BIO 151 /Portage Learning Best Exam Solutions Questions With Answers 100% CORRECTLY Tested, Exams of Nursing

Download BIO 151 /Portage Learning Best Exam Solutions Questions With Answers 100% CORRECTLY Tested and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! BIO 151 /Portage Learning Best Exam Solutions Questions With Answers 100% CORRECTLY Tested And Verified Package MODULE 1 All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism A. Anatomy 2. B. The liver is an example of the organ level of organization in the human body A. Sodium B. The liver C. Mitochondria D. The skeletal system E. Epithelium 3. What is the breakdown of nutrients? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism D. Catabolism 1. List the four basic types of tissues. Epithelium, muscle, connective, and nervous tissue 2. List the three layers of the skin in order from deep to superficial. The deepest layer of the skin should be at the top of your list. To receive credit the layers must be in this order. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. Describe the position of the epigastric region relative to the umbilical region in anatomical position terms. Use a full sentence for your description. The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region. (OR) The umbilical region is inferior to the epigastric region. 2. Which anatomical action is occurring at the elbow joint, in the direction of the arrow? (Elbow) Flexion 3. Look at the figure below. The right femur is moved in the direction of the arrow. What anatomical action term best describes this movement? Abduction (The femur is moving away from midline) Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. List two organs contained in the pelvic cavity. The pelvic cavity contains the bladder, reproductive organs and the rectum Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. The body is divided into anterior and posterior sections by what type of plane? Frontal (coronal) A section that is diagonal between horizontal and vertical planes is called what? Oblique Look at the diagram below. What type of plane is shown? Sagittal (Specifically, a midsagittal plane) 2. True or False: The ventral body cavity contains the cranial cavity, the thoracic cavity, and the abdominal cavity. If your answer is false, rephrase the statement to make it a true statement. False. The ventral cavity contains the thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity. (It does not contain the cranial cavity) 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) e. Endocytosis is a passive process. It does not require cellular energy expenditure.(T or F) A: T B: T C: F D: T E: F 2. True or False? a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) e. Endocytosis is a passive process. It does not require cellular energy expenditure.(T or F) a. FALSE (ATP is produced, not ADP) b. TRUE (Peripheral proteins can be found on the outer or inner surface, but do not span across the entire membrane). c. FALSE (This process is called endocytosis) d. TRUE e. FALSE (Endocytosis is an active process and requires cellular energy) Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. In your own words, discuss Tay-Sachs disease. What organelle within the cell is impacted? What are the symptoms of the disease and why do they occur? (1)Lysosomes (2) buildup of toxic lipids inside the cell (biomacromolecules) (3) disability and death In the genetic disease known as Tay-Sachs, one of the normally present digestive enzymes inside lysosomes is lacking. Thus, a toxic lipid in the brain cells cannot be broken down. The resulting buildup of lipids in these cells can cause intellectual disability and death. 2. You are observing two cells under the microscope. They are the same type of eukaryotic cell but one appears much larger. Based on appearance alone, which one would you expect to be carrying out respiration at a more active rate, the larger or smaller cell? Explain why. The smaller cell. Cells need to remain relatively small because as a cell expands the amount of surface area relative to the volume of the cell decreases. The smaller cell is more active because relative to its volume, its surface area is larger than a bigger cell. With a larger surface area (relative to its volume) this allows the metabolic processes to occur faster. Module 2 Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. How many lobes does the right human lung have? Three Lobes 2. Air (and not food) pass in which of the following areas: A. Esophagus B. Nasopharynx C. Oropharynx D. Both A. and C. B. Nasopharynx 3. Rings of cartilage line much of the respiratory tract. In which of one the following would cartilage NOT be found? A. Trachea B. Larynx C. Bronchi D. Alveoli D. Alveoli Label the following five items from the diagram: Answer the following five multiple choice questions: 1. Boyle's law states that gas volume is A. Directly proportional to temperature B. Inversely proportional to temperature C. Directly proportional to pressure D. Inversely proportional to pressure E. Both A and B D. Inversely proportional to pressure 2. Typical respiratory epithelium contains all of the following, except which one? A. cilia B. layers C. tall, narrow cells D. mucus producing cells E. goblet cells B. layers 3. Which cells are most abundant within the alveoli? A. Macrophages B. Type 1 alveolar cells C. Type 2 alveolar cells D. Erythrocytes E. Ciliated columnar cells A. Macrophages 4. Which one of the following is not true of the respiratory physiology? A. Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation B. Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle of quiet breathing C. Inspiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation D. Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be exhaled beyond normal exhalation A. Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation 5. Which one of the following is true of the respiratory physiology calculations? (You may find it helpful to draw the respiratory physiology diagram on a piece of scratch paper.) A. Vital Capacity (VC) = ERV+TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV C. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+RV D. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = IRV + TV B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. Typical respiratory epithelium contains cells where only some of the pseudostratified columnar cells touch the basement membrane. False -all pseudostratified cells touch the basement membrane. 2. The vestibule is the most external portion of the nasal cavity. True 3. The vestibule is lined with typical respiratory epithelium. False- stratified squamous epithelium is found in the vestibule. 4. The fossae is another name for the pleural cavities. False 5. The bronchioles are surrounded by capillaries for gas exchange. False Matching: A. Emphysema B. Cystic Fibrosis C. Pulmonary edema D. Pleurisy The pleural space fills with air, pus or blood. D. Pleurisy This condition results from fluid-filled alveoli. C. Pulmonary edema This condition results in a loss of alveoli. A. Emphysema This hereditary illness results in excess mucus. B. Cystic Fibrosis Answer the following three questions: 1. The pressure of three gases equals 1 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of oxygen (in mmHG) if nitrogen is 300 mmHg and carbon dioxide is 350 mmHg? To receive full credit you must show your work . 110 mmHG 1atm= 760 mmHg 300 mmHg + 350 mmHG + X = 760 mmHg OR: 760 - 300-350= 110 mmHG 2. Why would warming air be beneficial to gas exchange? It would expand the air to make it more available for gas exchange. Gallbladder 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 9: Appendix (not large intestine) 10: Rectum (not large intestine) Answer the following two questions: 1. A doctor is looking to prescribe a larger dose of a vitamin that would not easily cause vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be the best to prescribe? Explain your answer . A. Water soluble vitamin B. Fat soluble vitamin C. All of the above A. Water soluble vitamin. Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. 2. Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the large intestine. Absorption: In the large intestine water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation: Feces travel to the rectum where it is excreted via the anus. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Answer the following essay question: 1. Name and explain the four main functions performed by the digestive system. The digestive system has four main roles that it performs: ingestion, digestion, absorption, and defecation. Ingestion is when food enters the mouth. Digestion or food breakdown occurs when food is moved, mixed, and exposed to enzymes along the gastrointestinal tract. Digestion can be divided into two parts: mechanical and chemical digestion. Mechanical digestion occurs when food is broken down into smaller pieces. This occurs when the teeth chew food, when the stomach mixes food, and as food is moved along the gastrointestinal tract. Chemical digestion is the breakdown of food by enzymes. Absorption is the process of moving digested food into the blood stream. Defecation is the excretion of indigestible food from the anus. Answer the following three questions: 1. Match the digestive organ with the one substance it produces: (4 points): Pancreas F. Lipase Liver D. Urea Mouth B. Salivary amylase A. Chyme B. Salivary amylase C. Vitamin E D. Urea E. Pepsinogen F. Lipase 2. What is the purpose of the hormone Ghrelin? A. Increase hunger, decrease satiety B. Increase hunger, increase satiety C. Decrease hunger, increase satiety D. Decrease hunger, decrease satiety A. Increase hunger, decrease satiety 3. Which of the following statements is false? A. Taste buds are located on the surface of the mouth and the wall of the pharynx. B. The ileocecal valve controls the entrance of chyme into to the small intestine. C. The gall bladder, teeth, and tongue are considered accessory organs to the digestive system. D. The alimentary canal is a continuous muscular tube, open at both ends. B. The ileocecal valve controls the entrance of chyme into to the small intestine. (It controls the entrance to the large intestine) Answer the following five true or false questions: Label the diagram below, including left or right. Describe tooth (A). C. Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules. D. Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules. B. Two ATP molecules are formed (True) 2. Which of the following statements is true concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown? A. This is also known as proton motive force. B. Fermentation takes place here with oxygen present. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. D. Glucose molecules are formed. C. Two additional ATP are formed along with other electron carriers. (True) 3. Which of the following statements is false concerning the Electron Transport System? A. Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration. B. Approximately a total of 34 ATP are formed. C. Protons are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane. D. The proton motive force forms ATP molecules. A. Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration (false) A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine (cuspid) E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate) Describe tooth type A: Chisel-shaped for biting food Match the five structures with the best description: 1. Uvula: A. Connects mouth to esophagus B. Forms food into a bolus C. Attaches to the lesser omentum D. Stores glycogen and produces urea E. Attached to the soft palate E. Attached to the soft palate 2. Small Intestine: A. First section is called the jejunum B. Contains the LES C. Attaches to the greater omentum D. Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla E. Secretes Vitamin K D. Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla 3. Muscularis externa (layer of tissue): A. Made of two layers of muscle B. Innermost layer C. Secretes mucous D. Contains blood and lymph vessels E. Begins in the mouth A. Made of two layers of muscle 4. Dentin: A. Upper portion of gums B. Outermost layer C. Bone-like substance D. Hard connective tissue E. Contains longitudinal muscle C. Bone-like substance 1. Label the following bones of the skeleton from the figure below: 1: Frontal bone (or frontal sinuses) 3: Maxilla 5: Vomer 7: Maxilla 8: Mandible Answer the following three questions: 1. Label the following vertebrae as: A= Cervical B= Thoracic C= Lumbar A (Cervical) 2. Label the following vertebrae as: A= Cervical B= Thoracic C= Lumbar B (Thoracic) 3. What is the name of the foramina in the figure below? 1: Foramen ovale 2: Carotid canal 3: External acoustic meatus 1. Label the following bone landmarks: B: Supraspinatus fossa D: Acromion E: Neck H: 2. Label the bones in the figure below: A: Cuboid C: Intermediate cuneiform D: Medial Cuneiform F: Navicular G: Calcaneus Answer the following five questions: 1. Yellow bone marrow: A. is found primarily in long bones. B. is found primarily in short and flat bones. C. is found primarily in newborns, not adults. D. produces red blood cells. A. is found primarily in long bones. 2. The diaphysis of a bone: A. is found at the ends of long bones. B. contains the articular cartilage at joint articulations. C. contains the proximal epiphysis. D. is the center length of a bone. E. both A. and C. D. is the center length of a bone. 3. Compact bone: A. forms the exterior of bones. B. forms the interior of bones. C. is lighter than spongy bone. D. contains numerous bars and plates with irregular spaces. E. both B. and D. A. forms the exterior of bones. 4. Intramembranous ossification is the formation of from : A. a growth plate; the center of a bone. B. long bones; hyaline cartilage. C. flat bones; connective tissue. D. a primary ossification center; a cartilaginous disc. E. both A. and C. C. flat bones; connective tissue 5. What term best describes the type of fracture pictured below? 2. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: MCL (Medial collateral/tibial ligament) 3. Name the ligament highlighted in blue in the figure below: Acromioclavicular ligament MODULE 5 Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple-choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response with the information provided. Answer the following five true or false questions: 1. There are five types of muscle tissue found in the body. False, only 3 2. Cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are both under involuntary control. True 3. The musculocutaneous nerve is part of the central nervous system. False- this is a peripheral nerve 4. A motor signal is a signal that is sent from a muscle to the central nervous system. False- this is sensory input 5. The cervical plexus contains nerves that innervate the thigh. False Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. All multiple-choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response with the information provided. Answer the following five short-answer questions: Zygomaticus major G: Buccinator J: Depressor labii inferioris Fill in the following muscle chart (10 blank spaces): Muscle Origin Insertion Action Innervation Flexor digitorum superficialis ------- ---------- 1. 