Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12th Edition 20 CHAPTERS, Exams of Nursing

Download Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12th Edition 20 CHAPTERS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 1: Overview: Physical Examination and History Taking Multiple Choice 1. For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate? A) A new patient with the chief complaint of “I sprained my ankle” B) An established patient with the chief complaint of “I have an upper respiratory infection” C) A new patient with the chief complaint of “I am here to establish care” D) A new patient with the chief complaint of “I cut my hand” Ans: C Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 4, Patient Assessment: Comprehensive or Focused Feedback: This patient is here to establish care, and because she is new to you, a comprehensive health history is appropriate. 2. The components of the health history include all of the following except which one? A) Review of systems B) Thorax and lungs C) Present illness D) Personal and social items Ans: B Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 4, Patient Assessment: Comprehensive or Focused Feedback: The thorax and lungs are part of the physical examination, not part of the health history. The others answers are all part of a complete health history. 3. Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. M. has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past 10 days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) Subjective B) Objective Ans: A Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 6, Differences Between Subjective and Objective Data Feedback: This is information given by the patient about the circumstances of his chief complaint. It does not represent an objective observation by the examiner. 4. Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. M. has a respiratory rate of 32 and a pulse rate of 120. A) Subjective B) Objective Ans: B Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 6, Differences Between Subjective and Objective Data Feedback: This is a measurement obtained by the examiner, so it is considered objective data. The patient is unlikely to be able to give this information to the examiner. 5. The following information is recorded in the health history: “The patient has had abdominal pain for 1 week. The pain lasts for 30 minutes at a time; it comes and goes. The severity is 7 to 9 on a scale of 1 to 10. It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid- epigastric area.” Which of these categories does it belong to? A) Chief complaint B) Present illness C) Personal and social history D) Review of systems Ans: B Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 6, The Comprehensive Adult Health History Feedback: This information describes the problem of abdominal pain, which is the present illness. The interviewer has obtained the location, timing, severity, and associated manifestations of the pain. The interviewer will still need to obtain information concerning the quality of the pain, the setting in which it occurred, and the factors that aggravate and alleviate the pain. You will notice that it does include portions of the pertinent review of systems, but because it relates directly to the complaint, it is included in the history of present illness. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 never been intubated.” A) Adult illnesses B) Surgeries C) Obstetrics/gynecology D) Psychiatric Ans: A Chapter: 01 Page and Header: 9, Past History Feedback: This is information about a significant hospitalization and should be placed in the adult illnesses section. If the patient is being seen for an asthma exacerbation, you may consider placing this information in the present illness section, because it relates to the chief complaint at that visit. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 2: Clinical Reasoning, Assessment, and Recording Your Findings Multiple Choice 1. A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to? A) Musculoskeletal B) Reproductive C) Urinary D) Endocrine Ans: A Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: Chest pain may be due to a musculoskeletal condition, such as costochondritis or intercostal muscle cramp. This would be worsened by motion of the chest wall. Pleuritic chest pain is also a sharp chest pain which increases with a deep breath. This type of pain can occur with inflammation of the pleura from pneumonia or other conditions and pulmonary embolus. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 2. A patient comes to the emergency room for evaluation of shortness of breath. To which anatomic region would you assign the symptom? A) Reproductive B) Urinary C) Cardiac D) Hematologic Ans: C Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: Cardiac disorders such as congestive heart failure are the most likely on this list to result in shortness of breath. There are cases within the other categories which may also result in shortness of breath, such as anemia in the hematologic category, pregnancy in the reproductive category, or sepsis with UTI in the urinary category. This demonstrates the “tension” in clinical reasoning between making sure all possibilities are covered, while still being able to pick the most likely cause. 3. A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic regions can be responsible for a cough? A) Ophthalmologic B) Auditory C) Cardiac D) Endocrine Ans: C Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: The cardiac system can cause a cough if the patient has congestive heart failure. This results in fluid buildup in the lungs, which in turn can cause a cough that produces pink, frothy sputum. A foreign body in the ear may also cause a cough by stimulating Arnold's branch of the vagus nerve, but this is less likely to be seen clinically than heart failure. 4. A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct? A) Infectious Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 B) Inflammatory C) Hematologic D) Traumatic Ans: B Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process, although all the other etiologies should be considered. Lyme disease is an infection which commonly causes arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause bleeding in the joints, and trauma can obviously cause joint pain. Your clinical reasoning skills are important for sorting through all of the data to arrive at the most likely conclusion. 5. A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well, and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process? A) Infectious B) Neoplastic C) Degenerative D) Traumatic Ans: C Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck. The patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit pertinent negative and positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic, or neoplastic disease. 6. A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process? A) Infection B) Inflammation C) Allergic D) Vascular Ans: C Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) You have tested your hypothesis. B) You have developed a plan. C) You have established a working diagnosis. D) You have created a hypothesis. Ans: D Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 27, Assessment and Plan: The Process of Clinical Reasoning Feedback: As you go through a history and examination, you will start to generate ideas to explain the patient's symptoms. It is best to keep an open mind and make as many hypotheses as you can, to avoid missing a possibility. A common mistake is to latch onto one idea too early. Once you have committed your mind to a diagnosis, it is difficult to change to another. To think about looking for wheezes on examination would be an example of testing your new hypothesis. Starting a patient on an inhaled medicine would be a plan. It is too early to commit to a working diagnosis, given the amount of information you have gathered. 12. Ms. Washington is a 67-year-old who had a heart attack last month. Now she complains of shortness of breath and not being able to sleep in a flat position (orthopnea). On examination you note increased jugular venous pressure, an S3 gallop, crackles low in the lung fields, and swollen ankles (edema). This is an example of a: A) Pathophysiologic problem B) Psychopathologic problem Ans: A Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 38, The Challenges of Clinical Data Feedback: This is an example of a pathophysiologic problem because Ms. Washington's symptoms are consistent with a pathophysiologic process. The heart attack reduced the ability of her heart to handle her volume status and subsequently produced the many features of congestive heart failure. 13. On the way to see your next patient, you glance at the calendar and make a mental note to buy a Mother's Day card. Your patient is Ms. Hernandez, a 76-year-old widow who lost her husband in May, two years ago. She comes in today with a headaches, abdominal pain, and general malaise. This happened once before, about a year ago, according to your detailed office notes. You have done a thorough evaluation but are unable to arrive at a consistent picture to tie these symptoms together. This is an example of a: A) Pathophysiologic problem B) Psychopathologic problem Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Ans: B Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 38, The Challenges of Clinical Data Feedback: It is not uncommon for patients to experience psychopathologic symptoms around the anniversary of a traumatic event. The time of year and the lack of an obvious connection between Ms. Hernandez's symptoms would make you consider this as a possibility. You will note that although this might have been an early consideration in your hypothesis generation, it is key to convince yourself that there is not a physiologic explanation for these symptoms, by performing a careful history and examination. 14. Mr. Larson is a 42-year-old widowed father of two children, ages 4 and 11. He works in a sales office to support his family. Recently he has injured his back and you are thinking he would benefit from physical therapy, three times a week, for an hour per session. What would be your next step? A) Write the physical therapy prescription. B) Have your office staff explain directions to the physical therapy center. C) Discuss the plan with Mr. Larson. D) Tell Mr. Larson that he will be going to physical therapy three times a week. Ans: C Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 30, Develop a Plan Agreeable to the Patient Feedback: You should discuss your proposed plan with the patient before implementing it. In this case, you and Mr. Larson will need to weigh the benefit of physical therapy against the ability to provide for his family. You may need to consider other ways of helping the patient, perhaps through prescribed back exercises he can do at home. It is a common mistake to implement a plan without coming to an agreement with the patient first. 15. You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints. He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches. Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum. What would the order of priority be for your problem list? A) Arthritis, war injury pain, headaches, chest pain B) War injury pain, arthritis, headaches, chest pain C) Headaches, arthritis, war injury pain, chest pain D) Chest pain, headaches, arthritis, war injury pain Ans: D Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 37, Generating the Problem List Feedback: The problem list should have the most active and serious problem first. This new Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 complaint of chest pain is almost certainly a higher priority than his other, more chronic problems. 16. You are excited about a positive test finding you have just noticed on physical examination of your patient. You go on to do more examination, laboratory work, and diagnostic tests, only to find that there is no sign of the disease you thought would correlate with the finding. This same experience happens several times. What should you conclude? A) Consider not doing this test routinely. B) Use this test when you have a higher suspicion for a certain correlating condition. C) Continue using the test, perhaps doing less laboratory work and diagnostics. D) Omit this test from future examinations. Ans: C Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 38, The Challenges of Clinical Data Feedback: This is an example of a sensitive physical finding that lacks specificity. This does not make this a useless test, because the purpose of a screening physical is to find disease. This finding made you consider the associated condition as one of your hypotheses, and this in itself has value. Other possibilities are that you may be doing the maneuver incorrectly or using it on the wrong population. It is important to ask for hands-on help from your instructor when you have a question about a maneuver. Make sure that your information about the maneuver comes from a reliable source as well. All of this information also applies to history questions. 