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BIO 353 - Cell Biology Exam 2 Questions with Complete Solutions, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive set of multiple-choice questions covering key concepts in cell biology, including cellular respiration, photosynthesis, and the cytoskeleton. Each question is accompanied by a detailed explanation of the correct answer, making it a valuable resource for students preparing for exams or seeking to deepen their understanding of the subject.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 11/16/2024

wilfred-hill
wilfred-hill 🇺🇸

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BIO 353 - Cell Biology Exam 2 Questions with Complete Solutions Latest

Update 2025-Assured success Version B This is a closed-book examination. Collaboration, of the use of books, notes, of handouts, is not allowed. Please turn off and put away all cell phones, pagers, and other electronic devices. The exams will be collected at 9:50 AM. If you finish the exam early, you may leave the room quietly. This exam consists of 45 multiple choice questions. Select the best answer to each question and enter your answer on a pink Scranton form. Be sure to indicate on the Scranton form whether you have version A , B , or C of the exam. If you make a mistake, be careful to erase the mistake completely. All questions are worth 2 points unless otherwise indicated.

  1. What is the purpose of cellular respiration? (3 points) a. To use energy obtained from the breakdown of sugar to synthesize ATP b. To use energy obtained from the breakdown of proteins to synthesize Acetyl CoA c. To use energy obtained from light to synthesize organic molecules d. To use energy obtained from Acetyl CoA metabolism to synthesize NADPH
  2. Fatty acids are degraded during beta oxidation to form many molecules of ____________. a. glucose-1-phosphate b. pyruvate c. acetyl-CoA d. oxaloacetate
  3. For each molecule of glucose converted to pyruvate in glycolysis, ____ molecules of ATP are used during the energy investment phase and _____ molecules of ATP are produced during the energy generation phase for a net gain of ____ ATP. (3 points) a. 4, 2, 4 b. 2, 4, 2 c. 4, 2, 2 d. 2, 2, 4
  1. In a eukaryotic cell, where does the citric acid cycle occur? a. Cytosol b. Inner mitochondrial membrane c. Intermembrane space d. Mitochondrial matrix
  2. What happens to pyruvate in the presence of oxygen in muscle cells? a. It enters the mitochondrial matrix and is converted to acetyl CoA b. It remains in the cytosol and is converted to lactate c. It remains in the cytosol and is converted to ethanol d. It enters the mitochondrial matrix and combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following reaction:
  3. Which enzyme catalyzes this reaction? (3 points) a. Phosphofructokinase b. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase c. Phosphoglycerate kinase d. Phosphoglycerate mutate
  4. How is ATP produced during glycolysis? a. Oxidative phosphorylation

b. Photophosphorylation c. Indirect phosphorylation d. Substrate-level phosphorylation

  1. How much ATP is produced if glucose is broken down using glycolysis followed by alcohol fermentation? a. 38 b. 36 c. 2 d. 0
  2. What is Molecule A in the reaction shown below? (3 points) a. 2-phosphoglycerate b. Phosphoenolpyruvate c. Pyruvate d. Dihydroxyacetone Phosphate Questions 10-11 refer to the following reaction: Molecule A
  3. What is Molecule A in the reaction above? a. Citrate Molecule A Molecule B

b. Is citrate c. Oxaloacetate d. α-Ketoglutarate

  1. What happens to the NADH that is produced during the reaction shown above? a. It goes through fermentation in order to regenerate NAD+ b. It delivers high energy electrons to the electron transport chain c. It is used as an energy source for the next reaction in this pathway d. It delivers high energy electrons to photosystem II
  2. In the first step of the citric acid cycle, which molecule combines with the carbons from Acetyl CoA to form citrate? a. Fumigate b. Malate c. Oxaloacetate d. Succinate
  3. What are the two processes that make up oxidative phosphorylation? a. Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle b. Beta-oxidation and photosynthesis c. Lactic Acid Fermentation and Ethanol Fermentation d. Chemiosmosis and the electron transport chain
  4. During chemiosmosis in chloroplasts, where is ATP made? a. Stromal b. Matrix c. Intermembrane Space d. Thylakoid Lumen

Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following figure: b. Glycolysis c. Dark reactions of photosynthesis d. Oxidative phosphorylation

  1. What molecule is represented by ‘A’ in the figure above? a. NADPH b. NADH c. FADH d. H 2 O
  2. Below show the components of the electron transport chain. Put them in the proper order from first to last.
    1. Cytochrome-C Reeducates
    2. Cytochrome-C Oxidase
    3. Ubiquinone
    4. NADH Dehydrogenase
    5. Cytochrome C
  3. What process is shown in the figure above? A. Light reactions of photosynthesis

