BIOD 152 A & P 2 Study Guide for Final Exam: Questions with Answers, Exams of Nursing

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PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 152 A & P 2

STUDY GUIDE for final exam Questions

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2024 GRADED A+

Identify the parts of the neuron shown in the diagram below

a.

dendrite

b.

.

cell body

c.

.

nucleus

List the four parts of the human brain

The human brain is made up of the cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, brain stem, and

cerebellum.

List and describe the 3 meninges of the human brain.

The leathery dura mater is the double-layered outer meninx.

The middle arachnoid meninx is a loose layer separated from the dura mater by the subdural

space.

.

Answer the following three questions:

What blood cell contains hemoglobin?

Red blood cells

The P wave represents what?

Atrial depolarization (systole)

Define Systole.

the heart is contracting and ejecting blood into circulation

List 3 functions of the female reproductive system.

The inner pia mater meninx is composed of connective tissue and is tightly attached to the brain 3

.

The female reproductive system has the following functions: eggs and estrogen production as

well as serving as the site for the development of a baby after fertilization of an egg occurs.

Name the three types of ligaments associated with the ovaries and the function of each.

The ovaries are held in place by the suspensory, ovarian, and broad ligaments.

The suspensory ligaments attach the ovaries to the pelvis wall.

The ovarian ligaments attach the ovaries to the uterus.

The broad ligaments hold the ovaries in place in the pelvis.

Tell whether each of the following describes mitosis or meiosis:

Occurs only to produce new offspring

meiosis

Two division cycles

meiosis

No crossing-over occurs

mitosis

Four daughter cells are produced

meiosis

Produces cells which are not genetically identical to the parent

meiosis

Each tRNA anticodon codes for one type of :

C

a. protein

b. ribosome

c. amino acid

d. enzyme

Does transcription or translation occur primarily at the ribosome?

Translation

Which requires RNA polymerase, transcription or translation?

Transcription

Are amino acids bonded together during translation or transcription?

Translation

If a codon reads: GAC, what is the correct anticodon?

CUG

Describe the shape, size and weight of a human adult kidney.

The adult kidney is bean shaped, about the size of a can of soup and weighs about 5 ounces.

Describe the structure and function of the renal pelvis.

The renal pelvis is the centermost section of the kidney and is a funnel-shaped tube that connects

to the ureter.

Extensions of the pelvis called calyces collect urine which drains into the renal pelvis and then

into the ureter.

You are treating a patient in the hospital who was admitted with signs of orthostatic hypotension

(decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, lightheaded) secondary to having severe diarrhea

and dehydration. Which of the following would you expect to be their GFR (glomerular filtration

rate) given their symptoms? Explain your answer.

a. 85 ml/min.

b. 120 ml/min.

c. 142 ml/min

a. 85 ml/min. Dehydration decreases glomerular filtration rate.

Explain, in detail, how the cardiovascular baroceptors work to maintain blood pressure.

The cardiovascular baroceptors monitor and regulate blood volume (which is influenced directly

by Na+ ion concentration) to maintain blood pressure. If blood volume (and consequently blood

pressure) rises, the baroceptors signal the kidney causing a dramatic increase in the filtration rate,

increasing the output of water and Na+ which reduces blood volume to quickly normalize the

pressure.

Explain, in detail, how the kidneys act to regulate pH by the excretion or reabsorption of

bicarbonate.

The major kidney acid-base regulating process is by way of excreting or reabsorbing bicarbonate

ion. Examination of the equilibrium equation sequence below will demonstrate that loss of a

bicarbonate (HCO3-) ion from the body amounts to the gain of H+ since the reactions will shift

to the right.

Conversely, gain of a bicarbonate (HCO3-) ion amounts to the loss of H+ since the reactions will

shift to the right. Thus, renal excretion of bicarbonate results in retention of H+, while

reabsorbing bicarbonate will result in excretion of H+.

Which nervous system contains the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions?

D

a. Central nervous system

b. Peripheral nervous system

c. Somatic nervous system

d. Autonomic nervous system

e. Sympathetic nervous system

f. Parasympathetic nervous system

If you were hiking in the woods and came across a mountain lion, which division of your

nervous system would have increased activity? Explain your answer.

The sympathetic nervous system would have increased activity as it is responsible for preparing

our bodies to respond to stressful situations.

This type of neuroglial cell allows fluid exchange between brain, spinal cord and cerebrospinal

fluid.

A

a. Ependymal cell

b. Oligodendrocyte

c. Astrocyte

d. Microglial cell

This type of neuron transmits impulses from the brain to the spinal cord.