2. Pronator Teres ------- 3. 4. 5. Vastus Medialis 6. ---------- 7. -------------- Peroneus Brevis 8. 9. ----------- 10. 1. Flexion of the wrist and digits 2-5 2. Median nerve 3. Mid-lateral surface of radius 4. Pronation 5. Median nerve 6. Intertrochanteric line of femur 7. Knee extension 8. Lateral, distal fibula 9. Lateral side of 5th metatarsal 10. Superficial peroneal nerve Answer the following five questions: 1. Your patient sustained an injury to their facial nerve (CN VII). Which actions would be impaired? A. Eye closure B. Raising eyebrows C. Jaw closure D. Neck flexion E. A&B F. C&D E.A&B (Orbicularis oculi & frontalis) 2. Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bring his chin to his chest. He is also having difficulty turning his face from side to side. What muscle is most likely impaired? A. Thyrohyoid B. Semispinalis capitis C. Splenius Capitis D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Scalenes D. Sternocleidomastoid (Bilateral neck flexion, unilateral turns face) 3. A person sustained a back injury to the muscle group closest to the spine. What muscle group was injured? A. Longissimus B. Spinalis C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Iliocostalis E. Rectus abdominis B. Spinalis 4. True or False: When a muscle contracts, the Z lines within a sarcomere come closer together towards the M line. True 5. True or False: The I bands contain thick filaments. False (I bands contain thin filaments) Answer the following five questions: 1. Which muscle contracts to enable the main effort required to stand on your toes? A. Biceps femoris B. Quadriceps C. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis anterior C. Gastrocnemius 2. When gluteus maximus contracts, which bone is pulled posteriorly by this muscle? A. Tibia B. Ilium C. Ulna D. Femur 5. What is the insertion of muscle E? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) Intertubercular groove of humerus (Teres major) Use the figure to label the following six muscles: (Viewed posteriorly) A: Extensor carpi radialis longus C: Extensor digitorum D: Extensor Carpi Ulnaris F: Abductor pollicis longus H: Extensor indicis I: Extensor pollicis brevis Use the figure to label the following six muscles: D: Peroneus (fibularis) longus E: Soleus F: Tibialis posterior G: Flexor digitorum longus H: Flexor hallucis longus I: Peroneus (fibularis) brevis Answer the following essay question: Describe how acetylcholine, sodium ions and calcium ions work together to enable a muscle contraction. Acetylcholine (a special chemical called a neurotransmitter) is released from a motor nerve at the neuromuscular junction (or NMJ). Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the muscle fiber that cause sodium channels to open. Sodium ions rush inside the cell, triggering an action potential which eventually reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell, causing a muscle contraction to occur. Describe how acetylcholine, sodium ions and calcium ions work together to enable a muscle contraction. For a muscle contraction, first a nerve signal is sent to the muscle fiber. Once this signal reaches the muscle fiber, acetylcholine is released from the motor nerve ending. Acetylecholine binds to Answer the following five questions: 1. This type of hormone is derived from proteins: A. Peptide hormones B. Catecholamines C. Steroid hormones D. Tyrosine A. Peptide hormones 2. Growth hormone A. is most active during adulthood. B. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. C. underproduction is called acromegaly. D. A &C B. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. 3. Neurosecretory cells are a part of what endocrine organ? A. Thalamus B. Pituitary C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus D. Hypothalamus 4. Which hormone production is decreased with sunlight? Positive feedback system increases the amount of the hormone that is regulated. An example of a hormone that works through positive feedback is oxytocin. This hormone is involved with childbirth by causing the uterus to contract. As the uterus is contracting, this causes more oxytocin to be released. The feedback is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus does not need to contract. This stops the release of oxytocin. A. MSH –melanocyte stimulating hormone B. melatonin C. cortisol D. GH -Growth hormone B. melatonin 5. The posterior pituitary stores these two hormones: A. ADH and Prolactin B. TSH and LH C. LH and FSH D. ADH and Oxytocin D. ADH and oxytocin 1. List the hormone best describes each of the four statements below: A. I lower the level of calcium in the blood by depositing calcium into bone. Calcitonin B. I am the secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads. FSH or LH (Gonadotropic hormones) C. I am secreted by the pituitary to stimulate the adrenal cortex. ACTH D. I secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. Glucagon Answer the following question. 