H

+ H+

H

A

B

H

C

a. 1,2,3,4, b. 1,3,5,2, c. 4,3,1,5, d. 4,3,2,5,

  1. What is the purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis? (3 points) a. Harness light energy to form ATP and NADPH b. Oxidize glucose to form ATP c. Use Chemiosmosis to form NADPH d. To make plants green
  2. Which one of the following statements accurately describes a difference between FADH2 and NADH? a. NADH carries energy in the form of high energy electrons, FADH2 carries energy in the form of a high energy phosphate bond b. In the electron transport chain, electrons from NADH are used to pump protons 3 times while electrons from FADH2 are used to pump protons only twice. c. Energy from NADH is used to generate GTP while energy from FADH2 is used to generate ATP. d. There is no difference. FADH2 and NADH is the same thing.
  3. True or False: Because they have chloroplasts for energy production, plant cells lack mitochondria. a. True b. False
  4. What is the final electron acceptor during the light reactions of photosynthesis? a. NADH b. O 2 c. NADP

d. H 2 O

  1. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding cyclic photophosphorylation? a. Only PS I is used in order to generate NADPH b. Only PS I is used in order to generate ATP c. Only PS II is used in order to generate NADPH d. Only PS II is used in order to generate ATP
  2. In C3 plants, which enzyme initially fixes carbon from CO 2 into an organic molecule? (3 points) a. Rubicon b. PEP Carboxylase c. Pyruvate Kinase d. Rub
  3. What is produced during the CO 2 fixation phase of the Calvin Cycle? a. ATP b. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate c. 3-phosphoglycerate d. NADPH
  4. What is the process by which plants incorporate oxygen (O 2 ) into organic molecules, releasing CO 2 as a byproduct? a. Photorespiration b. Photophosphorylation c. Photo transduction d. Photolysis
  1. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding C4 plants? a. They only open their stomata at night b. They incorporate CO 2 from the atmosphere directly into 3- phosphoglycerate c. They incorporate CO 2 from the atmosphere directly into malic acid d. They are better at water conservation than CAM plants
  2. The cytoskeleton includes all of the following except: (3 points) a. microtubules b. myosin filaments c. intermediate filaments d. actin filaments
  3. When we pinch/pull our skin and it doesn't tear, who should we thank? a. Microtubules b. Actin filaments c. Intermediate filaments d. Myosin filaments
  4. In animal cells, microtubule organizing centers (MTOCs) usually generate__________. a. Both microtubules and actin filaments. b. New actin filaments with the - ends closest to the MTOC. c. New microtubules with the + ends closest to the MTOC. d. New microtubules with the - ends closest to the MTOC.
  5. The physical movement of an animal cell like an amoeba is accomplished primarily by the use of __________. a. cilia

b. actin filaments c. intermediate filaments d. contractile vacuoles

  1. Microtubules rapidly switch back and forth between polymerization and DE polymerization. This process is known as: a. Tread milling b. Catastrophe c. Rescue d. Dynamic instability
  2. What is the primary energy source for the movement of “cargo” along a cytoskeletal element by motor proteins such as kinesis? a. ATP b. GTP c. CTP d. UTP Questions 33-34 refer to the following figure:
  3. What type of structure is shown in the figure above? a. Microtubules b. Myosin filaments c. Intermediate filaments

d. Actin filaments

  1. Polymerization of the filament shown above requires _______. a. ATP b. GTP c. ADP d. GDP
  2. In muscle cells, what would be a likely effect if the Ca 2+ binding site of troponin were mutated so that it could no longer bind Ca 2+ ? a. Tropomyosin would be degraded b. Cells would be unable to hydrolyze ATP c. Myosin would not be able to bind actin filaments d. Actin filaments would be stabilized
  3. What needs to happen for the cyclin-Cdk complex to become fully active? a. A protein phosphatase needs to remove the inhibitory phosphate group on the complex. b. A protein phosphatase needs to remove the activating phosphate on the complex. c. The complex is active as soon as the DC and cycling bind to each other. d. Ubiquitin is added to the cycling protein.
  4. Levels of DC activity change during the cell cycle, in part because ________________. (3 points) a. the Cakes phosphorylates each other. b. The Cakes activate the cycling. c. DC degradation precedes entry into the next phase of the cell cycle. d. Cycling levels change during the cycle.
  1. When does chromosome replication occur? (3 points) a. G1 phase of interphase b. S phase of interphase c. G2 phase of interphase d. M phase
  2. Which phase of the cell cycle is indicated by figure ‘ A ’ below? (3 points) a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase
  3. What would be the most obvious outcome of repeated cell cycles consisting of S phase and M phase only? a. Cells would not be able to replicate their DNA. b. The cells produced would get smaller and smaller. c. Cells would get larger and larger. d. The mitotic spindle could not assemble.
  1. Most fully differentiated cells enter a non-dividing or resting state called _________? a. G0 phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. S phase
  2. The G1 DNA damage checkpoint ________________. a. Causes cells to proceed through S phase more quickly. b. Involves the inhibition of cycling–DC complexes by p21. c. Involves the degradation of p53. d. Is activated by errors caused during DNA replication.
  3. Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that necrosis ________________. a. Requires the reception of an extracellular signal. b. Causes DNA to fragment. c. Causes cells to swell and burst, whereas apoptotic cells shrink and condense. D. involves a capsize cascade.
  4. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the intrinsic apoptosis pathway? a. It involves release of cytochrome C from mitochondria b. It is activated by external death ligands produced by immune cells c. It requires the function of Bcl2 family proteins d. It leads to activation of initiator capsizes
  5. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are molecules found in the cell walls of certain bacteria. LPS is detected by macrophage cells in the immune system and this leads to proliferation of the macrophage cells. In this example, what is the classification of LPS? a. LPS is a mitogen b. LPS is a growth factor

c. LPS is a survival factor d. LPS is a hormone Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)