F

a. Multipolar neuron

b. Bipolar neuron

c. Unipolar neuron

d. Sensory neuron

e. Motor neuron

f. Interneuron

True or False: A sensory neuron is signaling the body of EXTREME pain. This means that the

strength of the action potential is greater than usual.

False – there is no variation in the strength of action potentials. There is variation in the number

of neurons firing.

Describe what is occurring at the axon cell membrane during the phase described in section

4 of the diagram.

The potassium gates that open during repolarization are slow to close and there is generally

an afterpolarization undershoot of the potential.

he Glossopharyngeal nerve is one of the cranial nerves. What type of nerve is it and what does it

control?

The Glossopharyngeal nerve is a motor and sensory nerve which controls swallowing and taste.

The femoral nerve is one of spinal nerves. What is its function?

The femoral nerve supplies motor fibers to the hip flexors and knee extensors.

List the 3 parts of the diencephalon

The diencephalon is made up of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Describe the functions of the 4 lobes of the brain.

The frontal lobe controls motor functions.

The parietal lobe receives information from receptors located in the skin, such as those for touch,

pressure, and pain.

The occipital lobe interprets visual input.

The temporal lobe has sensory areas for hearing and smelling.

Explain in detail the taste process.

Food or drink sits on surface of the tongue activating taste buds. Chemical molecules are

dissolved into saliva. Taste receptors are stimulated by gustatory hairs. Sensory information is

sent to the brain along facial and glossopharyngeal nerves and impulses are sent to the thalamus

and parietal lobe.

Describe in detail the olfactory system.

Olfactory hairs form a thin layer mucous which covers the surface of the epithelium and airborne

chemical substances dissolve for detection.

One of your patients has suffered a stroke. You notice that their gait is very unsteady. It almost

appears as if they are intoxicated. What portion of the brain was most likely affected by the

stroke? Explain your answer.

The cerebellum was most like affected since it is responsible for coordinating body movements

and motor activities

If someone sustains an injury to the anterior spinal cord, would you be more likely to see

muscular weakness/paralysis or decreased sensation? Explain your answer.

You would be more likely to see muscular weakness because motor neurons exit the spinal cord

anteriorly.

Using the terms given below, put each of the following vessels and structures in the order in

which the blood travels through them from a capillary in the finger to the lungs to be oxygenated

and then back to a capillary in the finger.

Terms:

right ventricle, artery, vein, left ventricle, venule, right atrium, arteriole, left atrium, vena cava,

aorta, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, tricuspid valve, mitral valve, aortic valve, pulmonic

valve

Start Capillary in finger

1 venule

2 vein

3 vena cava

4 right atrium

5 tricuspid valve

6 right ventricle

7 pulmonic valve

8 pulmonary artery

Oxygenation Lungs

9 pulmonary vein

10 left atrium

11 mitral valve

12 left ventrical

13 aortic valve

14 aorta

15 artery

16 arteriole

Finish Capillary in finger

Which vessels actually feed the heart itself?

c

A. aorta

B. cardiac vessels

C. coronary arteries

D. vena cava

The electrical impulse that controls cardiac muscle contraction physically originates in:

Α

A. R atrium

B. L ventricle

C. Both ventricles

D. The septum

Which vessel should have the strongest pulse?

d

A. Artery in the finger

B. superior vena cava

C. vein in the leg

D. Artery in the neck

Three functions of the lymphatic system include:

take extra tissue fluid and returns it to the bloodstream

absorb fat and transport it to the bloodstream

defends against disease

What cavity in the thoracic cavity contains the heart?

pericardial cavity

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

A patient is suspected to have pulmonary edema due to heart failure. Which side of the heart

would be in failure? Explain your answer.

The left side of the heart would be in failure. When the left side of the heart can't pump blood out

into body tissue, blood and fluid will build up and flow back into the lungs.

A patient has a diagnosis of right sided heart failure. Which of the following signs/symptoms

would they most likely present with?

a. Shortness of breath at rest

b. Swollen ankles

c. All of the above

b

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

Explain the difference between plasma and serum.

serum lacks the clotting proteins that plasma contains

Which one of the following statements about blood vessel structure and function is false?

d

A. Veins are more compliant than arteries

B. The aorta and other large arteries serve as a “pump” for the circulatory system

C. Arterioles are small vessels whose resistance to blood flow can be varied

D. Arterioles, capillaries, and veins all have valves that allow only one-way flow of blood

Which WBC cell stains dark blue/purple?

basophils

A patient is experiencing pooling of blood in their lower legs due to venous insufficiency (a.k.a.

bad valves.) What is a physical exercise that they could do to help assist in increasing the blood

flow back to the heart? Explain your answer.

Ankle pumps, walking, or calf raises would be sufficient in order to use calf muscles to push

blood upward preventing back flow.

List the four major heart valves.

mitral

tricuspid

aortic

pulomnary

What is a sphygmomanometer used to measure?

blood pressure

The T wave represents what?

ventricular repolarization and diastole

Explain in detail why it may take longer for you to fight off the flu virus the first time this season

than it would if you caught the same strain a second time.

Once you have had the flu, your immune system will create memory B cells and produce the

antibodies to fight against the strain the next time you are exposed.

Which type of immune cell continues to produce a small amount of antibody after the infection is

over:

a. Killer T cells

b. memory T cells

c. memory B cells

d. cytokines

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

c

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

Interferon inhibits what type of infectious agent.

virus

Explain why antibodies are considered a specific immune response:

antibodies react with specific antigens or foreign molecules

How many chromosomes of what type are possessed by a female and a male?

Male = 1 x and 1 y chromosome

Female = 2 x chromosomes

Gender is determined by which parent's sex cell?

The fathers sperm cell

A pregnant woman is experiencing sudden sharp groin pain, based upon location of her

symptoms, which of the following ligaments is being affected?

a. Broad ligament

b. Uterosacral ligament

c. Round ligament

c

A breastfeeding mother becomes pregnant with another child. The pediatrician recommends that

she supplement her nursing child with formula. Explain why this recommendation was made.

Prolactin is necessary for milk production, which can be suppressed by estrogen and

progesterone levels. During pregnancy estrogen and progesterone levels increase which will

compromise her milk supple.

List the 3 sections of the fallopian tubes.

infundibulum

ampulla

isthmus

List the 3 coats of the fallopian tubes.

serous coat

middle muscular coat

inner mucousa coat

An older male patient reports to his doctor that he has recently been experiencing difficulty with

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

urination. What might the doctor suspect is the problem? Explain your answer given what you

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

know from the module in regards to the male anatomy.

The doctor may suspect that he is experiencing side effects of an enlarged prostate. The prostate

is located closely to the male urethra and when it is enlarged, it make urination more difficult.

2nd fetus begins to suck and blink

1st heart forms and begins to pump blood

3rd fat develops under the skin

When does pregnancy begin?

pregnancy begins once an egg has been fertilized by sperm and forms a zygote.

Explain, in detail, the fertilization of an egg by a sperm.

When in the oviducts, an egg releases a chemical which attracts sperm. Once sperm reach an

egg, sperm begins releasing enzymes to break the follicle cells around the egg. When the follicle

cells are broken apart, more sperm begin to release acrosomal enzymes in order to make a hole in

the egg membrane to allow a sperm to combine with the egg. Once the sperm has combined with

the egg, the eggs membrane begins a chemical change in prevention of other sperm being able to

penetrate.

Trace the path of sperm from their site of production to the outside of the body.

Production begins in the testes at the epdidymis. When mature, sperm is sent to vas deferens via

muscular contracitons. Vas deferens connects with seminal vesicle and forms the ejaculatory

duct. The ejaculatory duct connects to the urethra which allows sperm to exit the penis.

List and describe the location of the 3 sections of the male urethra.

prostatic = surround by prostate gland

membranous = begin at end of prostatic urethra and travels to penis

spongy = runs hrough penis and opens to the outside of the external offrise

What is the function of the placenta?

Since the umbilical cord connects to the placenta, the placentas job is to provide nutrition,

respiratory, and endocrine functions for the embryo.

Portage Learning / BIOD 152 A & P 2 study guide for final exam.

Why does sterility occur if the testes do not descend?

The testes have to be located outside of the body in order for sperm to be viable due to them

needing an environmental temperature lower than that of our normal body temperature.

Structure:

Sperm midpiece

l. Supplies locomotive energy for sperm

Vas deferens

a. Connects seminal vesicle to ejaculatory duct

Bulbourethral gland

h. Secretes urine-clearing mucus

Endoderm

c. Liver producing layer of blastocyst

Description:

a. Connects seminal vesicle to ejaculatory duct

b. Contains enzymes that break down egg membrane

c. Liver producing layer of blastocyst

d. Muscle producing layer of blastocyst

e. Runs through penis to external opening

f. Secretes alkaline fluid to increase sperm motility

g. Secretes fructose as part of semen

h. Secretes urine-clearing mucus

i. Skin producing layer of blastocyst

j. Sperm maturation site

k. Sperm-producing stem cells