ATPL SARON 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Business Administration

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ATPL SARON 100% VERIFIED

ANSWERS 2024/

CORRECT

An ATPL license holder in a Commuter Operation may exercise what privileges as a flight crewmember? They may act as PIC or SIC with a valid Group 1 Instrument rating What privileges may an ATPL holder exercise should his CAT 1 medical validity lapse? Private pilot privileges The minimum night time required to obtain the ATPL is? 100 hours, of which 30 must be in aeroplanes What is the definition of a large aircraft? An airplane with an MCTOW of more than 5700Kg or 12,566lbs A mandatory Reportable Incident pertains to what aircraft?

• MCTOW grater than 2250
• All aircraft operating under Part VII of the CARs Following an aviation incident or accident should the pilot report the details to the TSB? Yes, as soon as possible and by the quickest means available Pilots operating in Controlled high level Airspace if not assigned a code, should set the transponder to: 2000 What are the three RVSM altitude above FL290 for a Commercial carrier whose track is 150º M?

FL

FL

FL

Equipments required to operate in the RVSM airspace:

• Automatic altitude Control System
• Altitude Alerting System
• Two Independent Altimeters A non-RVSM aircraft may be approved to fly in an RVSM airspace if:
• 4000 feet of separation from same direction traffic
• 2000 feet separation from opposite direction traffic What are the altitude bases of the South, Northern and Artic Control Area?
• South FL
• Northern FL
• Artic FL Dimension of a Low Level Airway based on two VORs: 8 NM Wide until 50.8 NM with a diverging angle of 4.5º on either side Dimension of a Low Level Airway based upon NDB's: 4.34 NM Wide on either side of the center line until 49.66 with a diverging angle of 5º on either side A Terminal Control Area vertical dimension can extend from: 700 feet AGL up to the High Level Airspace Airspace Class B: All low level controlled airspace above 12500 feet ASL up to but not including 18000 feet Airspace Class D:
• Controlled airspace which both VFR and IFR are permitted
• ATC separation is provided only for IFR

When the altimeter should be set to the local altimeter setting for an arrival at an airport in the Standard Pressure Region? Once the aircraft is commencing its final descent to land. Flying from Standard Pressure Region to the Altimeter Setting Region : The altimeter should be set prior to entering the Altimeter Setting Region Whats is the minimum flight planning altitude for flights operating on Airways and Air Routes during the winter? 1.000 ft above the minimum IFR altitude When altimeter setting is greater than 31.00 Hg :

• Airport ceiling decrease by 100ft for each 0.10 Hg
• Airport visibility increase by 1/4SM for each 0.10 Hg What are the ETA and Track tolerance requirements for operation within an ADIZ 5 minutes and 20 NM Medium Aircraft for wake turbulence categorisation: From 7.000 Kg to 136.000 Kg Radar departure separation of a Light aircraft behind a Medium? 4 NM Radar departure separation of a Light aircraft behind a Heavy: 6 NM Non-radar departure separation of a Light aircraft behind a Heavy:
• 2 minutes
• 3 minutes if the takeoff is from an intersection Airspeed to maintain Below 3.000 ft AGL within 10 NM of a controlled aerodrome:

200 KIAS

Maximum speed to operate an aircraft below 10.000 ft ASL: 250 KIAS or the minimum safe speed The maximum IAS for a civil turbojet holding at 14.000 ft: 230 KIAS When ATC should be notified about change on flight plan speed? When the TAS change by 5% or more When ATC should be notified about change on flight plan Mach number? When the Mach number changes by .01 or more Where can you find the dimensions of an MF Area associated with an airport? On the CFS pages specific to the aerodrome An aerodrome in controlled airspace that has a designated Mandatory Frequency (MF) and has a FSS ground station would be classified as being what type of airspace? Class E What frequency should be used at an uncontrolled aerodrome without a published MF or ATF? 123.2 MHz What are the reporting procedures for departures from un uncontrolled aerodrome with a MF or ATF?

• Report prior to entering the manoeuvring area
• Report departure intentions prior to moving onto the the takeoff surface ( runway)
• Check by radio if on traffic ou collision exist on take-off
• Report departing the circuit Where is located the RVR A? Near the threshold

Define the term Movement Area: Manoeuvring aerea and Aprons NCA - Northern Control Area random routes EAST- WEST

• Positions Reports for flights on track 046º/226º through 134º/314º should be done over fixed reporting lines every 10º East/West NCA - Northern Control Area random routes NORTH-SOUTH
• Position Reports for flights on track 315º/135º through 045º/225º should be done over fixed reporting lines every 5º North/South What is the visual signal used by an intercepting aircraft to indicate you have been intercepted? The Intercepting aircraft rock its wings in front of the intercepted aircraft Except for landing or take-off the minimum altitude for over-flying an airport is: 2.000 AAE ( Above Aerodrome Elevation) Operating Aircraft over a built-up area:
• 1000 ft above the highest obstacle
• 2000 ft horizontal of some obstacle What is the difference between ATC Clearance and ATC Instruction? An ATC Clearance must be accepted When must crew and passengers wear seatbelts? During take-off and landing as well as any time the PIC directs it What is the definition of an infant? A baby with less than 2 years old What is the recommended practice to restrain an infant?