1. Explain in detail how PTH and calcitonin work to maintain calcium balance. Calcitonin: produced by the thyroid glands, deposits calcium into bone. Calcitonin opposes the action of PTH. When the blood calcium level reaches the appropriate level through all these means, the parathyroid glands stop producing PTH through negative feedback. PTH: produced by the parathyroid glands increase the amount of calcium in the blood. (Any one of the following explanations of PTH is acceptable) PTH stimulates the increased absorption of calcium from the intestines. PTH retains calcium through excreting phosphate at the kidneys. In the bones, PTH promotes the activity of osteoclasts to demineralize of the bone, increasing the amount of calcium in the blood. With the influence of PTH, calcium levels in the blood increase while phosphate levels decrease. PTH is released by the parathyroid glands. Calcitonin works in opposite to PTH. Calcitonin lowers or decreases the level of calcium in the blood. Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland. Answer the following multiple choice questions: 1. Which hormone/s are involved in milk production? A. Thyroxin B. Oxytocin C. Prolactin D. B &C E. A&B C. Prolactin 2. Which cells mature in the thymus? A. B cells B. T cells C. Red blood cells D. the islets of Langerhans E. A & B B. T Cells 3. Iodine is needed to produce which hormone/s? 1. In addition to the endocrine system, the pancreas is also part of which system? A. Excretory B. Nervous C. Circulatory D. Digestive D. Digestive 2. Which part of the adrenal glands is vital to life? A. Cortex B. Medulla C. The entire gland D. None of adrenal gland is vital to life A. Cortex 3. Which of the following is false regarding aldosterone? A. It is a regulated by the concentration of sodium. B. It causes the kidneys to excrete potassium and retain sodium. C. It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium. D. It is a mineralocorticoid. E. It increases blood pressure C. It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium. 4. If you were calcium deficient, which condition would occur in your body if there was no hormonal compensation? A. Anemia B. Tetany C. Acromegaly D. Jet lag Answer the following two questions. 1. Identify the region and the layer of skin that is highlighted in blue. (Also indicated by the arrow, below) *NOTE: To receive full credit you must label two regions. Stratum granulosum; Epidermis (Must have both for full credit) B. Tetany 5. Which of the following is true regarding estrogen? A. Production is highest in childhood. B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. C. It decreases fat storage. D. It causes females to have a narrower pelvis (compared to males). B. It causes growth of the uterus and vagina. MODULE 7 2. A- Identify the sensory cell receptor highlighted in blue, below, also indicated by the arrow. B- What sensory information is detected by this type of receptor? Meisner’s corpuscles; Detects light touch and vibration (mechanoreceptor) Answer the following two questions: 1. What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) Arrector pili, a smooth muscle which connects to each hair follicle. It contracts when the body is cold or experiences emotional responses. 2. Merkel cells are embedded in what layer of the skin? Epidermis 3. In your own words, how can the skin be used to determine if a person is dehydrated? A person who is dehydrated has decreased water content in the dermal layer of their skin. A person can be tested for dehydration by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. One indicator of dehydration is when the skin does not recoil back to its normal shape but instead stays “ridged”. Dehydration can be tested in a person by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. If the skin does not recoil back to normal and stays pinched, that is one indication of dehydration. 2. What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) Sebaceous gland (oil gland) produces oil (sebum) to protect the skin and hair from drying. Answer the following five questions: 1. All of the following are functions of skin except: A. Absorb UV rays B. Produce vitamin C C. Thermoregulation D. Protection for underlying tissues B. Produce vitamin C 2. The thickest region of the dermis is the: A. Reticular B. Papillary C. Basement membrane D. Subcutaneous E. None of the above are layers of the dermis A. Reticular 1. This injury, seen below, is best described as what degree of burn? Explain what layer/s of skin are damaged in this type of burn. Second-degree burn, also called a partial thickness burn The epidermis and dermis layers of the skin was damaged. (Optional: The burned area burned becomes red and painful, forming blisters) 3. The hypodermis is comprised mainly of: A. Adipocytes B. Reticular cells C. Dermatomes D. Sebaceous glands A. Adipocytes 4. What is a contusion? A. A third degree burn B. An infection in the epidermis C. Damage to a broken blood vessel D. Subcutaneous injection C. Damage to a broken blood vessel 5. Information from a dermatome travels to: A. The brain B. A hair follicle C. A gland D. The skin A. The brain Answer the following clinical case scenario: