulence - Correct Answer- Lenticular Cloud or Standing Wave Clouds ..... Same thing In a jet engine compressor section - Correct Answer-The compressor, which rotates at very high speed, adds o the airflow, at the same time squeezing it into a smaller space, thereby increasing and temperature If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots. What is the Mach number - Correct Answer-Mach # = TAS/Local speed of sound. MN O.80 = 480/600. For a given speed, how does your rate of descent vary with weight - Correct Answer-An increase in weight will increase your rate of descent and vice versa. Which of TORA, ASDA and TODA does clearway change - Correct Answer-TODA What months would you cross the ITCZ going to South Africa - Correct Answer-All year round What is the outbound entry timing in a hold - Correct Answer- Up to and including FL140 - 1 minute. Above FL140 -1.5 minutes How does Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption vary with an increase in altitude - Correct Answer-Decreases. Why does the Airbus have a tail tank - Correct Answer-To increase range and provide balanced trim. Which months is the monsoon season in South Asia - Correct Answer-November to February How would you deal with a fire on a cabin seat - Correct Answer-Use BCF to extinguish the flame, and water to stop smoldering. What type of extinguisher would you use on an electrical fire - Correct Answer-BCF What is the local time in DAC when it is noon in London (DAC is UTC+6) - Correct Answer-6pm What happens to airspeed in the climb with a blocked Pitot - Correct Answer-Over read; static pressure inside the instrument decrease showing and increase of airspeed. What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked static port - Correct Answer-Over read; static pressure in the instrument remain constant instead of decreasing causing the instrument to over read. If after 120nm you are 4nm off course, what heading correction should you use to regain track in 60 nm - Correct Answer-4 degrees. What is Parasite drag - Correct Answer-Parasite drag is made up of pressure and skin friction drag. Parasite drag is caused by any aircraft surface which deflects or interferes with the smooth airflow around the airplane. The lift generated by a wing varies with angle of attack such that it - Correct Answer-Produces maximum lift just before the stall angle is reached. When an aircrafts wing reaches the stall angle, the wing stops generating lift. When no transponder code is assigned or published you should - Correct Answer-Squawk code 2000 OCTA or 3000 CTA What are the characteristics of the weather in the vicinity of the ITCZ - Correct Answer-Near the equator, from about 5 degrees north and south, the NE and SE trade winds converge in a low pressure zone known as the ITCZ. Solar heating in this region forces air to rise through convection which results in a plethora of precipitation. Does a compressor change kinetic energy into pressure energy If so are the stators divergent or convergent? - Correct Answer-Yes, however an axial flow compressor on modem turbofan engines uses a series of convergent and divergent ducts. If your static port gets clogged with ice on descent, your altimeter will - Correct Answer-Overread If the air mass lapse rate is 2 degrees/1000', and the air is saturated, is the atmosphere stable or unstable - Correct Answer-Stable. Whilst maintaining a constant attitude, what is the effect of flaps and slats on the angle of attack - Correct Answer-The angle of attack will decrease. If two aircraft are approaching head on, which way do you turn to avoid a collision - Correct Answer-Both aircraft should alter heading to the right. What is the effect of engine bleed air for air conditioning and anti-ice on takeoff performance - Correct Answer-Takeoff performance is reduced. Besides using the scale, where can you measure distance on a Jeppesen chart - Correct Answer-You can use the lines of longitude. What happens to specific fuel consumption with altitude - Correct Answer-It will decrease. Why do modern jets have a swept wing - Correct Answer-To permit a high cruise mach number with low drag. What should you see when following the VASI on the glide path - Correct Answer-PAPI: 2 white lights and 2 red lights. What does VVxxx mean on a TAF - Correct Answer-Vertical visibility is unavailable. What does WS stand for - Correct Answer-Windshear. What are the aerodynamic effects of a swept wing - Correct Answer-High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence. What is the relationship of altitude and performance of the jet engine - Correct Answer-They both decrease with altitude. If the maximum fuel of the Airbus 310 is 48.8 tonnes at a fuel specific gravity of 0.80, what will be the capacity at a fuel SG of 0.75 - Correct Answer-45.75 T (0.75/0.8 x 48.8) If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots, what is the mach number - Correct Answer-MO.8 When flying the back beam of the LLZ, indications on both the ~conventional VOR and HSI will be what - Correct Answer- Reversed (not on new Boeing) On a conventional wing, lift is generated? - Correct Answer-By moving the object through the air. The lift then depends on the velocity of the air and how the object is inclined to the flow. The straight wing is to mostly on small, low speed airplanes. General Aviation airplanes often have straight wings. Sailplanes also use a straight wing design. These wings give the most efficient lift low speeds, but are not very good for high speed flight approaching the speed of sound. On a swept wing? - Correct Answer-By moving the object through the air. The lift then depends on the velocity of the air and how the object is inclined to the flow? The swept wing (forward swept or sweptback) is the wing design of choice for most modern high speed airplanes. The swept wing design creates less drag, but is somewhat more unstable for flight at low speeds. A high sweep wing delays the formation of shock waves on the airplane as it nears the speed of sound. How much sweep a wing design is given depends upon the purpose for which the airplane is designed to be used. A commercial jetliner has a moderate sweep. This results in less drag, while maintaining stability at lower speeds. High speed airplanes (like modem jet fighters) have a greater sweep. These airplanes do not generate very much lift during low speed flight. Airplanes with sweep need to take off and at high speeds. A deep stall is often a characteristic of what type of aircraft? - Correct Answer-Deep stall is a dangerous condition that affects certain aircraft designs, notably a T-tail configuration. In these designs, the turbulent wake of a stalled main wing "blanks" the horizontal stabilizer, rendering the elevators ineffective and preventing the aircraft from recovering from the stall. Unbalanced runway performance limitations require that with one engine failed at V1, the aircraft can be brought to a stop? - Correct Answer-True With the anti skid inoperative, for any given takeoff weight? - Correct Answer-The V1 must be reduced If when flying at 39000' you found the Static outside air temperature to be -47.5°, the deviation from the International Standard Atmosphere would be? - Correct Answer-ISA+9 (- 56.5 compared to -47.5 = 9 degrees warmer) An anabatic wind is one which? - Correct Answer-Blows up a steep slope or mountain side. It is also known as an upslope flow. These winds typically occur during the daytime in calm sunny weather. Cumulonimbus clouds are more likely to form? To create a cumulonimbus cloud, you need three ingredients. - Correct Answer-(a) Plenty of moisture (b) A mass of warm unstable air (c) A source of energy to lift the warm, moist air mass rapidly upwards. In the Northern Hemisphere, the diurnal variation of wind at about 2000' is such that? - Correct Answer-The wind will have an increasing speed and the wind direction will veer. On the Indian subcontinent, the northeasterly monsoon occurs? - Correct Answer-Between June and September. During an ILS approach, the required rate of descent will be? - Correct Answer-5 x G/S =RoD required for a 3 degree slope. When flying and NDB approach using an RMI, to regain track when off track? - Correct Answer-You must first turn through the needle. TCAS works on/uses - Correct Answer-TCAS interrogates the SSR transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities. With this information, the TCAS computer can determine if a potential collision risk exists and if so, provide visual and aural warning as well as command actions on how to avoid the collision. This is done all with vertical commands only. The transponder setting for hijacking is - Correct Answer-7500 What effect does a winglet have on an airfoil - Correct Answer-They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the span-wise airflow from the upper and lower surfaces at different points, thus preventing the intermixing of these airflows that otherwise would create induced-drag vortices. Where is windshear found - Correct Answer-Most forms of windshear are found at low level. i.e. Below 3000' also in CAT, near a frontal passage and due to microburst and thunderstorm gusts. The MSA on a Jeppesen chart is generally within - Correct Answer-25nm ETOPS certification is based on - Correct Answer-An operator is granted permission to operate a twin-engine aircraft type on flights which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure.Reliability is vital with ETOPS flights; operators wishing to benefit from this extended range with their more economical two-engine aircraft have to show the regulating authorities they have sufficient and proven resources to monitor and maintain their ETOPS fleet. They have to have approved airframes, systems and power plants and operate on approved routes using specified adequate aerodrome. When taking off on a wet runway - Correct Answer-V1 is reduced to account for the degraded performance in stopping in the event of an RTO; however, the all engine screen height is reduced in the event of a takeoff being continued. When the CoG is moved aft of the CP - Correct Answer-A CoG aft of the CP will cause a lower stall speed. Second segment climb is from - Correct Answer-The point at which the gear is fully retracted to a height of at least 400'. What is the typical range of temperature for engine icing to occur - Correct Answer-+10 degrees C to -40 degrees C What is the maximum time permitted for a jet engine to spool up from idle to full thrust - Correct Answer-5 seconds Which is a typical characteristic of a swept wing - Correct Answer-High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence What is the effect on the Field Limit and the Climb Limit by reducing the flap setting - Correct Answer-Field Limit will decrease; climb limit will increase.