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A final exam for BIOD 171 Portage Learning with correct answers. The exam covers topics related to Protista, cellular components, energy production, electron microscopy, dilution streaking, and medical conditions caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria. The exam also includes questions about identifying diseases and distinguishing between different types of bacteria. useful for students studying biology and microbiology.
Typology: Exams
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Correct! Algae Bacteria Correct! Amoeba Page 1 of 19
Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. Yeast
True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. Correct! True
False To produce energy (ATP) Correct! Protein synthesis Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. Lipid synthesis You Answered Protein modification and distribution
Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. Page 2 of 19
The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus D. Cell wall E. Plasma membrane F. Centriole G. Lysosome Correct! 1 C Page 3 of 19
Correct! 2 G Correct! 3 E Correct! 4 B Correct! 5 A The cell wall is also known as the 'outer membrane' and does not apply. A capsid is relative to a virus. The outer leaflet is only a partial description of the cell membrane. Outer leaflet Capsid Page 4 of 19
The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply): Correct! Cell envelope
Cell wall The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply): Correct Answer Protein modification and distribution To produce energy (ATP) Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes You Answered Lipid synthesis Protein synthesis Correct! False They are heterotropic. Page 5 of 19
True or False.All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. True
You Answered 2 ATP 4 ATP 34 ATP Correct! Nucleic acids Lactose Fatty acid chains Page 6 of 19
How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate? Correct Answer 1 ATP
In the absence of glucose, which of the followingcannot be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. Carbohydrates
Correct! False The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the catabolism of fatty acid chains. False You Answered H2O Page 7 of 19
True or False. The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fatty acid chains. True
True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. Correct! True
The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. You Answered CO
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Correct! NADPH Correct! ATP Your Answer: Its main function is to generate more energy in the form of ATP from the photons. Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. False Page 8 of 19
What is one of the main functions of light reactions?
True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. Correct! True
Even together, the LPS and thin peptidoglycan layer are unable to retain the crystal violet dye during decolorization. False
Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide. Your Answer: Ethanol or methanol. Any of the following are true: Paraformaldehyde, ethanol or methanol.
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Your Answer: Simple strain. We can use safranin or fuschin dye can be used. Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin. Page 9 of 19
True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless. Correct! True
You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. Your Answer: We would expect to see the red cells (TB+) on the blue background which is TB (negative). Useually red stain in the blue bacground confirms TB infection. You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative). Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites. False Page 10 of 19
True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. Correct! True
Your Answer: The image shown is captured by a TEM (Transmission Electron Microscope), Even the image 20nm is visible and its subcellular structure is also visible. The image lacks the outside "shell"as it can give 2D-images. The above image is captured via a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Even at 20nm resolution (inset image), subcellular substructures are still visible. The image lacks the outside ‘shell’ only appearance of SEM. True Page 11 of 19
Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.
True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population. You Answered
Correct Answer False
When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what? Your Answer: The dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should contain within the growth of indiviual colonies. We use back and forth motion to create growth. A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies.
In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? Your Answer: P4 (Phase 4) dilution will contain lowest concentration of bacteria compared to P2 (Phase 2). The order are as follows: P1> P2> P3> P4. The P4 zone bacteria are weakened , thinned and diluted and are found in isolated colonies. P4 (Phase 4) would contain the lowest concentration of bacteria. The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4. Page 12 of 19
True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase.
Correct! True Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions. False
The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? Your Answer: We can accepth the either deviation, provided the resulting gradient contains within the growth of individual colonies. If this is not seen than experiment will be repeated. Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be repeated. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth. False
Page 13 of 19
True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. Correct! True
When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?
True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. Correct! True The mature (adult) microbiota is capable of killing the bacteria/spores. False Page 14 of 19
True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus. Correct! True
Although the symptoms can be treated it is only to manage the discomfort not to cure. False Botulism Leprosy Correct! Gas gangrene The bacterium that produces the alpha toxin perfringolysin is aptly named Clostridium perfringens. True Correct! False Page 15 of 19
The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria? Tetanus
True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes.
Pneumonic plague targets the respiratory system while bubonic targets the lymph system. Gas gangrene Tetanus Correct! Anthrax Anthrax—the distinct black center at the site of infection is a hallmark of anthrax infection. True Page 16 of 19
Identify the following disease: Frost bite
True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone.
Correct! False An obligate parasite requires a host (viable cells) to be present for its growth. Correct! False False. Unlike chickenpox blisters, which can form anywhere, the blisters associated with shingles are localized and limited to small areas.
While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses? Your Answer: No. This disease causing virus had been eradicated since October 1977. Due to global vaccinnation effort, this disease is not active anymore. It is another name for small pox virus. We should not be worried travelling due to these virus. No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977. You would not need to worry about coming into contact with the virus. Page 17 of 19
True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body. True
Your Answer: It was developed by Jonas Salk. This was developed in Moscow, Russia. Jonas Salk and his research team developed the polio vaccine at the University of Pittsburgh in 1955.
A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? Your Answer: Hemagglutinin protein would be the targets as they are directly involved in viral attchment and entry into the host. Neuraminidase are involved in budding and release of new viral particles, so they will not be a target. Neuraminidase (N) proteins are directly involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus be the correct target. Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would not be advisable targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. You Answered Page 18 of 19
By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed?
True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. Correct Answer True
False
What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons? Your Answer: Polio or Poliomyelitis. It enters through the cental nervous system and replicate and damage the motor neurons. Polio, also known as poliomyelitis. Page 19 of 19