17. You are growing fatigued of performing a maneuver on examination because you have never found a positive and are usually pressed for time. How should you next approach this maneuver? A) Use this test when you have a higher suspicion for a certain correlating condition. B) Omit this test from future examinations. C) Continue doing the test, but rely more heavily on laboratory work and diagnostics. D) Continue performing it on all future examinations. Ans: A Chapter: 02 Page and Header: 38, The Challenges of Clinical Data Feedback: This is an example of a specific test that lacks sensitivity. With this scenario, when you finally find a positive, you might be very certain that a given condition is present. We generally develop our examinations to fit our clinical experiences. Sensitive tests are performed routinely on the screening examination, while specific tests are usually saved for the detailed or “branched” examinations. Branched examinations are further maneuvers we can perform to investigate positive findings on our screening examinations. Save this type of maneuver to Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) Setting in which the symptom occurs B) Associated manifestations C) Quality D) Timing Ans: B Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 65, The Seven Attributes of a Symptom Feedback: The interviewer has not recorded whether or not the pain has been accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, chills, weight loss, and so on. Associated manifestations are additional symptoms that may accompany the initial chief complaint and that help the examiner to start refining his or her differential diagnosis. 4. Jason is a 41-year-old electrician who presents to the clinic for evaluation of shortness of breath. The shortness of breath occurs with exertion and improves with rest. It has been going on for several months and initially occurred only a couple of times a day with strenuous exertion; however, it has started to occur with minimal exertion and is happening more than a dozen times per day. The shortness of breath lasts for less than 5 minutes at a time. He has no cough, chest pressure, chest pain, swelling in his feet, palpitations, orthopnea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Which of the following symptom attributes was not addressed in this description? A) Severity B) Setting in which the symptom occurs C) Timing D) Associated manifestations Ans: A Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 65, The Seven Attributes of a Symptom Feedback: The severity of the symptom was not recorded by the interviewer, so we have no understanding as to how bad the symptom is for this patient. The patient could have been asked to rate his pain on a 0 to 10 scale or used one of the other standardized pain scales available. This allows the comparison of pain intensity before and after an intervention. 5. You are interviewing an elderly woman in the ambulatory setting and trying to get more information about her urinary symptoms. Which of the following techniques is not a component of adaptive questioning? A) Directed questioning: starting with the general and proceeding to the specific in a manner that does not make the patient give a yes/no answer B) Reassuring the patient that the urinary symptoms are benign and that she doesn't need to Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 worry about it being a sign of cancer C) Offering the patient multiple choices in order to clarify the character of the urinary symptoms that she is experiencing D) Asking her to tell you exactly what she means when she states that she has a urinary tract infection Ans: B Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 68, Building a Therapeutic Relationship: The Techniques of Skilled Interviewing Feedback: Reassurance is not part of clarifying the patient's story; it is part of establishing rapport and empathizing with the patient. 6. Mr. W. is a 51-year-old auto mechanic who comes to the emergency room wanting to be checked out for the symptom of chest pain. As you listen to him describe his symptom in more detail, you say “Go on,” and later, “Mm-hmmm.” This is an example of which of the following skilled interviewing techniques? A) Echoing B) Nonverbal communication C) Facilitation D) Empathic response Ans: C Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 68, Building a Therapeutic Relationship: The Techniques of Skilled Interviewing Feedback: This is an example of facilitation. Facilitation can be posture, actions, or words that encourage the patient to say more. 7. Mrs. R. is a 92-year-old retired teacher who comes to your clinic accompanied by her daughter. You ask Mrs. R. why she came to your clinic today. She looks at her daughter and doesn't say anything in response to your question. This is an example of which type of challenging patient? A) Talkative patient B) Angry patient C) Silent patient D) Hearing-impaired patient Ans: C Chapter: 03 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Page and Header: 75, Adapting Your Interview to Specific Situations Feedback: This is one example of a silent patient. There are many possibilities for this patient's silence: depression, dementia, the manner in which you asked the question, and so on. 8. Mrs. T. comes for her regular visit to the clinic. She is on your schedule because her regular provider is on vacation and she wanted to be seen. You have heard about her many times from your colleague and are aware that she is a very talkative person. Which of the following is a helpful technique to improve the quality of the interview for both the provider and the patient? A) Allow the patient to speak uninterrupted for the duration of the appointment. B) Briefly summarize what you heard from the patient in the first 5 minutes and then try to have her focus on one aspect of what she told you. C) Set the time limit at the beginning of the interview and stick with it, no matter what occurs in the course of the interview. D) Allow your impatience to show so that the patient picks up on your nonverbal cue that the appointment needs to end. Ans: B Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 75, Adapting Your Interview to Specific Situations Feedback: You can also say, “I want to make sure I take good care of this problem because it is very important. We may need to talk about the others at the next appointment. Is that okay with you?” This is a technique that can help you to change the subject but, at the same time, validate the patient's concerns; it also can provide more structure to the interview. 9. Mrs. H. comes to your clinic, wanting antibiotics for a sinus infection. When you enter the room, she appears to be very angry. She has a raised tone of voice and states that she has been waiting for the past hour and has to get back to work. She states that she is unimpressed by the reception staff, the nurse, and the clinic in general and wants to know why the office wouldn't call in an antibiotic for her. Which of the following techniques is not useful in helping to calm this patient? A) Avoiding admission that you had a part in provoking her anger because you were late B) Accepting angry feelings from the patient and trying not to get angry in return C) Staying calm D) Keeping your posture relaxed Ans: A Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 75, Adapting Your Interview to Specific Situations Feedback: In this scenario, the provider was 1 hour late in seeing the patient. The provider should acknowledge that he was late and apologize for this, no matter the reason for being late. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 14. You arrive at the bedside of an elderly woman who has had a stroke, affecting her entire right side. She cannot speak (aphasia). You are supposed to examine her. You notice that the last examiner left her socks at the bottom of the bed, and although sensitive areas are covered by a sheet, the blanket is heaped by her feet at the bottom of the bed. What would you do next? A) Carry out your examination, focusing on the neurologic portion, and then cover her properly. B) Carry out your examination and let the nurse assigned to her “put her back together.” C) Put her socks back on and cover her completely before beginning the evaluation. D) Apologize for the last examiner but let the next examiner dress and cover her. Ans: C Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 58, Getting Ready: The Approach to the Interview Feedback: It is crucial to make an effort to make a patient comfortable. In this scenario, the patient can neither speak nor move well. Take a moment to imagine yourself in her situation. As a matter of respect as well as comfort, you should cover the patient appropriately and consider returning a little later to do your examination if you feel she is cold. While it is her nurse's job to keep her comfortable, it is also your responsibility, and you should do what you can. It is unacceptable to leave the patient in the same state in which you found her. 15. When you enter your patient's examination room, his wife is waiting there with him. Which of the following is most appropriate? A) Ask if it's okay to carry out the visit with both people in the room. B) Carry on as you would ordinarily. The permission is implied because his wife is in the room with him. C) Ask his wife to leave the room for reasons of confidentiality. D) First ask his wife what she thinks is going on. Ans: A Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 60, Learning About the Patient: The Sequence of the Interview Feedback: Even in situations involving people very familiar with each other, it is important to respect individual privacy. There is no implicit consent merely because he has allowed his wife to be in the room with him. On the other hand, it is inappropriate to assume that his wife should leave the room. Remember, the patient is the focus of the visit, so it would be appropriate to allow him to control who is in the room with him and inappropriate to address his wife first. Although your duty is to the patient, you may get optimal information by offering to speak to both people confidentially. This situation is analogous to an adolescent's visit. 16. A patient complains of knee pain on your arrival in the room. What should your first Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 sentence be after greeting the patient? A) How much pain are you having? B) Have you injured this knee in the past? C) When did this first occur? D) Could you please describe what happened? Ans: D Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 60, Learning About the Patient: The Sequence of the Interview Feedback: When looking into a complaint, it is best to start with an invitation for the patient to tell you in his or her own words. More specific questions should be used later in the interview to fill in any gaps. 17. You have just asked a patient how he feels about his emphysema. He becomes silent, folds his arms across his chest and leans back in his chair, and then replies, “It is what it is.” How should you respond? A) “You seem bothered by this question.” B) “Next, I would like to talk with you about your smoking habit.” C) “Okay, let's move on to your other problems.” D) “You have adopted a practical attitude toward your problem.” Ans: A Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 60, Learning About the Patient: The Sequence of the Interview Feedback: You have astutely noted that the patient's body language changed at the time you asked this question, and despite the patient's response, you suspect there is more beneath the surface. Maybe he is afraid of being browbeaten about his smoking, maybe a relative has recently died from this disorder, or maybe a friend told him 20 years ago that he would eventually get emphysema. Regardless, by sharing your observation and leaving a pause, he may begin to talk about some issues which are very important to him. 18. A patient tells you about her experience with prolonged therapy for her breast cancer. You comment, “That must have been a very trying time for you.” What is this an example of? A) Reassurance B) Empathy C) Summarization D) Validation Ans: D Chapter: 03 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Page and Header: 68, Building a Therapeutic Relationship: The Techniques of Skilled Interviewing Feedback: This is an example of validation to legitimize her emotional experience. “Now that you have had your treatment, you should not have any further troubles” is an example of reassurance. “I understand what you went through because I am a cancer survivor myself” is an example of empathy. “So, you have had a lumpectomy and multiple radiation treatments” is an example of summarization as applied to this vignette. 19. You are performing a young woman's first pelvic examination. You make sure to tell her verbally what is coming next and what to expect. Then you carry out each maneuver of the examination. You let her know at the outset that if she needs a break or wants to stop, this is possible. You ask several times during the examination, “How are you doing, Brittney?” What are you accomplishing with these techniques? A) Increasing the patient's sense of control B) Increasing the patient's trust in you as a caregiver C) Decreasing her sense of vulnerability D) All of the above Ans: D Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 68, Building a Therapeutic Relationship: The Techniques of Skilled Interviewing Feedback: These techniques minimize the effects of transitions during an examination and empower the patient. Especially during a sensitive examination, it is important to give the patient as much control as possible. 20. When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, where should the interpreter be positioned? A) Behind you, the examiner, so that the lips of the patient and the patient's nonverbal cues can be seen B) Next to the patient, so the examiner can maintain eye contact and observe the nonverbal cues of the patient C) Between you and the patient so all parties can make the necessary observations D) In a corner of the room so as to provide minimal distraction to the interview Ans: B Chapter: 03 Page and Header: 75, Adapting Your Interview to Specific Situations Feedback: Interpreters are invaluable in encounters where the examiner and patient do not speak the same language, including encounters with the deaf. It should be noted that deaf people from Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 5. Common or concerning symptoms to inquire about in the General Survey and vital signs include all of the following except: A) Changes in weight B) Fatigue and weakness C) Cough D) Fever and chills Ans: C Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 102, The Health History Feedback: This symptom is more appropriate to the respiratory review of systems. 6. You are beginning the examination of a patient. All of the following areas are important to observe as part of the General Survey except: A) Level of consciousness B) Signs of distress C) Dress, grooming, and personal hygiene D) Blood pressure Ans: D Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 109, The General Survey Feedback: Blood pressure is a vital sign, not part of the General Survey. 7. A 55-year-old bookkeeper comes to your office for a routine visit. You note that on a previous visit for treatment of contact dermatitis, her blood pressure was elevated. She does not have prior elevated readings and her family history is negative for hypertension. You measure her blood pressure in your office today. Which of the following factors can result in a false high reading? A) Blood pressure cuff is tightly fitted. B) Patient is seated quietly for 10 minutes prior to measurement. C) Blood pressure is measured on a bare arm. D) Patient's arm is resting, supported by your arm at her mid-chest level as you stand to measure the blood pressure. Ans: A Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 114, The Vital Signs Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Feedback: A blood pressure cuff that is too tightly fitted can result in a false high reading. The other answers are important to observe to obtain an accurate blood pressure reading. JNC-7 also mentions the importance of having the back supported when obtaining blood pressure in the sitting position. 8. A 49-year-old truck driver comes to the emergency room for shortness of breath and swelling in his ankles. He is diagnosed with congestive heart failure and admitted to the hospital. You are the student assigned to do the patient's complete history and physical examination. When you palpate the pulse, what do you expect to feel? A) Large amplitude, forceful B) Small amplitude, weak C) Normal D) Bigeminal Ans: B Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 114, The Vital Signs Feedback: Congestive heart failure is characterized by decreased stroke volume or increased peripheral vascular resistance, which would result in a small-amplitude, weak pulse. Subtle differences in amplitude are usually best detected in large arteries close to the heart, like the carotid pulse. You may not be able to notice these in other locations. 9. An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the clinic for evaluation of gastroenteritis. You measure the patient's temperature and it is 104 degrees Fahrenheit. What type of pulse would you expect to feel during his initial examination? A) Large amplitude, forceful B) Small amplitude, weak C) Normal D) Bigeminal Ans: A Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 114, The Vital Signs Feedback: Fever results in an increased stroke volume, which results in a large-amplitude, forceful pulse. Later in the course of the illness, if dehydration and shock result, you may expect small amplitude and weak pulses. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 10. A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic clerk presents to the emergency room with shortness of breath and states that his blood sugar was 605 at home. You diagnose the patient with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the expected pattern of breathing? A) Normal B) Rapid and shallow C) Rapid and deep D) Slow Ans: C Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 114, The Vital Signs Feedback: This is the expected rate and depth in diabetic ketoacidosis. The body is trying to rid itself of carbon dioxide to compensate for the acidosis. This is known as Kussmaul's breathing and is seen in other causes of acidosis as well. 11. Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale. She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds. How would you best explain this? A) Attribute this to some overeating at the holidays. B) Attribute this to wearing different clothing. C) Attribute this to body fluid. D) Attribute this to instrument inaccuracy. Ans: C Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 102, The Health History Feedback: This amount of weight over a short period should make one think of body fluid changes. You may consider a kidney problem or heart failure in your differential. The other reasons should be considered as well, but this amount of weight gain over a short period usually indicates causes other than excessive caloric intake. A rule of thumb for dieters is that an energy excess of 3500 calories will cause a 1-pound weight gain, if the increase is to be attributed to food intake. 12. Mr. Curtiss has a history of obesity, diabetes, osteoarthritis of the knees, HTN, and obstructive sleep apnea. His BMI is 43 and he has been discouraged by his difficulty in losing weight. He is also discouraged that his goal weight is 158 pounds away. What would you tell him? A) “When you get down to your goal weight, you will feel so much better.” B) “Some people seem to be able to lose weight and others just can't, no matter how hard they try.” C) “We are coming up with new medicines and methods to treat your conditions every day.” Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Ans: B Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 119, Respiratory Rate and Rhythm Feedback: Cheyne-Stokes respiration can be seen in patients with heart failure and is usually not a sign of an immediate problem. Ataxic breathing is very irregular in rhythm and depth and is seen with brain injury. Kussmaul's respiration is seen in patients with a metabolic acidosis, as they are trying to rid their bodies of carbon dioxide to compensate. Respirations in COPD are usually regular and are not usually associated with apneic episodes. 17. Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain. Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen. On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin. The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side. What type of pain is this? A) Idiopathic pain B) Neuropathic pain C) Nociceptive or somatic pain D) Psychogenic pain Ans: B Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 121, Acute and Chronic Pain Feedback: This vignette is consistent with a diagnosis of herpes zoster, or shingles. This is caused by reemergence of dormant varicella (chickenpox) viruses from Mr. Garcia's nerve root. The characteristic burning quality without a history of an actual burn makes one think of neuropathic pain. It will most likely remain for months after the rash has resolved. There is no evidence of physical injury and this is a peculiar distribution, making nociceptive pain less likely. There is no evidence of a psychogenic etiology for this, and the presence of a rash makes this possibility less likely as well. Because of your astute diagnostic abilities, the pain is not idiopathic. 18. A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as “high risk” because of obesity. What should you do next? A) Explain that even small amounts of weight gain can classify you as obese. B) Place him on a high-protein, low-fat diet. C) Advise him to increase his aerobic exercise for calorie burning. D) Measure his waist. Ans: D Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 104, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: The patient most likely had a high BMI because of increased muscle mass. In this situation, it is important to measure his waist. It is most likely under 40 inches, which makes obesity unlikely (even to an insurance company). It is important that you personally contact the company and explain your reasoning. Be prepared to back your argument with data. A special diet is unlikely to be of much use, and more aerobic exercise, while probably a good idea for most, is redundant for this individual. 19. Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual “lub dup.” How would you document your examination? A) Regular rate and rhythm B) Irregularly irregular rhythm C) Regularly irregular rhythm D) Bradycardia Ans: C Chapter: 04 Page and Header: 119, Heart Rate and Rhythm Feedback: Because this unusual beat occurs every fourth set of heart sounds, it is regularly irregular. This is most consistent with ventricular premature contractions (or VPCs). This is generally a common and benign rhythm. An irregularly irregular rhythm is a classic finding in atrial fibrillation. The rhythm is very random in character. Bradycardia refers to the rate, not the rhythm. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 5: Behavior and Mental Status Multiple Choice Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 1. A 19-year-old college student, Todd, is brought to your clinic by his mother. She is concerned that there is something seriously wrong with him. She states for the past 6 months his behavior has become peculiar and he has flunked out of college. Todd denies any recent illness or injuries. His past medical history is remarkable only for a broken foot. His parents are both healthy. He has a paternal uncle who had similar symptoms in college. The patient admits to smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol. He also admits to marijuana use but none in the last week. He denies using any other substances. He denies any feelings of depression or anxiety. While speaking with Todd and his mother you do a complete physical examination, which is essentially normal. When you question him on how he is feeling, he says that he is very worried that Microsoft has stolen his software for creating a better browser. He tells you he has seen a black van in his neighborhood at night and he is sure that it is full of computer tech workers stealing his work through special gamma waves. You ask him why he believes they are trying to steal his programs. He replies that the technicians have been telepathing their intents directly into his head. He says he hears these conversations at night so he knows this is happening. Todd's mother then tells you, “See, I told you . . . he's crazy. What do I do about it?” While arranging for a psychiatry consult, what psychotic disorder do you think Todd has? A) Schizoaffective disorder B) Psychotic disorder due to a medical illness C) Substance-induced psychotic disorder D) Schizophrenia Ans: D Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 162, Table 5–4 Feedback: Schizophrenia generally occurs in the late teens to early 20s. It often is seen in other family members, as in this case. Symptoms must be present for at least 6 months and must have at least two features of (1) delusions (e.g., Microsoft is after his programs), (2) hallucinations (e.g., technicians sending telepathic signals), (3) disorganized speech, (4) disorganized behavior, and (5) negative symptoms such as a flat affect. 2. A 24-year-old secretary comes to your clinic, complaining of difficulty sleeping, severe nightmares, and irritability. She states it all began 6 months ago when she went to a fast food restaurant at midnight. While she was waiting in her car a man entered through the passenger door and put a gun to her head. He had her drive to a remote area, where he took her money and threatened to kill her. When the gun jammed he panicked and ran off. Ever since this occurred the patient has been having these symptoms. She states she jumps at every noise and refuses to drive at night. She states her anxiety has had such a marked influence on her job performance she is afraid she will be fired. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On examination you find a nervous woman appearing her stated age. Her physical examination is unremarkable. You recommend medication and counseling. What anxiety disorder to you think this young woman has? A) Specific phobia Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 6. A 22-year-old man is brought to your office by his father to discuss his son's mental health disorder. The patient was diagnosed with schizophrenia 6 months ago and has been taking medication since. The father states that his son's dose isn't high enough and you need to raise it. He states that his son has been hearing things that don't exist. You ask the young man what is going on and he tells you that his father is just jealous because his sister talks only to him. His father turns to him and says, “Son, you know your sister died 2 years ago!” His son replies “Well, she still talks to me in my head all the time!” Which best describes this patient's abnormality of perception? A) Illusion B) Hallucination C) Fugue state Ans: B Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 145, Techniques of Examination Feedback: A hallucination is a subjective sensory perception in the absence of real external stimuli. The patient can hear, see, smell, taste, or feel something that does not exist in reality. In this case, his sister has passed away and cannot be speaking to him, although in his mind he can hear her. This is an example of an auditory hallucination, but hallucinations can occur with any of the five senses. 7. A 26-year-old violinist comes to your clinic, complaining of anxiety. He is a first chair violinist in the local symphony orchestra and has started having symptoms during performances, such as sweating, shaking, and hyperventilating. It has gotten so bad that he has thought about giving up his first chair status so he does not have to play the solo during one of the movements. He says that he never has these symptoms during rehearsals or when he is practicing. He denies having any of these symptoms at any other time. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco use, drug use, or alcohol abuse. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a young man who appears worried. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. What type of anxiety disorder best describes his situation? A) Panic disorder B) Specific phobia C) Social phobia D) Generalized anxiety disorder Ans: C Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 161, Table 5–3 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Feedback: Social phobia is a marked, persistent fear of social or performance situations. 8. A 23-year-old ticket agent is brought in by her husband because he is concerned about her recent behavior. He states that for the last 2 weeks she has been completely out of control. He says that she hasn't showered in days, stays awake most of the night cleaning their apartment, and has run up over $1,000 on their credit cards. While he is talking, the patient interrupts him frequently and declares this is all untrue and she has never been so happy and fulfilled in her whole life. She speaks very quickly, changing the subject often. After a longer than normal interview you find out she has had no recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Both her parents are healthy but the husband has heard rumors about an aunt with similar symptoms. She and her husband have no children. She smokes one pack of cigarettes a day (although she has been chain-smoking in the last 2 weeks), drinks four to six drinks a week, and smokes marijuana occasionally. On examination she is very loud and outspoken. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Which mood disorder does she most likely have? A) Major depressive episode B) Manic episode C) Dysthymic disorder Ans: B Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 160, Table 5–2 Feedback: Mania consists of a persistently elevated mood for at least 1 week with symptoms such as inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, and involvement in high-risk activities (such as drug use, spending sprees, and indiscriminate sexual activity). In this case, the patient has racing thoughts and pressured speech, has a decreased need for sleep, and is engaging in high-risk activities (spending sprees). 9. A 72-year-old African-American male is brought to your clinic by his daughter for a follow- up visit after his recent hospitalization. He had been admitted to the local hospital for speech problems and weakness in his right arm and leg. On admission his MRI showed a small stroke. The patient was in rehab for 1 month following his initial presentation. He is now walking with a walker and has good use of his arm. His daughter complains, however, that everyone is still having trouble communicating with the patient. You ask the patient how he thinks he is doing. Although it is hard for you to make out his words you believe his answer is “well . . . fine . . . doing . . . okay.” His prior medical history involved high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. He is a widower and retired handyman. He has three children who are healthy. He denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. He has no other current symptoms. On examination he is in no acute distress but does seem embarrassed when it takes him so long to answer. His blood pressure is 150/90 and his other vital signs are normal. Other than his weak right arm and leg his Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 physical examination is unremarkable. What disorder of speech does he have? A) Wernicke's aphasia B) Broca's aphasia C) Dysarthria Ans: B Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 145, Techniques of Examination Feedback: In Broca's aphasia patients articulate very slowly and with a great deal of effort. Nouns, verbs, and important adjectives are usually present and only small grammatical words are dropped from speech. Broca's area is on the lateral portion of the frontal lobes. 10. A 35-year-old stockbroker comes to your office, complaining of feeling tired and irritable. She also says she feels like nothing ever goes her way and that nothing good ever happens. When you ask her how long she has felt this way she laughs and says, “Since when have I not?” She relates that she has felt pessimistic about life in general since she was in high school. She denies any problems with sleep, appetite, or concentration, and states she hasn't thought about killing herself. She reports no recent illnesses or injuries. She is single. She smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, drinks occasionally, and hasn't taken any illegal drugs since college. Her mother suffers from depression and her father has high blood pressure. On examination her vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. What mental health disorder best describes her symptoms? A) Major depressive episode B) Dysthymic disorder C) Cyclothymic disorder Ans: B Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 160, Table 5–2 Feedback: Someone with dysthymia has a depressed mood and symptoms for most of the day, more days than not, for at least 2 years. The disorder generally begins in adolescence and is fairly stable throughout life. Although the symptoms are similar to those of major depression (in this case, fatigue and irritability), they are milder and fewer. 11. Susanne is a 27-year-old who has had headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months. You have completed a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup but have not found a cause. What would your next action be? A) A referral to a neurologist B) A referral to a rheumatologist Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 16. In obtaining a history, you note that a patient uses the word “largely” repeatedly, to the point of being a distraction to your task. Which word best describes this speech pattern? A) Clanging B) Echolalia C) Confabulation D) Perseveration Ans: D Chapter: 05 Page and Header: 145, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Perseveration is the repetition of words or ideas. Echolalia differs in that the patient repeats what is said to him. Clanging is the repetition of the same sounds in different words. Confabulation is making up a story in response to a question. This is sometimes seen in chronic alcohol use with Korsakoff's syndrome. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 6: The Skin, Hair, and Nails Multiple Choice 1. A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient? A) Age B) Hair color C) Actinic lentigines D) Heavy sun exposure Ans: A Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 165, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: The risk for melanoma is increased in people over the age of 50; our patient is 35 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 years old. The other answers represent known risk factors for melanoma. Especially with a family history of melanoma, she should be instructed to keep her skin covered when in the sun and use strong sunscreen on exposed areas. 2. You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma. Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs? A) A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution B) A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution C) A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution D) A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution Ans: B Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 165, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: This is the correct description for the mnemonic. 3. You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism? A) Moist and smooth B) Moist and rough C) Dry and smooth D) Dry and rough Ans: D Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 168, Techniques of Examination Feedback: A patient with hypothyroidism is expected to have skin that is dry as well as rough. This is a good example of how the skin can give clues to systemic diseases. 4. A 28-year-old patient comes to the office for evaluation of a rash. At first there was only one large patch, but then more lesions erupted suddenly on the back and torso; the lesions itch. On physical examination, you note that the pattern of eruption is like a Christmas tree and that there Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 are a variety of erythematous papules and macules on the cleavage lines of the back. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Pityriasis rosea B) Tinea versicolor C) Psoriasis D) Atopic eczema Ans: A Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 176, Table 6–2 Feedback: This is a classic description of pityriasis rosea. The description of a large single or “herald” patch preceding the eruption is a good way to distinguish this rash from other conditions. 5. A 19-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of a rash. He notes that it started on his back with a multitude of spots and is also on his arms, chest, and neck. It itches a lot. He does sweat more than before because being outdoors is part of his job. On physical examination, you note dark tan patches with a reddish cast that has sharp borders and fine scales, scattered more prominently around the upper back, chest, neck, and upper arms as well as under the arms. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis? A) Pityriasis rosea B) Tinea versicolor C) Psoriasis D) Atopic eczema Ans: B Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 176, Table 6–2 Feedback: This is a typical description of tinea versicolor. The information that the patient is sweating more also helps support this diagnosis, because tinea is a fungal infection and is promoted by moisture. 6. A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis? A) Actinic keratosis B) Seborrheic keratosis C) Basal cell carcinoma D) Squamous cell carcinoma Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 11. A new mother is concerned that her child occasionally “turns blue.” On further questioning, she mentions that this is at her hands and feet. She does not remember the child's lips turning blue. She is otherwise eating and growing well. What would you do now? A) Reassure her that this is normal B) Obtain an echocardiogram to check for structural heart disease and consult cardiology C) Admit the child to the hospital for further observation D) Question the validity of her story Ans: A Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 163, Anatomy and Physiology Feedback: This is an example of peripheral cyanosis. This is a very common and benign condition which typically occurs when the child is slightly cold and his peripheral circulation is adjusting to keep his core warm. Without other problems, there is no need for further workup. If the lips or other central locations are involved, you must consider other etiologies. 12. You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau's lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next? A) Conclude this is caused by a cultural practice. B) Conclude this finding is most likely secondary to trauma. C) Look for information from family and records regarding any problems which occurred 3 months ago. D) Ask about dietary intake. Ans: C Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 163, Anatomy and Physiology Feedback: These lines can provide valuable information about previous significant illnesses, some of which are forgotten or are not able to be reported by the patient. Because the fingernails grow at about 0.1 mm per day, you would ask about an illness 100 days ago. This patient may have been hospitalized for endocarditis or may have had another significant illness which should be sought. Trauma to all 10 nails in the same location is unlikely. Dietary intake at this time would not be related to this finding. Do not assume a finding is necessarily related to a patient's culture unless you have good knowledge of that culture. 13. Dakota is a 14-year-old boy who just noticed a rash at his ankles. There is no history of Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 exposure to ill people or other agents in the environment. He has a slight fever in the office. The rash consists of small, bright red marks. When they are pressed, the red color remains. What should you do? A) Prescribe a steroid cream to decrease inflammation. B) Consider admitting the patient to the hospital. C) Reassure the parents and the patient that this should resolve within a week. D) Tell him not to scratch them, and follow up in 3 days. Ans: B Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 184, Table 6–8 Feedback: Although this may not be an impressive rash, the fact that they do not “blanch” with pressure is very concerning. This generally means that there is pinpoint bleeding under the skin, and while this can be benign, it can be associated with life-threatening illnesses like meningococcemia and low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia) associated with serious blood disorders like leukemia. You should always report this feature of a rash immediately to a supervisor or teacher. 14. Mrs. Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn't blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash? A) It is likely to be related to her lupus. B) It is likely to be related to an exposure to a chemical. C) It is likely to be related to an allergic reaction. D) It should not cause any problems. Ans: A Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 184, Table 6–8 Feedback: A “palpable purpura” is usually associated with a vasculitis. This is an inflammatory condition of the blood vessels often associated with systemic rheumatic disease. It can cut off circulation to any portion of the body and can mimic many other diseases in this manner. While allergic and chemical exposures may be a possible cause of the rash, this patient's SLE should make you consider vasculitis. 15. Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a “lump on his back” over his scapula. It has been there for about a year and is getting larger. He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion. He worries this may be cancer. When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely? Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) An enlarged lymph node B) A sebaceous cyst C) An actinic keratosis D) A malignant lesion Ans: B Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 178, Table 6–4 Feedback: This is a classic description of an epidermal inclusion cyst resulting from a blocked sebaceous gland. The fact that any lesion is enlarging is worrisome, but the other descriptors are so distinctive that cancer is highly unlikely. This would be an unusual location for a lymph node, and these do not usually drain to the skin. 16. A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails. What would account for these findings? A) Eczema B) Pityriasis rosea C) Psoriasis D) Tinea infection Ans: C Chapter: 06 Page and Header: 178, Table 6–4 Feedback: This is a classic presentation of plaque psoriasis. Eczema is usually over the flexor surfaces and does not scale, whereas psoriasis affects the extensor surfaces. Pityriasis usually is limited to the trunk and proximal extremities. Tinea has a much finer scale associated with it, almost like powder, and is found in dark and moist areas. 17. Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash? A) Insect bites B) Urticaria, or hives C) Psoriasis D) Purpura Ans: B Chapter: 06 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 C) Cluster D) Analgesic rebound Ans: A Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 196, The Health History Feedback: This is a description of a typical tension headache. 3. Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye? A) Scotomas B) Tinnitus C) Dysphagia D) Rhinorrhea Ans: A Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 196, The Health History Feedback: Scotomas are specks in the vision or areas where the patient cannot see; therefore, this is a common/concerning symptom of the eye. 4. A 49-year-old administrative assistant comes to your office for evaluation of dizziness. You elicit the information that the dizziness is a spinning sensation of sudden onset, worse with head position changes. The episodes last a few seconds and then go away, and they are accompanied by intense nausea. She has vomited one time. She denies tinnitus. You perform a physical examination of the head and neck and note that the patient's hearing is intact to Weber and Rinne and that there is nystagmus. Her gait is normal. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Benign positional vertigo B) Vestibular neuronitis C) Ménière's disease D) Acoustic neuroma Ans: A Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 252, Table 7–3 Feedback: This is a classic description of benign positional vertigo. The vertigo is episodic, lasting a few seconds to minutes, instead of continuous as in vestibular neuronitis. Also, there is no tinnitus or sensorineural hearing loss as occurs in Ménière's disease and acoustic neuroma. You may choose to learn about Hallpike maneuvers, which are also helpful in the evaluation of vertigo. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 5. A 55-year-old bank teller comes to your office for persistent episodes of dizziness. The first episode started suddenly and lasted 3 to 4 hours. He experienced a lot of nausea with vomiting; the episode resolved spontaneously. He has had five episodes in the past 1½ weeks. He does note some tinnitus that comes and goes. Upon physical examination, you note that he has a normal gait. The Weber localizes to the right side and the air conduction is equal to the bone conduction in the right ear. Nystagmus is present. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Benign positional vertigo B) Vestibular neuronitis C) Ménière's disease D) Acoustic neuroma Ans: C Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 252, Table 7–3 Feedback: Ménière's disease is characterized by sudden onset of vertiginous episodes that last several hours to a day or more, then spontaneously resolve; the episodes then recur. On physical examination, sensorineural hearing loss is present. The patient does complain of tinnitus. 6. A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms? A) Cushing's syndrome B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Myxedema D) Parkinson's disease Ans: D Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 253, Table 7–4 Feedback: This is a typical description for a patient with Parkinson's disease. Facial mobility is decreased, which results in a blunt expression—a “masked” appearance. The patient also has decreased blinking and a characteristic stare with an upward gaze. In combination with the findings of slow movements and a shuffling gait, the diagnosis of Parkinson's is almost clinched. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 7. A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Ptosis B) Exophthalmos C) Ectropion D) Epicanthus Ans: B Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 255, Table 7–6 Feedback: Exophthalmos is the condition when the eyeball protrudes forward. If it is bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease. If it is unilateral, it could still be caused by Graves' disease. Alternatively, it could be caused by a tumor or inflammation in the orbit. 8. A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Dacryocystitis B) Chalazion C) Hordeolum D) Xanthelasma Ans: C Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 256, Table 7–7 Feedback: A hordeolum, or sty, is a painful, tender, erythematous infection in a gland at the margin of the eyelid. 9. A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 B) Weakness of CN IV C) A lesion of the brainstem D) An irregularity in the cornea or lens Ans: D Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 196, The Health History Feedback: Double vision in one eye alone points to a problem in “processing” the light rays of an incoming image. The other causes of diplopia result in a misalignment of the two eyes. 15. A patient complains of epistaxis. Which other cause should be considered? A) Intracranial hemorrhage B) Hematemesis C) Intestinal hemorrhage D) Hematoma of the nasal septum Ans: B Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 196, The Health History Feedback: Although the source of epistaxis may seem obvious, other bleeding locations should be on the differential. Hematemesis can mimic this and cause delay in life-saving therapies if not considered. Intracranial hemorrhage and septal hematoma are instances of contained bleeding. Intestinal hemorrhage may cause hematemesis if there is obstruction distal to the bleeding, but this is unlikely. 16. Glaucoma is the leading cause of blindness in African Americans and the second leading cause of blindness overall. What features would be noted on funduscopic examination? A) Increased cup-to-disc ratio B) AV nicking C) Cotton wool spots D) Microaneurysms Ans: A Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 201, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: It is important to screen for glaucoma on funduscopic examination. The cup and disc are among the easiest features to find. AV nicking and cotton wool spots are seen in hypertension. Microaneurysms are seen in diabetes. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 17. Very sensitive methods for detecting hearing loss include which of the following? A) The whisper test B) The finger rub test C) The tuning fork test D) Audiometric testing Ans: D Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 201, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: While it is important to screen for hearing complaints with methods available to you, it should be realized that some physical examination techniques are limited. Nonetheless, you should be comfortable performing these tests, as audiometric testing is not always available. 18. Which area of the fundus is the central focal point for incoming images? A) The fovea B) The macula C) The optic disk D) The physiologic cup Ans: A Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 205, The Eyes Feedback: The fovea is the area of the retina which is responsible for central vision. It is surrounded by the macula, which is responsible for more peripheral vision. The optic disc and physiologic cup are where the optic nerve enters the eye. 19. A light is pointed at a patient's pupil, which contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon? A) Direct reaction B) Consensual reaction C) Near reaction D) Accommodation Ans: B Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 205, The Eyes Feedback: The constriction of the contralateral pupil is called the consensual reaction. The Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 response of the ipsilateral eye is the direct response. The dilation of the pupil when focusing on a close object is the near reaction. Accommodation is the changing of the shape of the lens to sharply focus on an object. 20. A patient is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true? A) She obtains a 20% correct score at 100 feet. B) She can accurately name 20% of the letters at 20 feet. C) She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet. D) She can see at 100 feet what a normal person could see at 20 feet. Ans: C Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 205, The Eyes Feedback: The denominator of an acuity score represents the line on the chart the patient can read. In the example above, the patient could read the larger letters corresponding with what a normal person could see at 100 feet. 21. On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding? A) Bitemporal hemianopsia B) Right temporal hemianopsia C) Right homonymous hemianopsia D) Binasal hemianopsia Ans: C Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 211, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Because the right visual field in both eyes is affected, this is a right homonymous hemianopsia. A bitemporal hemianopsia refers to loss of both lateral visual fields. A right temporal hemianopsia is unilateral and binasal hemianopsia is the loss of the nasal visual fields bilaterally. 22. You note that a patient has anisocoria on examination. Pathologic causes of this include which of the following? A) Horner's syndrome B) Benign anisocoria Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 27. A young woman undergoes cranial nerve testing. On touching the soft palate, her uvula deviates to the left. Which of the following is likely? A) CN IX lesion on the left B) CN IX lesion on the right C) CN X lesion on the left D) CN X lesion on the right Ans: D Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 231, Mouth and Pharynx Feedback: The failure of the right side of the palate to rise denotes a problem with the right 10th cranial nerve. The uvula deviates toward the properly functioning side. 28. A college student presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for several days. You notice exudates on her enlarged tonsils. You do a careful lymphatic examination and notice some scattered small, mobile lymph nodes just behind her sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally. What group of nodes is this? A) Submandibular B) Tonsillar C) Occipital D) Posterior cervical Ans: D Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 236, The Neck Feedback: The group of nodes posterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle is the posterior cervical chain. These are common in mononucleosis. 29. You feel a small mass that you think is a lymph node. It is mobile in both the up-and-down and side-to-side directions. Which of the following is most likely? A) Cancer B) Lymph node C) Deep scar D) Muscle Ans: B Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 236, The Neck Feedback: A useful maneuver for discerning lymph nodes from other masses in the neck is to check for their mobility in all directions. Many other masses are mobile in only two directions. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Cancerous masses may also be “fixed,” or immobile. 30. You are conducting a pupillary examination on a 34-year-old man. You note that both pupils dilate slightly. Both are noted to constrict briskly when the light is placed on the right eye. What is the most likely problem? A) Optic nerve damage on the right B) Optic nerve damage on the left C) Efferent nerve damage on the right D) Efferent nerve damage on the left Ans: B Chapter: 07 Page and Header: 211, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Because both pupils can constrict, efferent nerve damage is unlikely. When the light is placed on the left eye, neither a direct nor a consensual response is seen. This indicates that the left eye is not perceiving incoming light. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 8: The Thorax and Lungs Multiple Choice 1. A 21-year-old college senior presents to your clinic, complaining of shortness of breath and a nonproductive nocturnal cough. She states she used to feel this way only with extreme exercise, but lately she has felt this way continuously. She denies any other upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, gastrointestinal symptoms, or urinary tract symptoms. Her past medical history is significant only for seasonal allergies, for which she takes a nasal steroid spray but is otherwise on no other medications. She has had no surgeries. Her mother has allergies and eczema and her father has high blood pressure. She is an only child. She denies smoking and illegal drug use but drinks three to four alcoholic beverages per weekend. She is a junior in finance at a local university and she has recently started a job as a bartender in town. On examination she is in no acute distress and her temperature is 98.6. Her blood pressure is 120/80, her pulse is 80, and her Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 respirations are 20. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are essentially normal. Inspection of her anterior and posterior chest shows no abnormalities. On auscultation of her chest, there is decreased air movement and a high-pitched whistling on expiration in all lobes. Percussion reveals resonant lungs. Which disorder of the thorax or lung does this best describe? A) Spontaneous pneumothorax B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) Asthma D) Pneumonia Ans: C Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Asthma causes shortness of breath and a nocturnal cough. It is often associated with a history of allergies and can be made worse by exercise or irritants such as smoke in a bar. On auscultation there can be normal to decreased air movement. Wheezing is heard on expiration and sometimes inspiration. The duration of wheezing in expiration usually correlates with severity of illness, so it is important to document this length (e.g., wheezes heard halfway through exhalation). Realize that in severe asthma, wheezes may not be heard because of the lack of air movement. Paradoxically, these patients may have more wheezes after treatment, which actually indicates an improvement in condition. Peak flow measurements help to discern this. 2. A 47-year-old receptionist comes to your office, complaining of fever, shortness of breath, and a productive cough with golden sputum. She says she had a cold last week and her symptoms have only gotten worse, despite using over-the-counter cold remedies. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, or cardiac or gastrointestinal symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes for 5 years and high cholesterol. She takes an oral medication for both diseases. She has had no surgeries. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has diabetes and high blood pressure. Her father passed away from colon cancer. On examination you see a middle- aged woman appearing her stated age. She looks ill and her temperature is elevated, at 101. Her blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable except for edema of the nasal turbinates. On auscultation she has decreased air movement, and coarse crackles are heard over the left lower lobe. There is dullness on percussion, increased fremitus during palpation, and egophony and whispered pectoriloquy on auscultation. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes her symptoms? A) Spontaneous pneumothorax B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) Asthma D) Pneumonia Ans: D Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Page and Header: 312, Table 8–1 Feedback: The pain from pericarditis is usually sharp and knifelike and is located over the left side of the chest. Change of position, breathing, and coughing often make the pain worse, whereas leaning forward improves the pain. Pericarditis is often seen in rheumatologic diseases such as systemic lupus and in patients with chronic kidney disease. Patients also experience this after a myocardial infarction. You can read more about Dressler's syndrome. 6. A 68-year-old retired postman presents to your clinic, complaining of dull, intermittent left- sided chest pain over the last few weeks. The pain occurs after he mows his lawn or chops wood. He says that the pain radiates to the left side of his jaw but nowhere else. He has felt light-headed and nauseated with the pain but has had no other symptoms. He states when he sits down for several minutes the pain goes away. Ibuprofen, Tylenol, and antacids have not improved his symptoms. He reports no recent weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. He has a past medical history of high blood pressure and arthritis. He quit smoking 10 years ago after smoking one pack a day for 40 years. He denies any recent alcohol use and reports no drug use. He is married and has two healthy children. His mother died of breast cancer and his father died of a stroke. His younger brother has had bypass surgery. On examination you find him healthy- appearing and breathing comfortably. His blood pressure is 140/90 and he has a pulse of 80. His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S1 and S2 and no S3 or S4. Further workup is pending. Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms? A) Angina pectoris B) Pericarditis C) Dissecting aortic aneurysm D) Pleural pain Ans: A Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 312, Table 8–1 Feedback: Angina causes dull chest pain felt in the retrosternal area or anterior chest. It often radiates to the shoulders, arms, neck, and jaw. It is associated with shortness of breath, nausea, and sweating. The pain is generally relieved by rest or medication after several minutes. This patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for further workup for his accelerating symptoms. 7. A 75-year-old retired teacher presents to your clinic, complaining of severe, unrelenting anterior chest pain radiating to her back. She describes it as if someone is “ripping out her heart.” It began less than an hour ago. She states she is feeling very nauseated and may pass out. She denies any trauma or recent illnesses. She states she has never had pain like this before. Nothing seems to make the pain better or worse. Her medical history consists of difficult-to-control Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 hypertension and coronary artery disease requiring two stents in the past. She is a widow. She denies any alcohol, tobacco, or illegal drug use. Her mother died of a stroke and her father died of a heart attack. She has one younger brother who has had bypass surgery. On examination you see an elderly female in a great deal of distress. She is lying on the table, curled up, holding her left and right arms against her chest and is restless, trying to find a comfortable position. Her blood pressure is 180/110 in the right arm and 130/60 in the left arm, and her pulse is 120. Her right carotid pulse is bounding but the left carotid pulse is weak. She is afebrile but her respirations are 24 times a minute. On auscultation her lungs are clear and her cardiac examination is unremarkable. You call EMS and have her taken to the hospital's ER for further evaluation. What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms? A) Angina pectoris B) Pericarditis C) Dissecting aortic aneurysm D) Pleural pain Ans: C Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 312, Table 8–1 Feedback: A dissecting aortic aneurysm is associated with a ripping or tearing sensation that radiates to the neck, back, or abdomen. Because blood supply to the brain and extremities is disrupted, syncope and paraplegia or hemiplegia can occur. Blood pressure will usually be different between the two arms, and the carotid pulses often show an asymmetry. This is because the aneurysm decreases flow distally and causes inequality of flow between sides. 8. A 25-year-old accountant presents to your clinic, complaining of intermittent lower right- sided chest pain for several days. He describes it as knifelike and states it only lasts for 3 to 5 seconds, taking his breath away. He states he feels like he has to breathe shallowly to keep it from recurring. The only thing that makes it better is lying quietly on his right side. It is much worse when he takes a deep breath. He has taken some Tylenol and put a heating pad on his side but neither has helped. He remembers that 2 weeks ago he had an upper respiratory infection with a severe hacking cough. He denies any recent trauma. His past medical history is unremarkable. His parents and siblings are in good health. He has recently married, and his wife has a baby due in 2 months. He denies any smoking or illegal drug use. He drinks two to three beers once a month. He states that he eats a healthy diet and runs regularly, but not since his recent illness. He denies any cardiac, gastrointestinal, or musculoskeletal symptoms. On examination he is lying on his right side but appears quite comfortable. His temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are unremarkable. His chest has normal breath sounds on auscultation. Percussion of the chest is unremarkable. During palpation the ribs are nontender. What disorder of the chest best describes his symptoms? A) Pericarditis B) Chest wall pain C) Pleural pain Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 D) Angina pectoralis Ans: C Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 312, Table 8–1 Feedback: This pain is sharp and knifelike and occurs over the affected area of pleura. Breathing deeply usually makes the pain worse, whereas lying quietly on the affected side makes the pain better. Pleurisy often occurs from inflammation due to an infection, neoplasm, or autoimmune disease. 9. A 60-year-old baker presents to your clinic, complaining of increasing shortness of breath and nonproductive cough over the last month. She feels like she can't do as much activity as she used to do without becoming tired. She even has to sleep upright in her recliner at night to be able to breathe comfortably. She denies any chest pain, nausea, or sweating. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. She had a hysterectomy in her 40s for heavy vaginal bleeding. She is married and is retiring from the local bakery soon. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother died of a stroke and her father died from prostate cancer. She denies any recent upper respiratory illness, and she has had no other symptoms. On examination she is in no acute distress. Her blood pressure is 160/100 and her pulse is 100. She is afebrile and her respiratory rate is 16. With auscultation she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination the S1 and S2 are distant and an S3 is heard over the apex. What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms? A) Pneumonia B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) Pleural pain D) Left-sided heart failure Ans: D Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 314, Table 8–2 Feedback: In left-sided heart failure, fluid starts “backing up” into the lungs because the heart is unable to handle the volume. The excess fluid collects in the dependent areas, causing crackles in the bases of the lower lobes. Sitting up allows patients to breathe easier. The two main causes are chronic high blood pressure and coronary artery disease, which lead to myocardial ischemia and decreased contractility of the heart. 10. A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 exhales against his lips, which are pressed together. 15. Which of the following is consistent with good percussion technique? A) Allow all of the fingers to touch the chest while performing percussion. B) Maintain a stiff wrist and hand. C) Leave the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike. D) Strike the pleximeter over the distal interphalangeal joint. Ans: D Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Percussion takes practice to master. Most struggle initially with keeping the wrist and hand relaxed. Other challenges include removing the plexor quickly and keeping the other fingers off the chest wall. These can dampen the sound you are trying to obtain. The ideal target for the plexor is the distal interphalangeal joint. 16. Which of the following percussion notes would you obtain over the gastric bubble? A) Resonance B) Tympany C) Hyperresonance D) Flatness Ans: B Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The gastric bubble produces one of the longest percussion notes. A patient with COPD may have hyperresonance over his chest, while a normal person would have resonance. Dullness is heard over a normal liver, and flatness is heard if one percusses a large muscle. 17. Which of the following conditions would produce a hyperresonant percussion note? A) Large pneumothorax B) Lobar pneumonia C) Pleural effusion D) Empyema Ans: A Chapter: 08 Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: There is a great deal of free air in the chest with a large pneumothorax, which produces a hyperresonant note. The other three conditions produce dullness by dampening the percussion note with fluid. 18. Which lung sound possesses the characteristics of being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration and with expiration being longer than inspiration? A) Bronchovesicular B) Vesicular C) Bronchial D) Tracheal Ans: C Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: These sounds are consistent with bronchial breath sounds. Be alert for these, as they may occur elsewhere and indicate a pneumonia or other pathology. The current explanation for this phenomenon is that the sound from the trachea is carried very well to the chest wall by fluid. This same explanation explains “ee” to “aa” changes, whispered pectoriloquy, bronchophony, and other circumstances in which high-frequency sounds, normally blocked by the air-filled alveoli, could be transmitted to the chest wall. 19. A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these? A) Asthma B) COPD C) Bronchiectasis D) Heart failure Ans: D Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The timing of crackles within inspiration provides important clues. These late inspiratory crackles that appeared suddenly would be most consistent with heart failure. COPD and asthma usually produce early inspiratory crackles. Bronchiectasis, as seen in cystic fibrosis, classically produces mid-inspiratory crackles, but this is not always reliable. Interestingly, end- expiratory crackles can be heard in asthma on occasion. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 20. When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology? A) Bronchitis B) Simple asthma C) Cystic fibrosis D) Heart failure Ans: A Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Adventitious sounds that clear with cough are usually consistent with bronchitis or atelectasis. The other conditions would not be associated with findings that cleared with a cough. 21. A patient with longstanding COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next? A) Percuss the lower border of the liver B) Measure the span of the liver C) Order a hepatitis panel D) Obtain an ultrasound of the liver Ans: B Chapter: 08 Page and Header: 296, Techniques of Examination Feedback: In this patient, measuring the span of the liver saved the patient an involved workup, because it was normal. His history of COPD is consistent with flattening of the diaphragms, which pushed the liver edge down while the actual size of the liver remained the same. Percussing the lower border of the liver alone caused this referral, because it was assumed that the liver was enlarged. 22. You are at your family reunion playing football when your uncle takes a hit to his right lateral thorax and is in pain. He asks you if you think he has a rib fracture. You are in a very remote area. What would your next step be? A) Call a medevac helicopter B) Drive him to the city (4 hours away) C) Press on his sternum and spine simultaneously Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 337, The Health History Feedback: Orthopnea, which is dyspnea that occurs when the patient is lying down and improves when the patient sits up, is part of the cardiovascular review of systems and, if positive, may indicate congestive heart failure. 5. You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this? A) Normal B) Prehypertension C) Stage 1 hypertension D) Stage 2 hypertension Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Prehypertension is considered to be a systolic blood pressure from 120 to 139 and a diastolic BP from 80 to 89. Previously, this was considered normal. JNC 7 recommends taking action at this point to prevent worsening hypertension. Research shows that this population is likely to progress to more serious stages of hypertension. 6. You are participating in a health fair and performing cholesterol screens. One person has a cholesterol of 225. She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease? A) Ethnicity B) Alcohol intake C) Gender D) Asthma Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Gender is used in the calculation of the 10-year risk for developing coronary heart disease, because men have a higher risk than women. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 7. You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10-year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral arterial disease C) Systemic lupus erythematosus D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Peripheral arterial disease is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, as are abdominal aortic aneurysm, carotid atherosclerotic disease, and diabetes mellitus. 8. You are conducting a workshop on the measurement of jugular venous pulsation. As part of your instruction, you tell the students to make sure that they can distinguish between the jugular venous pulsation and the carotid pulse. Which one of the following characteristics is typical of the carotid pulse? A) Palpable B) Soft, rapid, undulating quality C) Pulsation eliminated by light pressure on the vessel D) Level of pulsation changes with changes in position Ans: A Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The carotid pulse is palpable; the jugular venous pulsation is rarely palpable. The carotid upstroke is normally brisk, but it may be delayed and decreased as in aortic stenosis or bounding as in aortic insufficiency. 9. A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP? A) Left-sided heart failure B) Mitral stenosis C) Constrictive pericarditis D) Aortic aneurysm Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: One cause of increased jugular venous pressure is constrictive pericarditis. Others include right-sided heart failure, tricuspid stenosis, and superior vena cava syndrome. You may wish to read about these conditions. 10. You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse? A) Hypothyroidism B) Aortic stenosis, with pressure overload of the left ventricle C) Mitral stenosis, with volume overload of the left atrium D) Cardiomyopathy Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Pressure overload of the left ventricle, such as occurs in aortic stenosis, may result in an increase in amplitude of the apical impulse. The other conditions should decrease amplitude of the apical impulse or not be palpable at all. 11. You are performing a cardiac examination on a patient with shortness of breath and palpitations. You listen to the heart with the patient sitting upright, then have him change to a supine position, and finally have him turn onto his left side in the left lateral decubitus position. Which of the following valvular defects is best heard in this position? A) Aortic B) Pulmonic C) Mitral D) Tricuspid Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The left lateral decubitus position brings the left ventricle closer to the chest wall, allowing mitral valve murmurs to be better heard. If you do not listen to the heart in this position with both the diaphragm and bell in a quiet room, it is possible to miss significant murmurs such as mitral stenosis. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 C) It is best heard over the apex. D) It does not vary with respiration. Ans: A Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 323, Anatomy and Physiology Feedback: S2 splitting is best heard over the pulmonic area because this is the only place where both of its components can be heard well. The closure of the pulmonic valve is normally not loud because the right heart is a low-pressure system. The bell is best used because it is a low- pitched sound. S2 splitting normally increases with inhalation. 18. Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement? A) It is measured with the patient at a 45-degree angle. B) The vertical height of the blood column in centimeters, plus 5 cm, is the JVP. C) A JVP below 9 cm is abnormal. D) It is measured above the sternal notch. Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 323, Anatomy and Physiology Feedback: Measurement of the JVP is important to assess a patient's fluid status. Although it may be measured at 45°, it is important to adjust the level of the patient's torso so that the blood column is visible. This may be with the patient completely supine or sitting completely upright, depending on the patient. Any measurement greater than 4 cm above the sternal angle is abnormal. This would correspond to a JVP of 9 cm because we add a constant of 5 cm, which is an estimate of the height of the sternal notch above the right atrium. 19. Which of the following regarding jugular venous pulsations is a systolic phenomenon? A) The “y” descent B) The “x” descent C) The upstroke of the “a” wave D) The downstroke of the “v” wave Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 323, Anatomy and Physiology Feedback: The most prominent upstrokes of jugular venous pulsations are diastolic phenomena. These can be timed using the carotid pulse. The only event listed above which is a systolic phenomenon is the “x” descent. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 20. How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% Ans: D Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Each increase of BP by 20 systolic and 10 diastolic doubles the risk of cardiovascular disease. Being “low risk” by JNC 7 criteria confers a 72%–85% reduction in CVD mortality and 40%–58% reduction in overall mortality. 21. In healthy adults over 20, how often should blood pressure, body mass index, waist circumference, and pulse be assessed, according to American Heart Association guidelines? A) Every 6 months B) Every year C) Every 2 years D) Every 5 years Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: AHA guidelines recommend screening every 2 years in patients over 20 for blood pressure, body mass index, waist circumference, and pulse. 22. Which of the following is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome? A) Waist circumference of 38 inches for a male B) Waist circumference of 34 inches for a female C) BP of 134/88 for a male D) BP of 128/84 for a female Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: The physical examination criteria for identifying metabolic syndrome include a waist Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 of 40 inches or greater for a male, a waist of 35 inches or greater for a female, and a blood pressure of 130/85 or greater. Other criteria include triglycerides greater than or equal to 150 mg/dL, fasting glucose greater than or equal to 110 mg/dL, and HDL less than 40 for men or less than 50 for women. 23. Mrs. Adams would like to begin an exercise program and was told to exercise as intensely as necessary to obtain a heart rate 60% or greater of her maximum heart rate. She is 52. What heart rate should she achieve? A) 80 B) 100 C) 120 D) 140 Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 339, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Maximum heart rate is calculated by subtracting the patient's age from 220. For Mrs. Adams, 60% of this number is about 100. She must also be instructed in how to measure her own pulse or have a device to do so. Most people are able to carry on a conversation at this level of exertion. 24. In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following is important? A) Keep the patient's torso at a 45-degree angle. B) Measure the highest visible pressure, usually at end expiration. C) Add the vertical height over the sternal notch to a 5-cm constant. D) Realize that a total value of over 12 cm is abnormal. Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: In measuring JVP, the angle of the patient's torso must be varied until the highest oscillation point, or meniscus is visible. This varies. The landmark used is actually the sternal angle, not the sternal notch. We assign a constant height of 5 cm above the right atrium to this landmark. A value of over 8 cm total (more than 3 cm vertical distance above the sternal angle, plus the 5 cm constant) is considered abnormal. 25. You find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: It is often difficult to hear the heart well in a patient with emphysema. The shape of the chest as well as the interfering lung noise make examination challenging. By listening in the epigastrium, these barriers can be overcome. It is impractical to ask a patient who is short of breath to hold his breath for a prolonged period. Listening posteriorly would make the heart sounds even softer. It is always a good idea to listen to a patient in the left lateral decubitus position, but in this case it would not make auscultation easier. 31. You are listening carefully for S2 splitting. Which of the following will help? A) Using the diaphragm with light pressure over the 2nd right intercostal space B) Using the bell with light pressure over the 2nd left intercostal space C) Using the diaphragm with firm pressure over the apex D) Using the bell with firm pressure over the lower left sternal border Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: S2 splitting is composed of an aortic and pulmonic component. Because the pulmonic component is softer, it can usually be heard only over the 2nd left intercostal space. It is a low-pitched sound and thus should be sought using the bell with light pressure. Conversely, the diaphragm is best used with firm pressure. 32. Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur? A) It is moderately loud. B) It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest. C) It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest. D) It is associated with a “thrill.” Ans: D Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The grade 4 murmur is differentiated from those below it by the presence of a palpable thrill. A murmur cannot be graded as a 4 unless this is present. The thrill is a “buzzing” feeling over the area where the murmur is loudest. For practice, you may often feel a thrill over a dialysis fistula. 33. Which valve lesion typically produces a murmur of equal intensity throughout systole? Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) Aortic stenosis B) Mitral insufficiency C) Pulmonic stenosis D) Aortic insufficiency Ans: B Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: This description fits a holosystolic murmur. Because aortic and pulmonic stenosis murmurs vary with the flow of blood during systole, they typically produce a crescendo– decrescendo murmur. The murmur of aortic insufficiency represents backleak across the valve in diastole. It is a decrescendo pattern murmur, which gets softer as the pressure gradient decreases. 34. You notice a patient has a strong pulse and then a weak pulse. This pattern continues. Which of the following is likely? A) Emphysema B) Asthma exacerbation C) Severe left heart failure D) Cardiac tamponade Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 348, Techniques of Examination Feedback: This finding is consistent with pulsus alternans, which is associated with severe left heart failure. Occasionally, a monitor will read only half of the beats because half are too weak to detect. There may also be electrical alternans on EKG. This can be detected by using a blood pressure cuff and lowering the pressure slowly. At one point the rate of Korotkoff sounds will double, because the weaker beats can then “make it through.” The other findings are associated with paradoxical pulse. 35. Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S2. This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Mitral stenosis B) Mitral insufficiency C) Mitral valve prolapse D) Mitral valve papillary muscle ischemia Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 Ans: C Chapter: 09 Page and Header: 382, Table 9–8 Feedback: The description above is classic for mitral valve prolapse. The extra sound is a midsystolic click, which is typically a short, high-pitched sound. Mitral stenosis is a soft, low- pitched rumbling murmur which is difficult to hear unless the bell is used in the left lateral decubitus position. Mitral insufficiency is a holosystolic murmur heard best over the apex, and papillary muscle ischemia often creates a mitral insufficiency with its accompanying murmur. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 10: The Breasts and Axillae Multiple Choice 1. A 72-year-old retired saleswoman comes to your office, complaining of a bloody discharge from her left breast for 3 months. She denies any trauma to her breast. Her past medical history includes high blood pressure and abdominal surgery for colon cancer. Her aunt died of ovarian cancer and her father died of colon cancer. Her mother died of a stroke. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a widow and has three healthy children. On examination her breasts are symmetric, with no skin changes. You are able to express bloody discharge from her left nipple. You feel no discrete masses, but her left axilla has a hard, 1-cm fixed node. The remainder of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance? A) Benign breast abnormality B) Breast cancer C) Galactorrhea Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 392, The Health History Feedback: Nipple discharge in breast cancer is usually unilateral and can be clear or bloody. Although a breast mass is not palpated, in this case a fixed lymph node is palpated. Other forms Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 A) Peau d'orange B) Acanthosis nigricans C) Hidradenitis suppurativa Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Acanthosis nigricans can be associated with an internal malignancy, but in most cases it is a benign dermatologic condition associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, consisting of acne, hirsutism, obesity, irregular periods, infertility, ovarian cysts, and early onset type 2 diabetes. It is also known to correlate with insulin resistance. 6. A 43-year-old store clerk comes to your office upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her left arm. She states she found it yesterday when she was feeling pain under her arm during movement. She states the lymph node is about an inch long and is very painful. She checks her breasts monthly and gets a yearly mammogram (her last was 2 months ago), and until now everything has been normal. She states she is so upset because her mother died in her 50s of breast cancer. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her father is in good health. On examination you see a tense female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her left axilla you see a tense red area. There is no scarring around the axilla. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm tender, movable lymph node underlying hot skin. Other shotty nodes are also in the area. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her right axilla and both breasts is unremarkable. Examining her left arm, you see a scabbed-over superficial laceration over her left hand. Upon your questioning, she remembers she cut her hand gardening last week. What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms? A) Breast cancer B) Lymphadenopathy of infectious origin C) Hidradenitis suppurativa Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: A lymph node enlarged because of infection is generally hot, tender, and red. Close examination of the skin that drains to that lymph node region is advised. Often there will be a cut or scratch over the involved arm that has an infectious agent. An example is cat scratch disease. 7. A 63-year-old nurse comes to your office, upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her right arm. She states she found it last week while taking a shower. She isn't sure if she has any breast lumps because she doesn't know how to do self-exams. She states her last mammogram was 5 years ago and it was normal. Her past medical history is significant for high Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 blood pressure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She quit smoking 2 years ago after a 55-packs/year history. She denies using any illegal drugs and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother died of a heart attack and her father died of a stroke. She has no children. On examination you see an older female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her right axilla you see nothing unusual. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm hard, fixed lymph node. She denies any tenderness. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her left axilla and breast is unremarkable. On palpation of her right breast you feel a nontender 1-cm lump in the tail of Spence. What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms? A) Breast cancer B) Lymphadenopathy of infectious origin C) Hidradenitis suppurativa Ans: A Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Metastatic lymph nodes tend to be hard, nontender, and fixed, often to the rib cage. Although the patient has no family history of breast cancer, she is at a slightly increased risk due to her never having had children. 8. A 40-year-old mother of two presents to your office for consultation. She is interested in knowing what her relative risks are for developing breast cancer. She is concerned because her sister had unilateral breast cancer 6 years ago at age 38. The patient reports on her history that she began having periods at age 11 and has been fairly regular ever since, except during her two pregnancies. Her first child arrived when she was 26 and her second at age 28. Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable. Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer? A) First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer B) Age at menarche of less than 12 C) First live birth between the ages of 25 and 29 D) First-degree relative with postmenopausal breast cancer Ans: A Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 393, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: Having a first-degree relative with cancer before menopause gives a relative risk of 3.1. Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 9. A 51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44- year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable. At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene? A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 393, Health Promotion and Counseling Feedback: At the age of 50, the risk of breast cancer for someone with the BRCA1 gene is 50%. 10. A 14-year-old junior high school student is brought in by his mother and father because he seems to be developing breasts. The mother is upset because she read on the Internet that smoking marijuana leads to breast enlargement in males. The young man adamantly denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He has recently noticed changes in his penis, testicles, and pubic hair pattern. Otherwise, his past medical history is unremarkable. His parents are both in good health. He has two older brothers who never had this problem. On examination you see a mildly overweight teenager with enlarged breast tissue that is slightly tender on both sides. Otherwise his examination is normal. He is agreeable to taking a drug test. What is the most likely cause of his gynecomastia? A) Breast cancer B) Imbalance of hormones of puberty C) Drug use Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Approximately one third of teenage boys develop gynecomastia during puberty. It is not surprising that the two older brothers did not have this. 11. A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 17. Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination? A) Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange B) One breast larger than the other C) One nipple inverted D) One breast with dimple when the patient leans forward Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Asymmetry in size of the breasts is a common benign finding. The others are concerning for underlying malignancy. 18. Which is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer? A) Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral. B) Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically. C) Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn. D) Beginning at the nipple, palpate outward in a stripe pattern. Ans: C Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: The vertical strip pattern has been shown to be the most effective pattern for palpation of the breast. The most important aspect, however, is to be systematic. The tail of Spence, located on the upper anterior chest, is an area commonly missed on examination. 19. Which is true of women who have had a unilateral mastectomy? A) They no longer require breast examination. B) They should be examined carefully along the surgical scar for masses. C) Lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm usually suggests recurrence of breast cancer. D) Women with breast reconstruction over their mastectomy site no longer require examination. Ans: B Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: A woman who has had breast cancer remains at high risk for recurrence, especially in the contralateral breast. The mastectomy site should be carefully examined for local recurrence Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 as well. Lymphedema or swelling of the ipsilateral arm following mastectomy is common and does not usually indicate recurrence. Women with breast reconstruction must also undergo careful examination. 20. Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination? A) It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer. B) It is recommended unanimously by organizations making screening recommendations. C) A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination. D) The undue fear caused by finding a mass justifies omitting instruction in breast self- examination. Ans: C Chapter: 10 Page and Header: 402, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Although self-examination has not been shown to reduce mortality and is not recommended by all groups making screening recommendations, many choose to teach women a systematic method in which to examine their breasts. A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination. Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 12th Edition Chapter 11: The Abdomen Multiple Choice 1. A 52-year-old secretary comes to your office, complaining about accidentally leaking urine when she coughs or sneezes. She says this has been going on for about a year now. She relates that she has not had a period for 2 years. She denies any recent illness or injuries. Her past Bates guide to physical examination and history taking TEST BANK 12 th Edition CHAPTER 1 TO CHAPTER 20 medical history is significant for four spontaneous vaginal deliveries. She is married and has four children. She denies alcohol, tobacco, or drug use. During her pelvic examination you note some atrophic vaginal tissue, but the remainder of her pelvic, abdominal, and rectal examinations are unremarkable. Which type of urinary incontinence does she have? A) Stress incontinence B) Urge incontinence C) Overflow incontinence Ans: A Chapter: 11 Page and Header: 418, The Health History Feedback: Stress incontinence usually occurs when the intra-abdominal pressure goes up during coughing, sneezing, or laughing. This is usually due to a weakness of the pelvic floor, with inadequate muscle support of the bladder. Vaginal deliveries and pelvic surgery are often associated with these symptoms. Usually, female patients are postmenopausal when stress incontinence begins. Kegel exercises are usually recommended to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. 2. A 46-year-old former salesman presents to the ER, complaining of black stools for the past few weeks. His past medical history is significant for cirrhosis. He has gained weight recently, especially around his abdomen. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years and has drunk approximately 10 alcoholic beverages a day for 25 years. He has used IV heroin and smoked crack in the past. He denies any recent use. He is currently unemployed and has never been married. On examination you find a man appearing older than his stated age. His skin has a yellowish tint and he is thin, with a prominent abdomen. You note multiple “spider angiomas” at the base of his neck. Otherwise, his heart and lung examinations are normal. On inspection he has dilated veins around his umbilicus. Increased bowel sounds are heard during auscultation. Palpation reveals diffuse tenderness that is more severe in the epigastric area. His liver is small and hard to palpation and he has a positive fluid wave. He is positive for occult blood on his rectal examination. What cause of black stools most likely describes his symptoms and signs? A) Infectious diarrhea B) Mallory-Weiss tear C) Esophageal varices Ans: C Chapter: 11 Page and Header: 434, Techniques of Examination Feedback: Varices are often found in alcoholic patients, but only when they have a diagnosis of significant cirrhosis. This patient has symptoms of cirrhosis, including jaundice, ascites, spider hemangiomas, and dilated veins on his abdomen (caput medusa).