The passenger shall securely fasten the restrain system around themselves, and hold the infant securely in their arms Cockpit Voice Recorder Requirement for Commuter Operation Multi engine Turbine aircraft seating 6 or more and requiring 2 pilots Which commuter aircraft are required to have a functioning FDR? Aircraft with seating capacity of 10 or more and manufactured after October 11 1991. Flights permitted with altitude alerter unserviceable:

• Training and PPC (pilot proficiency check)
• Test flights When can you test a 406 MHz ELT? They should be tested only in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions What aircraft are required to have a Standby Attitude Indicator? Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service Which published distance includes a clearway? TODA ( Take-off Distance Available) The critical engine failure recognition speed is: V A CRFI of 0.3 can be defined as: A co-efficient of friction to be used in conjunction with CRFI tables How does a Turbo-prop airplane use reverse? Reverse pitch of the propeller blades Why is bleed air taken from the middle of of the compressor section of a turbo-prop? To reduce effects of compressor stalls and surges at low power settings

The holder of an ATPL can act as: PIC of any airplane that's type or class has been endorsed on his license An A320 experience an engine failure in flight, this is: Reportable Aviation Incident A turbine powered aircraft manufactured after October 11th 1991, configured with 2 crew member and 10 passengers must have: FDR and CVR When a pilot can fly into class F CYA airspace? Anytime, although is discouraged when not participating in the activity If your departure from an uncontrolled airport with no ATC or FSS is delayed by more than 60 minutes: SAR will be activated after 60 minutes An ATC clearance accounts for: All known traffic What type of flight plan must you file to travel to Mexico? All flights require an ICAO flight plan ETOPS Requirement: not less than 60 mins single engine cruise if not ETOPS certified 3 Indications of a compressor stall: Low N High ITT Loud Banging During Beta Operation:

Prop Pitch and Fuel Flow are controlled by the Power Levers Transponder airspace aere:

• All class A, B and C
• Any class D or E specified as Transponder Airspace According to the CARs, the operator of an aircraft is? The person who has the possession of the aircraft Minimum Weather Requirement to cancel IFR in Controlled Airspace
• Visibility not less than 3NM
• Distance from clouds not less than 500ft Vertical and not less than 1NM horizontally MMEL/MEL Policy and procedures manual for each type of aircraft The air operator who wants to increase the air duty time of its crew to the maximum must included how many hours of rest? 6 hours No person should dispatch an airplane in an airline operation unless a full stop landing is possible within:
• 70% LDA for propeller driven airplane
• 60% LDA for turbo jets What is the lowest usable flight level? FL 200 if the altimeter setting is between 27.92 and 28. When being radar vector, what is the allowable speed tolerance? 10% Holding Pattern Speeds

• At or below 6000ft ASL = 200 KIAS
• Above 6000ft up to 13999ft = 230 KIAS
• Above 14000ft = 265 KIAS How is the Touchdown zone defined? It is the first 1/3 of the runway or the first 3000ft whichever is less The Turbofan Engine Bypass ratio is: The ratio between the mass flow rate of air drawn through the fan disk that bypasses the engine combustion chamber to the mass flow rate passing through the combustion chamber Compare to the centrifugal compressor, the axial compressor: Has a smaller frontal area What is the basic principle of a turbocharger? It increases the density of the air that is supplied to the engine The FMS is: An on-board computer that allow pilots to get information about their flights The flight control system, is a system that: Includes the flight direction and the autopilot system Difference between EICAS and ECAM The difference is that ECAM also recommends remedial action If a Flowmeter is in the fuel system of an aircraft: It must be blocked and the fuel must flow through the meter or its bypass The torque motor of the gyromagnetic remote indicating compass: Makes the directional gyro to precess Balanced Field:

Accelerate-stop Distance = Accelerate-go Distance Viscous hydroplaning occurs when? The aircraft is moving slowly on the ground on a thin film of water Type IV Anti-Ice fluid: Meet the same fluids specification as type II but with a longer holdover time Tail plane stall:

• Speed well above normal 1 g stall speed
• Flaps Down Aircraft Gust Load Factor
• The higher the aircraft speed the stronger the gust load
• The higher the aspect ratio, the stronger the gust load
• The higher the altitude, the lower the gust load
• The higher the aircraft , the lower the gust load Aircraft in Transonic Flight: Between Mach 0.75 and Mach 1. Disadvantage of swept back wing: Dutch roll Somatogravic Illusion: Leads to a sensation of Pitch UP Flight duty time restrictions for pilots under part 703 of the CAR:
• 1200 hours in 365 consecutive days
• 300 hours in 90 consecutive days
• 120 hours in 30 consecutive days VFR Transponder Code

• 1200 Below 12500ft
• 1400 Above 12500ft According to CARs, a life limited part is: A part that may not exceed a specified time, or number of operating cycles, in service What is the porpouse of Vortex Generator? Regenerate the boundary layer of the wing when approaching to stall Turboprop Beta Mode: The propeller pitch is under direct control of the power lever On a Turbine Engine, the starter starts to: Turn the High Pressure Spool Where is located the Surge Bleed in a Turbine Engine? Compressor P factor= Asymmetric Thrust Cabin Air Pressure Safety Valve: It allows the crew to dump cabin air manually into the atmosphere A single axis autopilot controls: Roll Two axis autopilot: Roll and Pitch Three axis autopilot: Roll, Pitch, Yaw

Magnetic Compass Acceleration Error: East-West Magnetic Compass Headings and Turning Error: North-South WACs, VNCs and LOs are based on: Lambert Conformal Conic Projections Speed for maximum gust intensity: Vb TORA - Takeoff Run Available The length of the runway available for the ground run of an aircraft taking off TODA - Takeoff Distance Available The length of the takeoff run plus the length of the clearway ASDA - Accelerate Stop Distance Available The length of the takeoff run plus the length of the stopway LDA - Landing Distance Available The length of the runway available for the ground run of an aircraft landing Climb Gradient shall not be less than: 2.4% two Engines 2.7% three Engines 3.0% Four Engines SAE Type I fluid: Provide very limited anti ice protection Wake Turbulence Radar Separation:

Light behind Medium - 4NM Light behind Heavy - 6 NM Medium behind Heavy - 5NM Super Heavy behind Super Heavy - 4NM Static Stability After being disturbed, has an initial tendency to return to its original position Positivr stability After being disturbed, will create forces enabling it to return to its original position Who is the responsible for the safe movement of passengers boarding or exiting an aircraft? The Operator of the aircraft Pressurised aircraft oxygen duration requirement: At least 15 min EPR Engine Pressure Rate = Total Exhaust Gas Pressure to the total pressure at the compressor inlet What means the critical altitude of a Turbo Charge? It is the altitude at which the turbocharger wastegate is fully closed How is the pressure controlled in the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? By controlling the air leaving the cabin How to determine stall speed in turn? Given Stall Speed x raiz quadrada de 1. Speed for maximum range = 1.32 x speed for minimum drag Mach Tuck

The centre of pressure of an aircraft moving at high speed moves reward Mach Speeds Subsonic - Less than mach 0. Transonic - Between mach 0.75 and 1. Supersonic - Higher than mach 1. Vection Illusion Fog moving across the runway that gives a pilot a false sense of drift Black Hole Illusion Causes the pilot to fly an approach too low CFS Canada Flight Suplemet All informations about the airports PRINCIPAL means: Any person who is employed or contracted by the air operator on a full- or part-time basis as the operations manager, the chief pilot or the person responsible for the maintenance control system, or any person who occupies an equivalent position; any person who exercises control over the air operator as an owner; and the accountable executive appointed by the air operator No person shall operate an aircraft in VFR flight within uncontrolled airspace where the aircraft is operated at or above 1,000 feet AGL unless: During the day, flight visibility is not less than one mile, during the night, flight visibility is not less than three miles, and in either case, the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than 500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally. The BETA range is: Between ground idle and ground fine The holder of an airline transport pilot licence - aeroplane with a Group 1 instrument rating may exercise the privileges of:

A private pilot licence - aeroplane, a commercial pilot licence - aeroplane, pilot-in-command of the aeroplane, if the minimum flight crew document for that aeroplane specifies a minimum flight crew of two pilots or of co-pilot of the aeroplane. The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to To prevent compressor stalls by allowing compressed air to escape between the axial and centrifugal compressors during low RPM and high power setting operations. The transition area to allow CMNPS certified and non-certified aircraft to operate is: FL 270 to FL 330. Vb is: The design speed for maximum gust intensity What is effective pitch: The actual distance a propeller moves forward in one revolution through the air. What is the purpose of an inverter? It provides AC power to the avionics and some aircraft instruments. When does the anti-skid system activate? When the tire deceleration is greater than reference. The advantage of using rhumb line map projection is: Allows a constant heading to be flown on the route. ESCAT plan meaning: Emergency Security Control Air Traffic plan When operating under IFR or VFR at an uncontrolled airport, pilots: Are expected to approach and land on the active runway. The fan air of a turbofan engine accounts for approximately:

70% of total thrust Which of the following is true regarding CRFI The ground distances indicated on a CRFI chart are based on standard pilot techniques for minimum distance landings from 50 feet including an approach from a 3 degree glide slope, a firm touch down, minimum delay to nose lowering, minimum delay to deployment of spoilers and application of brakes, and sustained anti-skid braking until stopped Free turbine engine: It is a reverse flow engine Extended Range Twin-Engined Operations (ETOPS) No air operator shall operate a twin-engine aeroplane on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine- inoperative cruise speed, unless the flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace TCAS III: Provides resolution in the horizontal, and vertical planes While taxiing, there is blowing snow across the taxiway. What illusion may you experience Illusion of Motion A stabilator: Is a combination horizontal stabilator and elevator whose purpose it is to provide pitch stability A transport category aircraft may operate over water with life rafts on board out to what distance? Up to 400 nautical miles, or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site. After dental surgery: It is recommended that you not fly for 24 hours if the procedure was extended, or for the rest of the day for a short procedure

After donating blood: Generally, active pilots should not donate blood, but if blood has been donated they should wait at least 48 hr before flying. An aft C of G: Will increase range An RMI: Is slaved to a remote magnetic flux valve As air passes through a shock wave: The pressure increases, temperature increases and the velocity decreases. Airspeed Density Error As altitude increases, True airspeed will be higher than Indicated airspeed Add 2% of Indicated airspeed for every 1000ft to have TAS High humidity: Increases density altitude Load Factor: It is the total load supported by the wings, divided by the total weight of the aircraft May a pilot waive wake turbulence separation? Yes, it is the pilot's responsibility to ensure wake turbulence separation Operations over a built-up area may only be carried out for: A take-off, approach or landing in an aircraft at an airport, heliport or military aerodrome in a manner that is not likely to create a hazard to persons or property and unless that aircraft will be operated at an altitude from which, in the event of an engine failure or any other emergency necessitating an immediate landing, the aircraft can land without creating a hazard to persons or property

Our circadian rhythm makes us the least alert between 3:00 pm to 5:00 pm The tower reports 1/8th vis as you approach the FAF to a runway served by an RVR. May you continue the approach? The RVR is not reported. The critical Mach number is: When the first shock wave appears on any part of the wing Regarding NDB airways which of the following is correct? Basic width is +/- 4.34 nm out to 49.66 nm, thereafter diverging at 5 degrees either side. The pneumatic system on an aircraft is used to: Power some gyroscopic instruments, operate the de-ice boots, and provide input to the autopilot. The purpose of dihedral is: Increase the lateral stability of an aircraft. The requirement to carry a flight data recorder (FDR) applies to: Two crew, multi-engined turbine aircraft, certified to carry 10 or more passengers, and was manufactured after October 11, 1991 The maximum allowable flight time in a 24 hour period that a pilot may log while flying single pilot IFR is: 8 hours To operate an aircraft at night with passengers on board a pilot must: Have completed 5 take-offs and 5 landings in the last 6 months at night in that class of aircraft Type 1 de-icing fluid: De-ices, but provides very little protection against further accumulation.

Unless you fall under the exemptions for permissible low level flight, you must maintain over built- up areas at least: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet from the aeroplane. V2 Speed: Must be reached before the aircraft reaches 35 feet AGL, and V2 must meet the required IFR climb gradient with one engine out. Vestibular Illusions: False sensations of rotation (most common Illusion during flight) Vmc for a multi-engined aircraft is determined: With the critical engine inoperative and with the engines at full power at the time of the engine failure, the aircraft is assumed to be loaded at the most rearward approved C of G, the landing gear is retracted, the flaps are at the take-off setting, and the propeller is windmilling. Vortex generators: Delay break up of the boundary layer by re-energizing it. What are some of the factors that may reduce a pilot's situational awareness? Lack of knowledge, stress, fatigue, personality, false assumptions, fixation. A pilot squawks 7500 followed by code 7700. This indicates to ATC that: : The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger are requesting armed assistance. What causes high speed buffet? shock wave starting to form at the wing leading edge. What is air position and why is it important? It is where you are at a given time and if kept track of conscientiously, it will keep you from getting lost.

What is gyroscopic effect? In a climb the descending blade of a propeller has a higher angle of attack than the ascending blade. This results in a yaw to the left. What is holdover time? The time beginning with the start of the last application of de-icing fluid and ending with the end of the effectiveness period. When is an aircraft required to be equipped with weather radar? Under 704 and 705 operations with passengers on board in IMC when current weather reports or forecasts indicate that thunderstorms may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown. When on a normal approach path to an upslope runway: You appear to be too high on the approach. Where do you find the dimensions of an MF? Canada Flight Supplement. Which of the following is usually the first trigger in the decision making process? Early recognition of a developing situation. Which of the following statements is not true regarding "G" forces and hypoxia? "Grey-out" begins when negative "G" is increased beyond - 2 G. Why are smokers are more prone to hypoxia? Smoking increases the carbon dioxide levels in our blood and reduces lung capacity. Wing fences: Create a smoother airflow over the wing by disrupting span-wise flow. Wing tip vortices: Are greatest at slow speed and at a high angle of attack.

Black hole conditions: The tendency is to get low in the approach A MF ground station could be: FSS - Flight Service Station RCO - Remote Communication Outlet CARS - Community Aerodrome Radio Station UNICOM - Universal Communication Hydroplaning speeds formula Rotating tire - 9 x square root of tire pressure (psi) Non-Rotating tire - 7.7 x square root of tire pressure (psi) Components of a Wind Triangle : True track and ground speed Wind direction and velocity True heading and true airspeed Hot Start: ITT exceeds the allowable limits Hung Start: Failure of an engine to accelerate to normal speed after ignition Anhedral: Reduces the tendency to dutch roll. Bank Angle formula: (KTAS/10) + 7 How long Flight duty time can be extended? Up to 3 hours if the crew considers it safe to do so.

If you are flying a 3 degree glide path on an ILS approach and the wind suddenly shifts from a 20 knot head wind to a 5 knot tail wind, what would you have to do to maintain airspeed and the glide path? Increase power, increase the rate of descent, then decrease the power. Transonic Flight definition: It is defined when parts of the airflow over the aircraft and wings have reached supersonic speeds. In a constant speed propeller system: In a descent, the blades are under decreased load and the governor will adjust the blades to a coarser pitch to maintain RPM. In an aircraft anti-skid braking system A sensor detects tire deceleration and releases the brakes to each of the tires as necessary to prevent skidding. In icing conditions, the aircraft stall warning system: Will not be accurate because the ice change the shape of the wings. Leading edge slats: Increase the coefficient of lift and delay boundary layer separation. Symptoms of hyperventilation include: Dizziness, a feeling of coldness, a sensation of a tight band around the head, and a sensation of pins and needles in the hands and feet. The CAP uses aircraft category to determine circling altitudes. The category is based on: The airspeed the aircraft is to be manoeuvred. The critical engine of a multi engine aircraft is: Left engine when the propellers rotate clockwise (seen from cockpit). The purpose of leading edge flaps is to:

Increase lift at slow speeds by changing the camber of the wing. The stator vanes on a turbine compressor: Diffuse the air, raise its static pressure and direct it to the next stage of compression. Valsava Manoeuvre May help clear pressure in the ears To conduct an RVR 1200 feet visibility take-off in a commuter operation: The captain must have successfully completed low visibility take-off training; the captain must conduct the take-off; the captain must have 100 hours P.I.C. on type; the aircraft attitude instruments shall have pitch attitude index lines above and below the zero pitch reference to at least 15 degrees; and the runway has serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights or runway centreline markings. Water on the windscreen: Makes the runway appear farther away than it is and obstacles ahead to appear farther away. SGR - Specific Ground Range: GS / Fuel Flow A higher SGR means you have a better range When must you comply with ICAO flight rules? Over the high seas and over foreign states where they do not conflict with the rules of that state. When taking-off from a busy airport at night in VFR conditions it is recommended? That you transition to your instruments as soon as you become airborne. Which of the following statements is true regarding SVFR? Pilot's must request a SVFR clearance. Wing tip vortices are strongest: At a high angle of attack and at a high gross weight.

The DME works on the principle of: Measurement of time between aircraft signal and receipt of the matched reply signal from ground (the 2 signals have a different frequency). Critical Surfaces: Wings, control surfaces, propeller, horizontal fixed plan and other stabilizer. Who is responsible for entering any defects found on the aircraft inside the journey log? The person who discovery the defect Maximum IFR single pilot flight time in 24hrs: 8 hours