Biochemistry Concepts and Reactions, Exams of Physical Chemistry

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CHM 130 Final Exam Study Guide with Questions

and Answers.

The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that ________. A) lowers the energy of the products B) lowers the energy of the substrate C) changes the concentration of the substrate D) lowers the activation energy for the reaction E) changes the possible product formed - ANS lowers the activation energy for the reaction In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site ________. A) stays the same shape during substrate binding B) adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate C) stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate D) uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate E) uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate - ANS adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate A noncompetitive inhibitor ________. A) binds at the active site of the enzyme B) alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme C) increases the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction D) has a structure similar to the substrate E) has its effect reversed by adding more substrate - ANS alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme Which of the following is not true for a competitive inhibitor? A) It occupies the active site. B) It cannot be converted to products. C) It has a structure similar to the substrate. D) Increasing the substrate concentration can reverse competitive inhibition. E) It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site. - ANS It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site. The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the ________ step in enzyme action. A) first B) second C) third

D) fourth E) last - ANS first

309. The presence of enzymes to catalyze bioreactions in our bodies allows ________. A) us to eat non-nutritious substances without consequence B) the activation energy of a reaction to be raised C) the rate of a desired chemical reaction to slow down D) bioreactions to occur under extreme conditions of temperature and pH E) bioreactions to take place under mild conditions - ANS bioreactions to take place under mild conditions
310. The names of many enzymes can be recognized by the suffix ________. A) ate B) ite C) ose D) ine E) ase - ANS ase
311. The general function of an enzyme in the body is to ________. A) catalyze chemical reactions B) maintain a neutral pH C) act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage D) maintain homeostasis E) eliminate waste products from the blood - ANS catalyze chemical reactions
312. Heavy metals denature proteins by ________. A) releasing amino acids B) disrupting hydrophobic interactions C) changing the pH of the protein solution D) changing the temperature of the protein solution E) disrupting disulfide bonds - ANS disrupting disulfide bonds
313. The structure of collagen consists of ________. A) single α-helix strands B) double α-helix strands C) many α-helixes wound into fibrils D) a braided triple helix E) many glycoside links - ANS a braided triple helix
314. What kinds of interactions are not part of tertiary protein structure?

A) peptide bonds B) disulfide bonds C) hydrophilic interactions D) salt bridges E) hydrophobic interactions - ANS peptide bonds

302. Which of the following is a secondary protein structure? A) α-helix B) Ser-Met-Ala-Gly-Ile C) disulfide bond D) salt bridges E) hydrophobic interactions - ANS α-helix
303. The attractive forces that are important in the secondary structure of a protein are ________. A) hydrogen bonds B) hydrophobic interactions C) disulfide bonds D) salt bridges E) peptide bonds - ANS hydrogen bonds
304. In insulin, two peptide chains are held together in a single unit by ________. A) disulfide bridges B) hydrogen bonds C) salt bridges D) a prosthetic group E) a β-pleated sheet - ANS disulfide bridges
305. In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the C-terminus is ________. A) alanine B) phenylalanine C) tryptophan D) aspartate E) glycine - ANS phenylalanine
306. In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the N-terminus is ________. A) alanine B) phenylalanine C) tryptophan D) aspartate E) glycine - ANS alanine
307. The peptide bonds that link amino acids in a protein are ________.

A) ester bonds B) ether bonds C) amide bonds D) glycosidic bonds E) sulfide bonds - ANS amide bonds

295. The side chain for valine is classified as a ________ side chain. A) basic B) neutral C) acidic D) nonpolar E) polar - ANS nonpolar
296. The side chain for histidine is classified as a ________ side chain. A) basic B) neutral C) acidic D) nonpolar E) polar - ANS basic
297. The structural formulas of amino acids are the same except for the ________. A) carboxylate group B) alpha carbon C) ammonium group D) R group E) hydrogen bonding - ANS R group
298. In the ionized form of an amino acid, the carboxylic acid end is ________. A) positively charged B) negatively charged C) neutral D) soluble in a nonpolar solvent E) attached to an amine - ANS negatively charged
299. Sucrase, the protein that facilitates the hydrolysis of sucrose, would be classified as a ________ protein. A) transport B) hormonal C) catalytic D) structural E) contractile - ANS catalytic

290. Collagen, a protein found in tendons and cartilage, would be classified as a ________ protein. A) catalytic B) structural C) transport D) storage E) hormone - ANS structural
291. The steroid hormone that increases the blood glucose and glycogen levels from fatty acids and amino acids is ________. A) aldosterone B) progesterone C) cortisone D) estrogen E) prednisone - ANS cortisone
292. The main lipid components in cellular membranes are ________. A) glycerolphospholipids B) fatty acids C) steroids D) triacylglycerols E) waxes - ANS glycerolphospholipids
293. Waxes are lipids derived from ________. A) a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid B) glycerol and three fatty acids C) glycerol, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol D) fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol E) steroids - ANS a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid
294. Compared to saturated fatty acids, unsaturated fatty acids have ________. A) longer carbon chains B) shorter carbon chains C) higher melting points D) lower melting points E) greater intermolecular attraction - ANS lower melting points
295. The skeletal structure of palmitoleic acid is shown below. Palmitoleic acid is a ________. A) saturated fatty acid B) polyunsaturated fatty acid C) monounsaturated fatty acid D) strong acid E) monosaturated fatty acid - ANS monounsaturated fatty acid
296. A polyunsaturated fatty acid contains more than one ________.

A) carboxyl group B) hydroxyl group C) carbonyl group D) long carbon chain E) carbon-carbon double bond - ANS carbon-carbon double bond

281. Cellulose is not digestible by humans because it contains glucose units linked by ________- glycosidic bonds. A) α-1, B) α-1, C) α-1, D) β-1, E) β-1,4 - ANS β-1,
282. Amylose is a ________. A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) trisaccharide D) polysaccharide E) phosphosaccharide - ANS polysaccharide
283. Maltose can be classified as a(n) ________. A) disaccharide B) polysaccharide C) ketose D) pentose E) tetrasaccharide - ANS disaccharide
284. In a disaccharide, two monosaccharides are joined by what kind of bond? A) double B) anomeric C) alcohol D) glycosidic E) rotational - ANS glycosidic
285. When glucose is reduced the product is ________. A) glucitol B) gluconic acid C) sucrose D) galactose E) maltose - ANS glucitol
286. When glucose is oxidized the product is ________. A) glucitol B) gluconic acid C) sucrose

D) galactose E) maltose - ANS gluconic acid

273. Galactose is a ________. A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) trisaccharide D) polysaccharide E) phosphosaccharide - ANS monosaccharide
274. Fructose does not undergo hydrolysis because it is a ________. A) aldose B) hexose C) reducing sugar D) monosaccharide E) disaccharide - ANS monosaccharide
275. The breakdown of glucose to chemical energy for the cells to do work is an example of ________. A) oxidation B) respiration C) reduction D) anabolism E) mutarotation - ANS oxidation
276. A monosaccharide that contains 6 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n) ________. A) aldopentose B) aldohexose C) ketopentose D) aldotetrose E) ketotetrose - ANS aldohexose
277. A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is in a ketone group, is classified as a(n) ________. A) aldotetrose B) aldopentose C) aldohexose D) ketotetrose E) ketopentose - ANS ketopentose
278. What kind of compound is urea? A) ester B) acid C) amide D) ketone

E) amine - ANS amide

265. To which chemical class does phenobarbital belong? A) ester B) amine C) amide D) alkane E) ether - ANS amide
266. Amides are derivatives of ________ and ________. A) amines, esters B) amines, carboxylic acids C) alkanes, amines D) carboxylic acids, alcohols E) alcohols, carboxylic acids - ANS amines, carboxylic acids
267. Nicotine, coniine, quinine, atropine, and morphine are all examples of ________. A) ethers B) esters C) carboxylic acids D) alkaloids E) amides - ANS alkaloids
268. In what form are amine-containing drugs often administered? A) free base B) sodium salt C) ammonium salt D) water solution E) oil solution - ANS ammonium salt
269. The odor of an amine can be neutralized with ________. A) water B) acids C) bases D) detergents E) solvents - ANS acids
270. Amines are ________. A) Brønsted-Lowry bases B) Brønsted-Lowry acids C) neutral in water solution D) unreactive E) acidic in water solution - ANS Brønsted-Lowry bases
271. What physiologically active amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms encountered in an allergic reaction?

A) histamine B) epinephrine C) diphenhydramine D) phenylephrine E) dopamine - ANS histamine

258. Aniline is a(n) ________. A) primary aromatic amine B) secondary aromatic amine C) heterocyclic amine D) aliphatic amine E) tertiary amine - ANS primary aromatic amine
259. Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are called ________. A) aromatics B) alkaloids C) esters D) polymers E) ethers - ANS alkaloids
260. What functional group is always found in alkaloids (such as caffeine, nicotine, and digitalis)? A) amide B) acid C) ether D) amine E) ester - ANS amine
261. The compound CH3-CH2-NH2 is classified as a ________. A) primary amine B) secondary amine C) tertiary amine D) quaternary amine E) hydrated amine - ANS primary amine
262. The common name of this compound is ________. A) ethylamine B) ethylethylamine C) diethylamine D) dimethylamine E) ethylmethylamine - ANS diethylamine
263. When this compound undergoes hydrolysis in acid, what product(s) are obtained? A) butanoic acid and ethanol B) butanoic acid

C) ethanol D) ethanoic acid and butanol E) butanoic acid and butanol - ANS butanoic acid and ethanol

250. What is the product of the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid when heated together under acidic conditions? A) an ether B) an ester C) a salt D) a ketone E) an aldehyde - ANS an ester
251. Many of the fragrances of flowers and the flavors of fruits are due to ________. A) ethers B) carboxylic acids C) esters D) amines E) amides - ANS esters
252. The neutralization of formic acid by NaOH produces ________. A) sodium formate as the only product B) formate ion and hydronium ion C) sodium formaldehyde D) methyl alcohol E) sodium formate and H2O - ANS sodium formaldehyde
253. Which carboxylic acid in the list below is an aromatic carboxylic acid? A) acetic acid B) benzoic acid C) butyric acid D) benzene E) citric acid - ANS benzoic acid
254. The functional group in acetic acid is called the ________. A) hydroxyl group B) aldehyde group C) carbonyl group D) carboxyl group E) ester group - ANS carboxyl group
255. Which of the following compounds would give a positive Tollens' test? A) methanol B) acetone C) diethyl ether D) phenol E) butanal - ANS butanal

243. An aldehyde forms a carboxylic acid by ________. A) oxidation B) reduction C) hydrolysis D) neutralization E) hydrogenation - ANS oxidation
244. The carbonyl group consists of ________. A) carbon-oxygen-hydrogen attached by single bonds B) carbon and oxygen attached by a single bond C) carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond D) carbon and oxygen attached by a triple bond E) a carbon-oxygen-carbon attached by single bonds - ANS carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond
245. Three functional groups found in this compound are ________. A) alcohol, aromatic, and ether B) alcohol, aldehyde, and ether C) alcohol, ether, and ketone D) aldehyde, ether, and carboxylic acid E) cycloalkene, alcohol, and carboxylic acid - ANS alcohol, ether, and ketone
246. The skeletal formula represents what type of alcohol? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) none - ANS tertiary
247. The skeletal formula represents what type of alcohol? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) none - ANS primary
248. What is the common name of this compound? A) cyclopentyl ethyl ether B) cyclopentyl ethyl ketone C) 1-cyclopropyl-1-ethylalcohol D) ethylcyclopentanol E) 3-cyclopentylethanol - ANS cyclopentyl ethyl ether
249. Thiols have structures similar to alcohols except that they contain ________. A) three alcohol groups

B) more than one carbon C) sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group D) lithium in place of oxygen in the functional group E) nitrogen in place of oxygen in the functional group - ANS sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group

234. A phenol has an -OH group bonded to a(n) ________. A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon B) disubstituted carbon C) trisubstituted carbon D) carbon. in a benzene ring E) tetrasubstituted carbon - ANS disubstituted carbon
235. The compound CH3CH2-SH is in the organic family known as ________. A) ethers B) thiols C) alcohols D) sulfides E) amino acids - ANS thiols
236. The reaction of an alkene and water in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce an alcohol is called ________. A) hydrolysis B) alkoholysis C) halogenation D) hydration E) hydrohydration - ANS hydration
237. The reaction of hydrogen (H2) and propene using a platinum catalyst is called ________. A) combustion B) substitution C) addition D) neutralization E) condensation - ANS addition
238. The compound 1-butyne contains ________. A) all single bonds B) a double bond C) a triple bond D) a ring structure E) a bromine atom - ANS a triple bond
239. What is the IUPAC name for the following compound? A) 4-chloro-4,5-dimethyl-2-hexene B) 3-chloro-1,3,4-trimethyl-1-pentene

C) 3-chloro-2,3-dimethyl-4-hexene D) 3-chloro-2,3,5-trimethyl-4-pentene E) 3-chloro-1,3,4,4-tetramethyl-1-butene - ANS 4-chloro-4,5-dimethyl-2-hexene

225. Alkenes and alkynes are called unsaturated compounds because ________. A) they have the maximum number of hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon in the compound B) they have fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes C) they have more hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes D) they have more carbon atoms than alkanes E) they have fewer carbon atoms than alkanes - ANS they have fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes
226. An alkyne is an organic compound that contains a ________ bond. A) single B) double C) triple D) aromatic E) hydrogen - ANS triple
227. An alkene is an organic compound that contains a ________ bond. A) single B) double C) triple D) aromatic E) hydrogen - ANS double
228. What is(are) the product(s) of the complete combustion of any hydrocarbon? A) CO only B) CO2 only C) CO + H2O D) CO2 + H2O E) H2O only - ANS CO2 + H2O
229. What is the name for a three-carbon saturated alkyl group? A) methyl B) ethyl C) propyl D) butyl E) pentyl - ANS propyl
230. What is the name for a two-carbon saturated alkyl group? A) methyl B) ethyl C) propyl D) butyl

E) pentyl - ANS ethyl

217. Structural isomers are molecules that share the same formula and have ________. A) a different shape to the molecule B) the same arrangement of atoms within the molecule C) a different arrangement of atoms within the molecule D) identical boiling points E) the same shape in each molecule - ANS a different arrangement of atoms within the molecule
218. Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are called ________. A) structural isomers B) isotopes C) indicators D) isozymes E) isometrics - ANS structural isomers
219. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound? CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2- CH(CH3)-CH A) heptane B) methylhexane C) 5-methylhexane D) 2-methylhexane E) 2-methylpentane - ANS 2-methylhexane
220. In a condensed structural formula, each carbon atom is ________. A) shown with all individual atoms and bonds drawn B) shown with only the other carbon atoms C) grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms D) not explicitly shown E) written in lowercase letters - ANS grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms
221. The simplest cycloalkane has ________. A) one carbon atom B) two carbon atoms C) three carbon atoms D) four carbon atoms E) five carbon atoms - ANS three carbon atoms
222. A cycloalkane ________. A) has two fewer carbon atoms than the corresponding alkane B) has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane C) contains -CH3 groups joined by single bonds D) always contains a three carbon ring

E) has no hydrogen atoms - ANS has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane

207. An organic compound composed of carbon and hydrogen connected only by single bonds is an ________. A) alkane B) alkene C) alkyne D) aromatic compound E) alcohol - ANS alkane
208. Iron-59 has a half-life of 44 days. A radioactive sample has an activity of 0.64 mBq. What isactivity of the sample after 88 days? A) 1.28 mBq B) 0.64 mBq C) 0.32 mBq D) 0.16 mBq E) 0080 mBq - ANS 0.16 mBq
209. Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 h. If 50.0 mg of I-123 were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Monday, how many mg remain at 10:00 A.M. on the following day? A) 50.0 mg B) 25.0 mg C) 12.5 mg D) 6.25 mg E) 3.13 mg - ANS 12.5 mg
210. What does the? represent in the bombardment equation of nitrogen-14? 14 7N +? → 14 6C + 1 1H A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray D) proton E) neutron - ANS neutron
211. Nitrogen-17 undergoes beta decay. What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay? A) 18 6C B) 13 5B C) 18 7N D) 13 9F E) 17 8O - ANS 17 8O
212. The product from the alpha decay of 235 92U is ________. A) 235 93Np

B) 239 94Pu C) 231 90Th D) 233 80Ra E) 236 92U - ANS 231 90Th

185. Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy? A) a-particles B) b-particles C) g-rays D) visible light E) All of these have the same energy - ANS g-rays
186. When hyperventilation (rapid breathing) causes a patient to exhale large amounts of , the blood pH rises in a condition called ________. A) metabolic acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory acidosis D) respiratory alkalosis E) pulmonary distress - ANS respiratory alkalosis
187. What is the name of the medical condition of an asthmatic patient with a blood pH of 7.30? A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis E) diabetes mellitus - ANS respiratory acidosis
188. Which of the following could be a buffer? A) NaF(aq) B) HF(aq) + NaF(aq) C) HF(aq) + H2O(l) D) NaF(aq) + H2O(l) E) NaCl(aq) + HF(aq) - ANS HF(aq) + NaF(aq)
189. In a buffer system of HF and its salt, NaF, ________. A) the HF neutralizes added acid B) the HF neutralizes added base C) the HF is not necessary D) the Fneutralizes added H2O E) the Fneutralizes added base - ANS the HF neutralizes added base
190. A 10.0 mL of 0.121 M H2SO4 is neutralized by 17.1 mL of KOH solution. The molarity of the KOH solution is ________. A) 0.207 M B) 0.414 M

C) 0.0708 M

D) 0.428 M

E) 0.142 M - ANS 0.142 M

172. When an acid reacts with a metal like Al, the products are ________. A) water and a base B) water and a salt C) water and carbon dioxide D) a salt and carbon dioxide E) a salt and hydrogen - ANS a salt and hydrogen
173. In a neutralization reaction ________. A) two acids react to form water B) water and a salt react to form an acid and a base C) an acid and a salt react to form water and a base D) a base and a salt react to form water and an acid E) an acid and a base react to form a salt and water - ANS an acid and a base react to form a salt and water
174. An acid and base react to form a salt and water in a(n) ________ reaction. A) ionization B) dissociation C) oxidation D) neutralization E) reduction - ANS neutralization
175. The [H3O + ] of a solution with pH = 2.0 is ________. A) 10 M B) -10 M C) 1.0 × 102 M D) 1.0 × 10-2 M E) 1.0 × 10-12 M - ANS 1.0 × 10-2 M
176. What is the pH of a solution with [OH- ] = 1.0 × 10-4 M? A) 10. B) -10. C) 4. D) -4. E) 1.0 × 10-10 - ANS 10.
177. What is the pH of a solution with [H3O + ] = 1.0 × 10-9 M? A) 1.0 × 10- B) -9.

C) 5.

D) -5.

E) 9.0 - ANS 5.

166. What is the [OH- ] in a solution that has a [H3O + ] = 1.0 × 10-6 M? A) 1.0 × 10-2 M B) 1.0 × 10-6 M C) 1.0 × 10-8 M D) 1.0 × 10-10 M E) 1.0 × 10-12 M - ANS 1.0 × 10-6 M
167. What is the [H3O + ] in a solution with [OH- ] = 1.0 × 10-12 M? A) 1.0 × 10-12 M B) 1.0 × 102 M C) 1.0 × 10-7 M D) 1.0 × 10-8 M E) 1.0 × 10-2 M - ANS 1.0 × 10-2 M
168. For , the product of [H3O + ] and [OH- ] is ________. A) 1.0 × 10- B) 1.0 × 10- C) 1.0 × 10- D) 1. E) 1.0 × 1014 - ANS 1.0 × 10-
169. Which of the following statements correctly describes the hydronium-hydroxide balance in the given solution? A) In acids, [OH- ] is greater than [H3O + ]. B) In bases, [OH- ] = [H3O + ]. C) In neutral solutions, [H3O + ] = [H2O]. D) In bases, [OH- ] is greater than [H3O + ]. E) In bases, [OH- ] is less than [H3O + ]. - ANS In bases, [OH- ] is greater than [H3O

• ].

158. The correct formula for sulfuric acid is ________. A) H2SO B) H2SO C) H2SO4 - D) H2SO4 - E) SO4 2- - ANS H2SO
159. According to the Arrhenius concept, if HNO3 were dissolved in water, it would act as ________. A) a base

B) an acid C) a source of hydroxide ions D) a source of H- ions E) a proton acceptor - ANS an acid

153. Which solution is isotonic to a red blood cell? A) water B) 0.5% NaCl C) 2% glucose D) 0.9% NaCl E) 10% glucose - ANS 10% glucose
154. A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base and a sugar. A) nucleoside B) base pair C) nucleotide D) complementary base E) pyrimidine - ANS nucleoside
155. A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a sugar, and a phosphate group. A) nucleoside B) base pair C) nucleotide D) complementary base E) purine - ANS nucleotide
156. Which of the following will not be found in DNA? A) adenine B) thymine C) guanine D) cytosine E) ribose - ANS ribose
157. Which of the following can be found in DNA? A) ribose B) GMP C) uracil D) deoxyadenosine E) FMN - ANS deoxyadenosine
158. The interactions that link the nucleotides in a nucleic acid are ________. A) ionic bonds B) peptide bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) hydrophobic bonds

E) phosphodiester bonds - ANS phosphodiester bonds

325. The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix are ________. A) ionic bonds B) peptide bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) hydrophobic interactions E) ester bonds - ANS hydrogen bonds
326. The two new DNA molecules formed in replication ________. A) are different from the original DNA B) both contain only two new daughter DNA strands C) both contain only the parent DNA strands D) contain one parent and one daughter strand E) are identical, with one containing both parent strands, and the other containing both daughter - ANS both contain only the parent DNA strands
327. What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds, and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand? A) transcription B) complementation C) translation D) replication E) restriction - ANS replication
328. Which of the following types of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes? A) mRNA B) histone RNA C) rRNA D) tRNA E) sRNA - ANS mRNA
329. In transcription, ________. A) the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA B) a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced C) uracil pairs with thymine D) both strands of the DNA are copied E) the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA - ANS the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA
330. Codons are base pair sequences that ________. A) signal the start of DNA synthesis B) signal the end of DNA synthesis C) code for amino acids D) signal the start of RNA synthesis

E) code for one or more bases in mRNA - ANS code for amino acids

336. The codon is found on ________, and the anticodon is found on ________. A) mRNA, tRNA B) tRNA, mRNA C) rRNA, tRNA D) ribosomes, tRNA E) mRNA, rRNA - ANS mRNA, tRNA
337. During protein synthesis, the codon for an amino acid is found on ________. A) DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) sRNA - ANS mRNA
338. The anticodon of UAG is ________. A) ATC B) UAG C) AAC D) AUC E) GAU - ANS AUC
339. Translation is the process whereby ________. A) DNA is synthesized from DNA B) DNA is synthesized from mRNA C) protein is synthesized from DNA D) protein is synthesized from mRNA E) mRNA is synthesized from DNA - ANS protein is synthesized from mRNA
340. What tripeptide is coded for by the following mRNA sequence? UUU AGA CCA A) Phe-Pro-Arg B) Pro-Arg-Phe C) Phe-Arg-Pro D) Leu-Pro-Arg E) Phe-Thr-Pro - ANS Phe-Arg-Pro
341. Mutations are the result of ________. A) alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone B) exposure to water in utero C) physical trauma in the mother's childhood D) alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone E) alterations in the DNA base sequence - ANS alterations in the DNA base sequence
342. A mutation which occurs when one base in a DNA sequence replaces another, is called a ________. A) deletion mutation

B) insertion mutation C) substitution mutation D) translocation mutation E) viral mutation - ANS substitution mutation

345. The reactions by which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones for the body's use are ________. A) transmission reactions B) catabolic reactions C) anabolic reactions D) glucogenesis E) gluconeogenesis - ANS catabolic reactions
346. The reactions by which complex molecules are built up for the body's use are ________. A) transmission reactions B) catabolic reactions C) anabolic reactions D) glucogenesis E) gluconeogenesis - ANS anabolic reactions
347. Overall, catabolic reactions ________. A) release energy B) take in energy C) occur mainly in the liver D) occur outside the cell membrane E) take place in the nucleus of the cell - ANS release energy
348. Anabolic reactions are reactions that ________. A) use oxidation but not reduction B) break down large molecules into smaller ones C) take place in the mitochondria D) require energy E) give off energy - ANS require energy
349. The first stage of catabolism is ________. A) the citric acid cycle B) production of pyruvate C) production of acetyl-CoA D) buildup of macromolecules from monomers E) digestion of large molecules - ANS digestion of large molecules
350. How many main stages of catabolism are there? A) one B) two C) three

D) four E) five - ANS three

351. The main compound used to release energy for metabolism is ________. A) sucrose B) glucose phosphate C) adenosine triphosphate D) ribonucleic acid E) NA - ANS adenosine triphosphate
352. The components of ATP are ________. A) adenosine, ribose, and three phosphate groups B) aniline and three phosphate groups C) alanine, ribose, and three phosphate groups D) adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups E) adenosine, deoxyribose, and three phosphate groups - ANS adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
353. Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the ________. A) mouth B) stomach C) pancreas D) small intestine E) large intestine - ANS mouth
354. An enzyme that can facilitate the breakdown of amylose into smaller units is ________. A) glucose phosphatase B) alcohol dehydrogenase C) amylase D) lactase E) maltase - ANS amylase
355. The digestion of protein begins in the ________. A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine E) pancreas - ANS stomach
356. The digestion of fats begins in the ________. A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) gall bladder E) large intestine - ANS small intestine

357. The digestion of fats begins when the fat globules are ________. A) emulsified by bile salts B) attacked by protease enzymes to form smaller fat globules C) converted to lipoproteins for greater solubility D) hydrolyzed to glucose and amino acids E) hydrolyzed to glycerol and fatty acids - ANS emulsified by bile salts
358. The enzymes that break down triacylglycerols into fatty acids and glycerol are called ________. A) lyases B) aconitases C) lipases D) hydrolases E) oxidoreductases - ANS lyases
359. In the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted to ________. A) pyruvate B) citrate C) sucrose D) oxaloacetate E) ribose - ANS pyruvate
360. The overall process of glycolysis ________. A) requires oxygen B) uses up 4 ATP molecules C) requires acetyl-CoA D) is an anabolic pathway E) produces 2 ATP molecules - ANS produces 2 ATP molecules
361. Under anaerobic conditions, lactate is produced from ________. A) acetyl-CoA B) pyruvate C) ATP D) carbon dioxide E) NA - ANS pyruvate
362. In order to enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is first converted to ________. A) lactate B) acetaldehyde C) citrate D) acetyl-CoA E) ethanol - ANS acetyl-CoA
363. The citric acid cycle is used in the oxidation of ________. A) glucose only

B) glucose and fatty acids only C) fatty acids only D) glucose, fatty acids, and proteins E) proteins only - ANS glucose, fatty acids, and proteins

366. When combined with electron transport, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________ ATP. A) 20 B) 12 C) 10 D) 14 E) 2 - ANS 10
367. The complete oxidation of glucose produces ________ ATP molecules. A) 2 B) 8 C) 12 D) 24 E) 32 - ANS 32
368. The series of reactions that produce energy by hydrolyzing fats to units of acetyl- CoA is called ________. A) transamination B) β-oxidation C) hydration D) hydrolysis E) β-reduction - ANS β-oxidation
369. In mammals, the ammonium ion produced in oxidative deamination is ________. A) excreted in the feces B) stored in the liver C) converted to uric acid, which is excreted in the urine D) converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine E) converted to uric acid, which is excreted by the liver - ANS converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine