BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE, Exams of Nursing

Download BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! D. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ Exams 1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell. 3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules* *A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct. 1. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? 20 2. Define an essential amino acid. An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the environment through alternative sources (i.e) food. 1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid RNA- Ribonucleic acid DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the characteristics of living BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ Lithotroph 4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate. 1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC). 2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. 3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+ 4. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) 5. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP. False. Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+ 1. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ A. NAD+ B. FAD BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ enclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. 2. True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. True BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 3. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO2 D. NADPH E. H2O A and D. 1. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? The process of converting light energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane. 2. True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. False. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. 1. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six. 2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. CO2 + ATP + NADPH + H20 → C6H12O6 + ADP + NADP+ 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 → C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ 1. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H 2. A-B→ B-A BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ C- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerases 1D 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H Hydrolases 2F 2. A-B→ B-A Isomerases 3E 3. A + B → A-B Ligases 4A 4. A-B → A + B Lyases 1. A micrometer is defined as A. 10-3 B. 10-6 C.10-9 D. 10-12 B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter. 2. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer. False. A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer. 1. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast). 1. Assuming a fixed ocular, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to enhance the magnification of a sample. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ A. Objective B. Condenser C. Iris diaphragm D. Eye piece BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ Phase-Contrast 3. This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ False. LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes without restriction. 2. What is agar used for in microbiology? Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow. 1. Match the following hemolytic class with its description of activity. 1. Alpha hemolysis B A. No hemolytic activity 2. Beta hemolysis C B. Incomplete hemolytic activity 3. Gamma hemolysis A C. Complete hemolytic activity BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 1. Columbia CNA agar is most closely related to which media: A. Trypticase Soy Agar B. MacConkey Agar C. Blood agar D. EMB agar C. CNA agar is similar to BAP as it is also enriched with blood and allows for differentiation based on hemolytic patterns. 2. True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media. False. Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of ‘cooked’ (lysed) red blood cells in the media. 3. A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the researcher can’t remember if E. coli is Gram-Positive or Gram-Negative. Would a Gram stain be necessary to confirm? Why or why not? No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only Gram-Negative microbes will grow on MacConkey agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Negative microbe. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 1. In an attempt to detect the presence of the pathogenic strain of E. coli O157:H7, a researcher spread a culture onto a MacConkey agar with failed results. What type of agar should they (correctly) try next? Why? The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol-MacConkey agar) as it is specifically formulated to detect O157:H7. Pathogenic E. coli (O157:H7) cannot ferment sorbitol while non-pathogenic E. coli can ferment both soribitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be differentiated from non-fermenters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic). 1. In Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar, what color indicates the presence of E. coli? Metallic Green. 2. Which type of agar media is best suited to support the growth of Staphylococcus? A. MacConkey agar B. Blood agar C. Columbia CNA agar D. Mannitol salt agar E. Chocolate agar. D. Mannitol salt agar 1. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish? Plating. 2. Describe the primary advantage of using a petri dish over growing a liquid culture? The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies. 3. True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have multiplied ~2-3 times. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ True. The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure) bacterial sample can be isolated. 2. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy? A quadrant (aka phase-dilution) streak. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies. 3. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4. 1. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase. True. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions. 2. In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak? A researcher may either (1) opt to perform only a 3-phase dilution streak or (2) pass the loop through the previous phase multiple times (as opposed to only once). 3. True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. True. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth. When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why? A. MSA agar B. LB media containing ampicillin and neomycin C. MacConkey agar BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ D. Blood agar BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ D. Blood agar. All other options (A, B and C) are all forms of selective media, meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. Although blood agar is considered a differential media, it is, most importantly, a non-selective media. Given the alternatives, this is the best option. 1. The concept of treating all samples, whether known or unknown, as potentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials is known as . Universal precautions. 2. List at least 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sample. A lab researcher would be certain to note: 1. Size and shape 2. Any observable motility 3. Gram status (positive or negative) 4. The presence of any chemical reactions 5. Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media 6. Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above 1. While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why? You must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motility requires a wet mount, while Gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. If one were to begin with the Gram stain the heat fixation process would kill the organism, making any observations regarding motility impossible. The correct approach would be to place the liquid culture on a glass slide and determine its motility status. Next, the same liquid culture can be heat fixed and Gram stained. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ D. Strep. Pharyngitis; alpha C. Strep throat (also known as strep. Pharyngitis) can lead to Rheumatic fever if left untreated. Strep. Pharyngitis displays beta-hemolytic activity. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 1. True or False. Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~30% of human population where it remains pathogenic. False. While staphylococcus can be found in ~30% of the human population, it remains non-symptomatic. False. While staphylococcus can be found in ~30% of the human population, it remains non-symptomatic. 2. When a bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients, it is referred to as being . Commensal. 3. In order to differential screen staphylococcus species, agar plates should contain what additive? Bile salts. Staphylococcus species are capable of growth in the presence of bile salts. 1. Match the following symptoms with their respective diseases: 1. Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose C A. Folliculitis 2. Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue D B. Scalded-skin syndrome 3. Infection occurs at time of birth E C. Impetigo 4. Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair A D. Conjunctivitis 5. Ruptured pustules; treated with Penicillin B E. Ophthalmia Neonatorum BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 2. True or False. Staphylococcus is the only causative agent of conjunctivitis. False. There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of the conjunctiva and ‘pink eye.’ 1. True or False. Tuberculosis is best identified by a Gram stain. False. Mycobacterium show poor Gram staining and show be screened via an acid-fast stain. 2. True or False. You can become infected with TB simply by sharing a drink with someone who is currently infected with TB. False. As per the Center for Disease Control (CDC) guidelines, simply shaking someone's hand, sharing a drink or even kissing cannot spread TB. 3. Identify the disease based on the following (select all that apply): It is a small, acid-fast rod usually remaining asymptomatic for up to 20 years. It affects the skin, nerves, upper respiratory tract and eyes of infected individuals. A. Tuberculosis B. Leprosy C. Scalded-skin syndrome D. Hansen’s disease E. Bacterial conjunctivitis B and D. Hansen’s disease is simply another name for Leprosy. Leprosy is characterized by its ability to remain dormant for up to 20 years as well as the effects observed relative to the patients skin, nerves, lungs and eyes. 1. True or False. Directly ingesting clostridium or its associated spores will not cause illness in adults. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ A. Tetanus B. Anthrax C. Gas gangrene D. Frost bite B. Anthrax—the distinct black center at the site of infection is a hallmark of anthrax infection. 2. Gonnorrhea is caused by: A. Diplococcic bacteria B. Staphylococcus bacteria C. Gram-Negative spirochete D. RNA virus A. Diplococcic bacteria. 3. True or False. Chlamydia trachomatis can be grown on an agar plate alone. False. Chlyamdia is an obligate parasite and requires a host (viable cells) for its growth. 4. Match the following diseases with their respective symptoms if left untreated: Gonorrhea C Syphilis BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ A Chlamydia E A. Paralysis, blindness and dementia B. Painfully swollen lymph nodes C. Cardiac and neurological complications BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 2. Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a description of each step. Uncoating: Release: Replication: Attachment: Entry: New infection: 3- Uncoating: the viral capsid disassembles 5-Release: New virus particles are produced and leave the cell 4-Replication: the viral genome is the ‘blueprint’ to make copies of itself 1-Attachment: viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell 2-Entry: the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell 6-New infection: newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells. 1. A virus that infects bacteria is called a and contains a -side polygon capsid. Bacteriophage; 20-sided 2. True or False. Structurally, bacteriophages are similar to viruses that infect animals. False. Bacteriophages have a distinct composition and structure. 3. Identify the following components of a bacteriophage. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 1-Capsid (or Head) 2-Collar 3- Tail (sheath) BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ E. Measles, mumps and rubella can all be spread via airborne particles formed while coughing, sneezing, etc. 2. True or False. A patient infected with Rubella is considered infectious one week before and after the appearance of the trademark rash. True 3. Which of the following diseases does a linear, double-stranded DNA virus cause? A. Measles B. Mumps C. Rubella D. B and C E. None of the above E. Measles, mumps and rubella are all linear, single-stranded RNA viruses 4. What disease displays as a secondary characteristic swelling of the testes/ovaries and pancreas? Mumps. A patient infected with mumps (aka epidemic parotitis) has primary swelling in the parotid (salivary glands) located in the neck but also may have secondary swelling in the testes/ovaries and pancreas. 5. A patient diagnosed with German measles may additionally experience what disease? Select all that apply. A. Impetigo B. Conjunctivitis C. Rheumatic fever D. Influenza-like symptoms B and D. A patient may experience a combination of symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms (influenza), cough, conjuctivitis, and a red blotchy skin rash. 1. Describe two ways chickenpox can be spread. Chickenpox is highly contagious and can be transmitted (1) through both air-borne droplets (sneezing/coughs) or via (2) direct contact with the blisters of an infected individual. BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ 2. True or False. The development of shingles is most often seen in an older adult population (> 60 years old). BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would be targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. Neuraminidase proteins are involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus not be the correct target. 2. Explain why the flu shot given each year may not be 100% effective at preventing the flu? It is possible to receive a flu vaccine and yet (unfortunately) still get the flu in the same season if you are exposed to a viral strain that was not included in the vaccine. There are a large number of variants and the flu vaccine is unable to vaccinate against all subtypes. Medical researchers predict and then distribute flu vaccines based current trends and the available data relative to the most common circulating strains. Unfortunately, this model is not always 100% accurate. 1. True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. False. The HIV capsid is conical (cone) shaped. 2. The HIV surface glycoprotein gp120 binds what host cellular receptor? A. CD3 B. CXCR4 C. CCR5 D. CD4 D. HIV gp120 binds to CD4. 3. An individual infected with HIV is placed on anti-retroviral medication. Describe how the medication will affect the virus. As the name suggests, anti-retrovirals are intended to inhibit (anti) the process of reverse-transcription (retro). Once the virus enters the cell and uncoating is complete, the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT) acts on the two RNA copies, creating a complementary DNA strand. Anti-retrovirals attempt to block this step. In the absence BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED 100% COMPLETE DI. PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWER GRADED A+ of anti-retroviral medications, the now double-stranded DNA is transported to the nucleus where it can integrate into the host genome and begin replicating. By inhibiting the process of RT, anti-retroviral medications effectively block the production of new viruses by preventing its integration and replication.