BIOL 319- COHN FULL EXAM WITH GUARANTEED ACCURATE ANSWERS, Exams of Biology

Download BIOL 319- COHN FULL EXAM WITH GUARANTEED ACCURATE ANSWERS and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity! BIOL 319- COHN FULL EXAM WITH GUARANTEED ACCURATE ANSWERS Anatomy definition - correct answer ✔✔is the study of the structures of the body. STRUCTURE Physiology definition - correct answer ✔✔is the study of the function of the body. FUNCTION Understand how anatomy and physiology are different subjects, but are "joined at the hip". - correct answer ✔✔You cannot have anatomy without physiology and vice versa Gross anatomy definition - correct answer ✔✔anatomy that you can study without the aid of a microscope. You can physically hold the structure in your hand and see it with the naked eye. subcategory or anatomy and it is the study of large body structures. Histology definition - correct answer ✔✔the study of tissues and it requires the use of light and electron microscopes in order to see the tissues structures. what is used to slice tissues in histology? - correct answer ✔✔microtome Regional anatomy definition - correct answer ✔✔"the body is studied area by area". used in most medical professions systemic anatomy defintion - correct answer ✔✔"the body is studied system by system". used in introductory classes like this one. What about blending the regional & systemic approaches? - correct answer ✔✔Within each region, all systems are studied simultaneously. Are regional and systemic approaches subcategories of gross? - correct answer ✔✔yes, regional is studying the body area by area. Systemic is studying the body system by system. How is our course an "integrative" approach? - correct answer ✔✔taking them and forming them together; Relating structure and function together. you can't study structure without function chemical level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔atoms combined to form molecules cellular level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔those molecules form organelles (such as nucleus & mitochondria) that make up cells in our body tissue level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔similar cells & surrounding material make up tissue (such as smooth muscle tissue) organ level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔different tissues combine to form organs, like the urinary bladder Organ definition - correct answer ✔✔structure that's composed of at least 2 tissues and has a specific function. Ex → urinary bladder has epithelial tissue (innermost), connective tissue (to provide rigidity), and smooth muscle tissue organ system level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔organs that serve the same end function (urinary bladder) make up organ system. Ex- Urinary system consists of the bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra and they all have a specific function to help excrete urine. organism level of A&P - correct answer ✔✔organ systems make up an organism Know the four major categories of macromolecules. Is this an oversimplification (hint: molecules in the extracellular matrix of bone)? - correct answer ✔✔Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids Carbohydrates - correct answer ✔✔"organic molecules composed primarily of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms and range in size from small to very large." most have a 2:1 ratio of carbon: hydrogen, like water. they are polar solvents. Hair Subcutaneous tissue Skeletal system function - correct answer ✔✔support and movement, protection, mineral storage, blood formation Skeletal system organs - correct answer ✔✔Bones Cartilage Ligaments Bone marrow muscular system function - correct answer ✔✔locomotion and heat production muscular system organs - correct answer ✔✔Muscles Tendons nervous system functions - correct answer ✔✔coordinates activities of other organ systems and responds to sensations nervous system organs - correct answer ✔✔Brain Spinal cord Nerves Eyes Ears endocrine system function - correct answer ✔✔regulates body functions by chemicals to maintain homeostasis endocrine system organs - correct answer ✔✔Pituitary gland Parathyroid gland Thyroid gland Adrenal gland Thymus Pancreas Gonads cardiovascular system function - correct answer ✔✔transports oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removes wastes cardiovascular system organs - correct answer ✔✔Heart Blood Blood vessels lymphatic system functions - correct answer ✔✔returns tissue fluid to blood and defends against foreign organisms lymphathic system organs - correct answer ✔✔Spleen Lymph nodes Thymus Lymphatic vessels respiratory system function - correct answer ✔✔oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange respiratory system organs - correct answer ✔✔Lungs Trachea Larynx Nasal cavity Pharynx digestive system function - correct answer ✔✔processes foods and absorbs nutrients into body digestive system organs - correct answer ✔✔Stomach Intestinal tract Liver Pancreas Esophagus Salivary glands urinary system function - correct answer ✔✔eliminates wastes and regulates pH and blood volume urinary system organs - correct answer ✔✔Kidneys Urinary bladder Urethra reproductive system function - correct answer ✔✔produces germ cells (eggs and sperm) and is an environment for fetus growth reproductive system organs - correct answer ✔✔Ovaries Uterus Mammary glands Testes Prostate gland External genitalia Which systems above all others enforce and maintain regulation of the other systems? - correct answer ✔✔Nervous and endocrine system Which systems (hint: tension generator and scaffolding) are partnered in executing movement? - correct answer ✔✔skeletal system and muscular system all surface anatomy vocabulary discussed in class and be able to apply the terms correctly - correct answer ✔✔... Frontal - correct answer ✔✔forehead (think frontal lobe) Orbital - correct answer ✔✔eye Nasal - correct answer ✔✔nose Oral - correct answer ✔✔mouth Cervical - correct answer ✔✔neck Thorax - correct answer ✔✔chest/trunk Navel - correct answer ✔✔umbilical (belly button) Pelvic - correct answer ✔✔pelvis Inguinal - correct answer ✔✔groin Pubic - correct answer ✔✔pubis/genitals Pectoral - correct answer ✔✔chest Sternal - correct answer ✔✔sternum/chest bone Mammary - correct answer ✔✔breast Ottic - correct answer ✔✔ear Buccal - correct answer ✔✔cheek Mental - correct answer ✔✔chin Clavicular - correct answer ✔✔clavicle/collarbone Axillary - correct answer ✔✔armpit Brachial - correct answer ✔✔arm (shoulder to elbow) Antebrachial - correct answer ✔✔forearm Antecubital - correct answer ✔✔front of elbow/anterior surface of elbow Carpal - correct answer ✔✔wrist Plamar - correct answer ✔✔palm Digital - correct answer ✔✔fingers/toes Coxal - correct answer ✔✔hip Femoral - correct answer ✔✔thigh Patellar - correct answer ✔✔knee cap Crural - correct answer ✔✔lower leg Pedal - correct answer ✔✔foot Talus - correct answer ✔✔superior most ankle bone Dorsum - correct answer ✔✔top of foot/back of hand Occipital - correct answer ✔✔back of head Nuchal - correct answer ✔✔back of neck Scapular - correct answer ✔✔shoulder blade Vertebral - correct answer ✔✔spinal column Lumbar - correct answer ✔✔loin Gluteal - correct answer ✔✔buttock Perineal - correct answer ✔✔the perineum- the region between the anus and the external reproductive organs Acromial - correct answer ✔✔point of shoulder Olecranon - correct answer ✔✔back of elbow Popliteal - correct answer ✔✔knee pit/back of knee Sural - correct answer ✔✔Calf/posterior surface of the leg abdominoplevic cavity - correct answer ✔✔Has been eviscerated (Viscera/Visceral: refers to organs specifically enclosed in the trunk of the body) and consists of abdominal cavity and pelvic cavity. It bends posterior as it moves from anterior to posterior because of the curve of the spine. Sigmoid Curve; an elongated S abdominal cavity - correct answer ✔✔larger than the pelvic cavity. Contains, stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas (GI tract) pelvic cavity - correct answer ✔✔contains all internal reproductive organs: ovaries, uterus, prostate gland, urinary bladder, rectum and sigmoid colon. Diaphragm - correct answer ✔✔Muscle that allows you to breathe. It's pulled down when contracting to take air into lungs and when exhaling, muscle relaxes. the wall separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. What are examples of variables mentioned in class that are homeostatically regulated? - correct answer ✔✔pH of blood, body temp, blood glucose, blood gas, blood pressure What is the relationship between homeostasis and negative feedback? - correct answer ✔✔Negative feedback occurs when the body is not at homeostasis, so the body performs actions to get the body back into homeostasis; Homeostasis related to negative feedback in order to "bring back to set point" What are the 4 components that all negative feedback systems have? - correct answer ✔✔signal, receptor, control, effector signal in negative feedback - correct answer ✔✔a change in the variable receptor in negative feedback - correct answer ✔✔reports the state of the variable control center in negative feedback - correct answer ✔✔"the decider" effector in negative feedback - correct answer ✔✔makes a response to produce a desired effect. "muscle of the operation." System-wise, which system(s) is (are) famous for being behind negative feedback? - correct answer ✔✔Endocrine & nervous Explain the "negative" in negative feedback. - correct answer ✔✔"Negative" refers to the system responding to a stimulus and lowering/stabilizing the system Define "set point" in the context of negative feedback - correct answer ✔✔physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates Can set points vary? Explain. - correct answer ✔✔Yes, set points can be adjusted. For example, if you run on a treadmill, your blood pressure will rise, so receptors will tell your brain which will tell your skeletal muscle that it needs more oxygen and glucose faster, so then your brain will raise the set point to sustain energy during your workout. If I describe a negative feedback system to you that you have not learned about-you should- based on my description- be able to label the component parts as to whether they are the controller, the signal the effector, or the receptor. - correct answer ✔✔... Define positive feedback. - correct answer ✔✔Positive feedback is when an unusual event occurs, in which you want the variable to keep changing more and more to achieve goal. Ex: giving birth→ the uterus will gradually contract while in labor and it will get stronger and more frequent as it goes on until you finally give birth, then the force of contraction will die down. How does positive feedback tend to differ from negative feedback both in how it works and its purpose? - correct answer ✔✔Negative feedback is lessening a stimulus back to normal, where the positive feedback is continuing to increase and increase until there is sudden collapse causing the cycle to break For the positive feedback integral for the human female to give birth, what is (are) the signal, the controller, effector, the receptor(s). - correct answer ✔✔Signal- baby presses on cervix- causes stretching(pain) Controller- brain (deciding to send a message to increase levels) Effector- pituitary gland- produces more oxytocin Receptor-oxytocin What role does oxytocin and afferent nerves play in labor? - correct answer ✔✔Afferent sensory nerve fibres are activated, and send impulses via the spinal cord to the SON and PVN, resulting in the release of oxytocin into both the brain and circulation. Oxytocin causes the uterine smooth muscles to contract. This causes a feed-forward effect that accelerates oxytocin release, known as the Ferguson reflex Skin protection function - correct answer ✔✔physical barrier to bacteria; secretions diminish bacterial growth; melanin shields uv; skin hosts immune cells [dendritic cells] that destroy invaders skin homeostasis function - correct answer ✔✔restricts unregulated exchange with environment skin thermoregulation function - correct answer ✔✔crucial partnership with circulatory system for thermoregulation skin endocrine function - correct answer ✔✔initiation of calcitriol synthesis [vitamin D hormone] skin sensory function - correct answer ✔✔touch; temperature; pain; pressure Is skin an organ? - correct answer ✔✔it is the largest organ. composed of multiple types of cells with its specific roles that are not performed by other organs. scientific name for the skin - correct answer ✔✔The integumentary system How and why is it that the skin is so vital for survival? - correct answer ✔✔Not only does the skin hold everything in, it also plays a crucial role in providing an airtight, watertight and flexible barrier between the outside world and the highly regulated systems within the body. It also helps with temperature regulation, immune defence, vitamin production, and sensation. Strata of skin - correct answer ✔✔ stratum basale - correct answer ✔✔basal layer. deepest layer of epidermis. highly mitotic. Compare the degree of vascularization and innervation between the epidermis and dermis? - correct answer ✔✔The dermis is vascularized and innervated and the epidermis is not vascularized nor innervated how do the dermis and epidermis compare in terms of relative thickness? - correct answer ✔✔The dermis is way thicker What two types of tissue make up the dermis? - correct answer ✔✔The papillary layer(areolar connective) and reticular layer ( dense irregular connective) What is the dermal tissues relative location and thicknesses? - correct answer ✔✔Papillary is superficial to reticular layer, and reticular layer is thicker. papillary layer makes up about 20% of the dermis and reticular layer makes up about 80% function of oil glands - correct answer ✔✔(sebaceous gland) helps with brittle hair, helps lubricate epidermis and fights bacteria function of hair - correct answer ✔✔the head hairs cushion the scalp from blows, protect from ultraviolet light, and provide insulation for the skull. The hairs guarding the entrances to the nostrils and external auditory canals help prevent the entry of foreign particles and insects, and eyelashes perform similar functions for the eye. hair on other areas of the body helps with protection, light touch sensitivity, and was previously used for thermoregulation. hair follicle function - correct answer ✔✔1. Produce hairs that protect skull 2. Produce hairs that provide delicate touch sensations on general body surface. arrector pilli muscle function - correct answer ✔✔a smooth muscle that contracts when cold or emotional aroused (goosebumps) eccrine sweat glands function - correct answer ✔✔evaporative cooling, critical for regulating body temp; most widely distributed; function over a lifetime apocrine sweat glands function - correct answer ✔✔active when hit puberty, mixed with proteins to get body odor in armpit, groin area, and perineum area; the sweat has a lot of additional components [lipids and proteins] in comparison to eccrine sweat What is the hypodermis? - correct answer ✔✔(subcutaneous layer) The hypodermis is deep to the dermis and is not a part of the cutaneous membrane. It is mainly composed of adipose tissue. hypodermis function - correct answer ✔✔Intervening layer between the cutaneous membrane and everything under, it is like a cushion to help absorb impact. anchors skin to underlying organs Do oil and sweat have other functions aside from evaporative cooling and lubrication, respectively? - correct answer ✔✔Eccrine sweat glands also produce chemicals that can be hard on bacteria to protect our skin. In humans, how does the: (1) distribution and (2) thickness of terminal hair compare with other familiar mammals? - correct answer ✔✔In humans, its not located over the entire body and it is less thick What is vellus hair and how does it compare with terminal hair? - correct answer ✔✔Peach fuzz, widely distributed and unlike terminal hair, it is not pigmented and doesn't have a medulla terminal hair anatomy - correct answer ✔✔ What is a major function of hair in humans? - correct answer ✔✔Sensory (sense a mosquito that bends the hair which stimulates nerve fibers that send to brain). mainly light touch. Any other functions of hair in humans? - correct answer ✔✔The functions of hair include protection, regulation of body temperature, and facilitation of evaporation of perspiration; How are keratinized hair cells similar yet different from cells of the epidermis? - correct answer ✔✔Both are rapidly growing, and have a zone that is undergoing rapid mitosis. Hair contains hard and soft keratin, while the epidermis cells only have soft keratin What is the function and location of the hair matrix? - correct answer ✔✔The matrix is the part of the hair follicle where matrix keratinocytes proliferate to form the hair shaft of growing hair. What is a hair follicle and what is its function? - correct answer ✔✔A tubelike invagination of epidermis that extends into the dermis. It houses the hair so that it can grow and develop. What is the follicles relationship with oil glands? - correct answer ✔✔Oil glands attach to the hair follicle and lubricate the hair shaft inside the follicle. Compare cells making up the nails with those making up hair and epidermis along the following lines: layer or zone of cell division - correct answer ✔✔layer or zone of cell division: Nails: the base of the nail root is the nail matrix which is where the cells are mitotic Hair: the hair matrix is the mitotic layer Skin: the stratum basale is the mitotic layer Compare cells making up the nails with those making up hair and epidermis along the following lines: degree of pigmentation or lack thereof - correct answer ✔✔degree of pigmentation or lack thereof: Nail: not pigmented Hair: pigmentation in the hair matrix (terminal hair is pigmented & vellus hair isn't) Skin: melanocytes in stratum basale that produces color on skin degree or possible type of Compare cells making up the nails with those making up hair and epidermis along the following lines: degree or possible type of keratinization. - correct answer ✔✔keratinization: Nail: hard keratin Hair: hard and soft keratin Skin: soft keratin How are nail, hair, and skin cells similar in terms of each generating new cells and or pigmenting these cells? - correct answer ✔✔They are very rapidly growing, they have melanocytes(not in nail- hemoglobin), and keratin(hair: soft/hard, nails: hard , skin:soft) plural form is trabeculae lamella - correct answer ✔✔concentric ring of solid bone matrix in osteon, osteocytes are between them. plural form is lamellae interstitial lamellae - correct answer ✔✔spaces between osteons circumferential lamellae - correct answer ✔✔goes around entire circumference of diaphysis Concentric lamellae - correct answer ✔✔found within osteons; go around outermost portion of bone Haversian(central) canal - correct answer ✔✔surround blood vessels & nerve fibers, communicate w/ Volkmann's canals, travels up and down bones Perforating (Volkmann's) canals - correct answer ✔✔transmit blood vessels from periosteum into bone, communicate w/ Haversian canals, provide nutrients for osteons, travels in and out of bones Epiphysis - correct answer ✔✔the end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft. plural form epiphyses Know the overall functions of the skeleton you have learned about in class. - correct answer ✔✔Maintain body shape, posture, allows movement micro anatomy of bone - correct answer ✔✔ How is the circulatory system and the nervous system invested in bone and what soft tissue structure(s) facilitate this? - correct answer ✔✔The periosteum is the scaffolding for blood vessels and nerves to enter the bone. blood vessels for circulation of life giving nutrients and nerves for pain receptors. Name 4 types of bone cells - correct answer ✔✔osteogenic/osteoprogenitors, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts Osteoblasts - correct answer ✔✔Bone making cells, remodel existing bone, they secrete collagen and organic matrix osteocytes - correct answer ✔✔Bone maintaining cells, in lacunae within bone Osteoclasts - correct answer ✔✔Bone destroying cells, break down bone and reabsorb it (cells are way bigger than others- multinucleated) Osteoprogenitors - correct answer ✔✔undergo mitosis to become osteoblasts Organic (osteoid) matrix components - correct answer ✔✔Ground substance ( combination of glycoproteins and proteoglycans). weaving through ground substance is mainly collagen fibers Inorganic matrix components - correct answer ✔✔Hydroxyapatite (calcium salt that is crystallized in matrix; what makes bone hard) Know the relationship between organic matrix and inorganic matrix and how they each contribute to compression and tensile forces. - correct answer ✔✔Makes bones hard but not brittle *Tensile strength + compression strength = hard but not brittle * organic matrix: collagen (keeps bones from being brittle and gives it compression strength- alone the bone would bend and not keep shape) *inorganic matrix= hydroxyapatite (makes bones hard, alone it would make bones brittle) What is the common element between dead bone (that has been found years after death) and live bone? - correct answer ✔✔Hydroxyapatite Mainly, what 2 elements make up hydroxyapatite? - correct answer ✔✔Calcium and phosphate What role does collagen play in bones and what is the mechanism? - correct answer ✔✔Collagen gives tensile strength( bone can't twist) What role does hydroxyapatite play in bones and what is the mechanism? - correct answer ✔✔hydroxyapatite gives compression strength and makes bones hard( crystallizes) Does the embryonic skeleton start out as a bony structure? - correct answer ✔✔No, the skeleton starts out as a soft tissue structure; originate as cartilage [like sharks]. which is why newborns skulls are skill forming and the fontanels are easily seen. Endochondral ossification - correct answer ✔✔Process of transforming cartilage into bone. skeleton/ long bones ossified from cartilaginous precursor. Intramembranous ossification - correct answer ✔✔bone develops from a fibrous membrane. bones of skull and clavicle ossified directly from embryonic mesenchyme precursor. Which type of ossification is most prevalent? - correct answer ✔✔Endochondral ossification For the least prevalent type, what bones undergo the least common type of ossification? - correct answer ✔✔skull and clavicle ossified directly from embryonic mesenchyme precursor in the process of intramembranous ossification. how does the epiphyseal plate's presence drive long bone growth without changing its own diameter? - correct answer ✔✔The diameter of the epiphysis does not actually change because the diaphysis is simply ratcheting up and pushing the epiphyseal plates away from each other as the diaphysis lengthens. In general, how are osteoblasts and osteoclasts opposite yet complementary? - correct answer ✔✔Osteoblasts are bone making cells while osteoclasts are bone destroying cells. How long does the epiphyseal growth plate last? - correct answer ✔✔12 to 25 years Is there an average difference between males and females in the mitotic activity and the persistence of the epiphyseal plate? If so, how might this account for averaged differences in adult height between the Osteoporosis causes - correct answer ✔✔caused by when a person has low calcium intake so bone creation can't keep up with bone removal Osteomalacia causes - correct answer ✔✔caused by not enough vitamin D and/or Ca++ Rickets causes - correct answer ✔✔caused by not enough vitamin D and/or Ca++ Who is most at risk for each degenerative bone condition and why? - correct answer ✔✔Rickets is seen in children and osteomalacia is seen in adults. Osteoporosis is usually seen in middle aged women What types of drugs can be used to slow osteoporosis down? - correct answer ✔✔Estrogen replacement [evidence of unacceptable risk]; SERMs [Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators]; bisphosphonates; vitamin D and calcium supplementation Are drugs the only tool to fight the progression of osteoporosis? Explain. - correct answer ✔✔Exercise can be used [Wolff's Law: bones will adapt based on the stress or demands placed on them; bones will actually thicken when you place them under stress] What treatment regimens could arrest and or correct the progression of rickets and osteomalacia? - correct answer ✔✔Vitamin D or Ca++, exercise, sunlight cretinism - correct answer ✔✔causes: low thyroid hormone during early infacy/toddler stage symptoms: Profound mental deficiencies treatments: thyroid hormone replacement achondroplasia - correct answer ✔✔causes: unresponsiveness to insulin-related growth factor-1 symptoms: Most common in long bones, IRGF-1 helps epiphyseal plates grow treatments: none gigantism - correct answer ✔✔causes: a benign tumor grows on the pituitary gland and the gland continuously secretes growth hormones. symptoms: eyesight issues, tall, circulation issues treatments: includes surgeon shaving off tumor pituitary dwarfism - correct answer ✔✔causes: pituitary secretes too little growth hormone symptoms: being short treatments: injection of authentic human growth hormone Achondroplastic Dwarfism - correct answer ✔✔causes: unresponsiveness to Insulin-Related Growth Factor-1 symptoms: Abnormal hand appearance with persistent space between the long and ring fingers., Bowed legs., Decreased muscle tone., Disproportionately large head-to-body size difference., Prominent forehead (frontal bossing), Shortened arms and legs (especially the upper arm and thigh treatments: none Which is the most common, and so far -with the exception of limb lengthening surgery-untreatable type of dwarfism? - correct answer ✔✔Achondroplasia How can the other type of dwarfism be treated/prevented nowadays? - correct answer ✔✔Injection of hormones or hormone replacement Which type(s) of dwarfism co-occurs with profound mental deficiency and why and what can be done about it? - correct answer ✔✔Cretinism, a deficiency of the thyroid hormone and iodide. Cretinism is detected at birth, so treatments can include a thyroid hormone replacement or supplement iodide in the milk. Why would someone with gigantism almost certainly have vision problems? - correct answer ✔✔Gigantism occurs when a benign tumor grows on the pituitary gland and the gland continuously secretes growth hormones. The tumor can put pressure on many blood vessels and nerves, including the optic nerve, causing vision problems. What is an "articulation" in anatomy? - correct answer ✔✔It is another word for joint (where 2 bones come together) What does "arthro" indicate? - correct answer ✔✔Indicates a joint Ex: arthritis = inflammation in the joints What are the functional joint classifications? - correct answer ✔✔1. Synarthrosis 2. Amphiarthrosis 3. Diarthrosis Synarthroses joints are - correct answer ✔✔immovable joints Amphiarthroses joints are - correct answer ✔✔slightly movable joints Diarthrotic joints are - correct answer ✔✔freely movable joints What are the structural classifications of joints? - correct answer ✔✔fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints fibrous joints - correct answer ✔✔consists of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, holds the bones tightly together. Sutures: unique to the skull Syndemoses: bones connected by short ligament of dense connective tissue Interosseous membrane between radius and ulna Gomphoses: peg-in-socket fibrous joint Joint between tooth and mandible/maxilla cartilaginous joints - correct answer ✔✔allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage. bones joined by cartilage (with absence of joint cavity) Synchondroses: thin, synarthrotic plate of hyaline cartilage unites bones Epiphyseal plates, first costal cartilage What are osteophytes and what disease are these associated with? - correct answer ✔✔Bone spurs, osteoarthritis For what joint disease is continued thinning of hyaline cartilage a central cause? - correct answer ✔✔Osteoartritis What type of arthritis is widely experienced by the ageing population? - correct answer ✔✔Osteoartritis Is there a genetic component to Osteoartritis? - correct answer ✔✔yes Where does uric acid come from and how can its presence play into joint disease? - correct answer ✔✔Uric acid comes from nucleic acid metabolism and the build up of it will start to crystalize out and go to the lowest part of your body (feet) Define ankylosis and when and under what condition(s) does it occur? - correct answer ✔✔Abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint when bones fuse together, occurs in Rheumatoid arthritis What are NSAIDs and how may they be used in treating arthritis? - correct answer ✔✔Nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the frequently used to ease the pain, inflammation and stiffness that come with arthritis, bursitis and tendinitis. Most NSAIDs are inexpensive and often among the first medicines prescribed for people with achy joints. Compare and contrast NSAIDs with prednisone or cortisone/cortisol injections vis a vis treating arthritis - correct answer ✔✔Corticosteroids are a type of hormone, and NSAIDs are non-narcotic pain relievers. Both medications are prescribed to reduce inflammation in the body. Corticosteroids are steroid hormones classified as glucocorticoids (anti-inflammatory), which suppress inflammation and immunity and assist in the breakdown of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.Corticosteroids are used to treat conditions such as arthritis, colitis, asthma, bronchitis, allergic reactions, and skin rashes. NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) are used to treat pain and reduce inflammation from a variety of causes, such as headaches, injuries, arthritis, menstrual cramps, and muscle aches. NSAIDs are also used as fever reducers. NSAIDs work by blocking two forms of an enzyme called cyclooxygenase (COX). COX-1 protects the stomach lining from digestive acids, and helps maintain kidney function. Know the gross anatomy of skeletal muscle as it relates to the location and organization. - correct answer ✔✔ Are fascicles sometimes referred to as fibers? - correct answer ✔✔No fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers Technically though, fascicles are not fibers since fibers are the ____? - correct answer ✔✔cells themselves. So what should these "fibers" be called? - correct answer ✔✔Muscle cells Know the relative size of skeletal muscle and how they are formed from myoblasts. - correct answer ✔✔Less than 1 cm long and up to 0.1 mm wide. A skeletal muscle fiber is formed by the fusion of multiple myoblasts in the embryo How does the development of skeletal muscle lead to formation of up to dozens of nuclei per cell? - correct answer ✔✔Multiple myoblast nuclei are maintained in each fiber, which is why the skeletal muscle is multinucleated. What does the phrase "skeletal muscle grows by hypertrophy" mean? - correct answer ✔✔Muscle cells grow by hypertrophy - they get longer and thicker. Do mature muscles grow by hyperplasia or by hypertrophy? - correct answer ✔✔Hypertrophy Myofibril - correct answer ✔✔A long, filamentous organelle found within muscle cells that has a banded appearance. tightly packed filament bundles found within skeletal muscle fibers z-disk - correct answer ✔✔protein fibers that form attachment site for actin. A sarcomere is from one Z- disk to another Z disk A-band - correct answer ✔✔dark area; includes H zone; also comprised of a region of thick and thin filaments overlapping , length stays same during contraction I-band - correct answer ✔✔regions from edge of A band to Z disc; converse of the H zone which is a region that is all thin filaments / light band , length shortens during contraction H-zone - correct answer ✔✔The region at the center of an A band of a sarcomere that is made up of myosin only (thick filament only). The H zone gets shorter (and may disappear) during muscle contraction. M-line - correct answer ✔✔supporting proteins that hold the thick /myosin filaments together in the H zone. middle of the sarcomere Sarcomere - correct answer ✔✔contractile unit of a muscle fiber. a structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle, consisting of a dark band and the nearer half of each adjacent pale band. thick filaments - correct answer ✔✔made up of building blocks myosin - about 8 myosin proteins; have a unique 3D space; looks like golf clubs welded together. 2 fused golf clubs looking at it in more detail; wrapping around each other Globular heads - end of a protein; can move back and forth easily; dimer thin filaments - correct answer ✔✔composed of actin Titin filaments - correct answer ✔✔acts as a spring, large protein, attached to Z-disk, allows sarcomere to bounce back What is the relationship between sarcomeres and myofibrils and vice-versa? - correct answer ✔✔Myofibrils contain sarcomeres arranged one after another Why is the sarcomere so important? - correct answer ✔✔It is where a muscle contraction first initiates and then causes a reaction in other parts What two very important ion gradients does the sodium potassium pump (what is another name for this) maintain? - correct answer ✔✔The sodium-potassium, or another name is ATPase For each ion, what is the direction of the gradient and how does this relate to the difference of concentrations on either side of the membrane? - correct answer ✔✔the pump moves three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions it moves into the cell continuously. so that the inside of the membrane remains negative and the movement can continue . What is an "electrogenic pump", name a relevant example and explain why it is called electrogenic? - correct answer ✔✔A pump is a transport protein that requires ATP (also called ATPase, bc ATP is destroyed in the process). Electrogenic = establishes electric charge Understand the role of the potassium leak channels and sodium leak channels play in establishing the resting membrane potential. - correct answer ✔✔..... What does Pr - stand for it and what is its relationship to potassium ion movement? - correct answer ✔✔Pr - is an umbrella term for all negatively charged ions close to the membrane like ATP, proteins, sugars etc. Collectively they are neutralized by positive ions (potassium) but when potassium starts to leak out of the cell it abandons these Negative charges right and so these negative charges are kind of naked and are going to build up on the inside of the membrane. As the concentration gradient increases the electrical gradient wants to pull the potassium back in the cell. = the value of this is the equilibrium potential What two gradients can affect ion flow of an ion across a membrane? - correct answer ✔✔1. chemical force: the ions' concentration gradient 2. electrical force: the effect of the membrane potential on the ions' movement Is there a difference between the term "concentration gradient" and "chemical gradient"? - correct answer ✔✔no they are the same thing. A concentration gradient occurs when the concentration of particles is higher in one area than another. In passive transport, particles will diffuse down a concentration gradient, from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration, until they are evenly spaced. A chemical gradient Refers to the concentration gradient of an ion or molecule. Considering only one ion at a time, is there an equation that equates the chemical gradient with the electrical gradient that will be established to exactly counterbalance the electrical gradient? - correct answer ✔✔yes What is the name of the equation that equates the chemical gradient with the electrical gradient? - correct answer ✔✔electrochemical gradient What is the term used to specify the membrane potential that exactly counterbalances the chemical gradient so that the two gradients are in "equilibrium" with one another? - correct answer ✔✔The equilibrium potential Bc the 2 gradients are in equilibrium with eachother Can be calculated by the Nernst potential The EK+ for K+ is -90mv and the ENa+ for Na+ is +65mv, the actual resting membrane potential is ~ - 85mv and this can actually be calculated precisely by the Goldman equation ....so...what is the explanation for this? - correct answer ✔✔This whole idea about the equilibrium potentials of potassium and sodium and the overall is minus 85 much closer to potassium. And that's because potassium is much more abundant, the potassium channels are much more abundant and so they have a much greater impact.. Know how the following parts of the synapse interact during the activation and deactivation of a synapse and the order of this interaction: Voltage gated calcium channel, acetylcholine, synaptic cleft, motor end- plate, acetylcholine gated sodium channel, acetylcholinesterase, action potential down a neuron. - correct answer ✔✔ voltage-gated calcium channels - correct answer ✔✔mediate calcium influx in response to membrane depolarization and regulate intracellular processes such as contraction, secretion, neuro-transmission, and gene expression. Their activity is essential to couple electrical signals in the cell surface to physiological events in cells. Acetylcholine (ACh) - correct answer ✔✔A neurotransmitter that is involved in learning, memory, triggers muscle contraction. synaptic cleft - correct answer ✔✔The narrow gap that separates the presynaptic neuron from the postsynaptic cell. neurotransmitters are released from the axon terminal motor end plate - correct answer ✔✔the flattened end of a motor neuron that transmits neural impulses to a muscle Acetylcholine gated sodium channel - correct answer ✔✔ligand-gated ion channel. It is composed of five subunits arranged symmetrically around a central conducting pore. Upon binding acetylcholine, the channel opens and allows diffusion of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions through the conducting pore. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) - correct answer ✔✔the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft so that the transmitter acetylcholine is inactivated action potential - correct answer ✔✔a neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon. or the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell. action potential steps - correct answer ✔✔1. Resting Potential: sodium and potassium gated channels are closed 2. Depolarization to Threshold: stimulus initiates a graded potential large enough to pass the threshold and open voltage-gated sodium channels 3. Sodium-Channels activated and Rapid Depolarization: sodium rushes into the open channels causing rapid depolarization; inner membrane becomes more positive than negative 4. Inactivation of Sodium Channels and Activation of Potassium Channels: transmembrane potential reaches +30mV which closes the voltage-gated sodium channels and opens the voltage-gated potassium channels, moving them out and shifting the transmembrane potential back to resting levels. 5. Repolarization: the membrane continues to move toward resting levels; sodium channels stay closed, potassium channels stay open 6. Hyperpolarization: potassium channels remain open and the inside of the cell becomes more negative than resting potential until the voltage reaches -90mV 7. Resting potential: voltage-gated potassium channels close and transmembrane potential returns to normal due to the sodium-potassium exchange pump. Returns to homeostasis. Why is the presence and activity of acetylcholinesterase every bit as important as acetylcholine release in the first place? - correct answer ✔✔Acetylcholinesterase cuts acetylcholine in half to deactivate and what then causes repolarization? - correct answer ✔✔The closing of sodium channels and opening of potassium channels out of cell Why do you think it is important that the v-gated sodium channels activate at an offset in time compared to the v-gated potassium channels? - correct answer ✔✔They need to be perfectly offset so that there is a wave of the ions in and out of the sarcolemma to move the myosin heads What is the role of the sodium/potassium pump play in allowing an AP? - correct answer ✔✔a sodium potassium pump can maintain a voltage gradient across a cell or neuron's membrane. The sodium- potassium pump goes through cycles of shape changes to help maintain a negative membrane potential to ensure the phases of polarization occur. How does the AP interact with the T-tubules? - correct answer ✔✔AP travels down the T-tubules. The action potential moves down the sarcolemma and is siphoned off to T tubules, also called the "bowels of the muscle cell", which stimulate the terminal cisterns Voltage change (AP) travels down T tubules where it interacts with terminal cisterns which have voltage gated calcium channels that then open to allow calcium ions to enter the sarcoplasm to bind to troponin The T-tubules are effectively involutions of what? - correct answer ✔✔sarcolemma What proteins imbedded in the sarcolemma must also imbedded within the T-tubules to continue the propagation on an action potential? - correct answer ✔✔Na+/K pump, leak channels, voltage channels What does an AP moving down the t-tubules induce in the terminal cisterns? - correct answer ✔✔Opening of voltage gated calcium channels What is another term for cisterns? - correct answer ✔✔cisternae is latin what happens to the calcium concentration in the sarcoplasm after an action potential is generated? - correct answer ✔✔Afterwards, the calcium concentration in the sarcoplasm increases exponentially and then decreases just as fast thanks to calcium pumps ("vacuums") that suck it back up into terminal cisterns using active transportOnly way to keep calcium high is to have another action potential that re- opens calcium voltage gated channel. This is how muscles relax. By a stoppage of voltage gated release of Calcium into sarcoplasm How does the calcium interact with the myofilaments? - correct answer ✔✔calcium binds to troponin, the troponin changes shape, removing tropomyosin from the binding sites to reveal the myosin head binding sites on the G actin of the thin filaments What "pump" is imbedded within the membrane of the terminal cisterns and what role does it play in the regulation of sarcoplasmic calcium? - correct answer ✔✔Calcium pump. It release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm How do calcium pumps and voltage-activated calcium channels work together to modulate sarcoplasmic calcium ion concentrations during and after an action potential is conducted down a T-tubule? - correct answer ✔✔Calcium pumps keep calcium concentrations high in the terminal cisterns (pump calcium from the sarcoplasm back into the terminal cisterns). When an action potential is conducted down a T- tubule, it causes voltage gated channels to open and release calcium into the sarcoplasm (overcoming the calcium pumps). When the action potential is no longer present, the voltage gated channels close and the Ca pumps bring Ca back into the terminal cisterns. What initiates cross bridge formation? - correct answer ✔✔When calcium binds to troponin In which step(s) is (are) the myosin head cocked in the high energy position and in which step(s) is it in the low energy position? - correct answer ✔✔In the resting position, myosin head is in high energy and during the cross bridge when myosin head is bound to actin, its in a low energy state Specifically, how and when is the energy in ATP imparted to the cycle? - correct answer ✔✔After the power stroke, ATP binds to the myosin heads and the cross bridge is detached. Cohn says myosin "loves" ATP more than it "loves" the actin binding sites and myosin will let go. The ATP is then hydrolyzed and the resulting energy "re-cocks" the myosin head What two soluble factors are necessary for a complete head-cycling to occur such that another head- cycling can occur right after the first? - correct answer ✔✔calcium and ATP How is it possible that calcium that spiked so quickly can also diminish so quickly before another head cycling is allowed? - correct answer ✔✔Actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by calcium pumps (hydrolyze ATP) after the action potential ends What affect would this have on the possibility of another head-cycling in the absence of a second action potential following immediately in the aftermath of the first? - correct answer ✔✔This is the time during which another stimulus given to the neuron (no matter how strong) will not lead to a second action potential. Thus, because Na+ channels are inactivated during this time, additional depolarizing stimuli do not lead to new action potentials. After the absolute refractory period, Na+channels begin to recover from inactivation and if strong enough stimuli are given to the neuron, it may respond again by generating action potentials. However, during this time, the stimuli given must be stronger than was originally needed when the neuron was at rest. What is necessary to induce two or more head-cycling's one right after another? - correct answer ✔✔There needs to be enough calcium to bind to the troponin polypeptide so that the tropomyosin chain is moved, and the G-actin active sites remain exposed; **you need multiple AP close together for movement**Need ATP Present How does the creation of multiple head-cycling's (one after the other) change the geometry of the sarcomere? What parts of the sarcomere change and which do not? - correct answer ✔✔The sarcomere become shorter and shorter with each successive head-cycle. As the z discs are pulled closer and closer towards the center of the sarcomere, the H-zone starts to disappear, and will look completely gone once the muscle is fully contracted. The A-band does not change at all. The I band also changes because the thin filament starts to overlap more with the thick filament, therefore, decreasing the length of the I- band (length of thin filament itself does not change- OR thick in that matter)***H band and I band both change; A band does not How has a resting sarcomere changed after multiple head-cycling's until a sarcomere is maximally contracted? - correct answer ✔✔Optimal sarcomere length: 80%-120% resting length. BUT If a muscle fiber stretches so much that filaments do not overlap, the myosin heads have nothing to attach to and cannot generate tension; "flapping in the breeze" (around 120%+ resting length). What limits the extent of contraction of a sarcomere? - correct answer ✔✔If the sarcomeres are so compressed and cramped that the Z discs touch the thick myofilaments, and the thin filaments touch and interfere with one another, no further contracting can occur (around 60%-80% resting length.) Maximal contraction: no H-zone or I-band, only A-band visibleThe A band is incompressible so therefore it limits the contraction Do these heads reform cross-bridges or no? Explain how your answer leads to relaxation. (Hint: if you know the steps of how calcium allows filament sliding, then think of these steps occurring in the reverse). - correct answer ✔✔NO, because Ca++ levels are not high enough If there were high Ca2+ levels crossbridge formation and movement would occur, repeating the cycle When you have many head cycles, this makes the sarcomere to shorten more (contraction). When you don't have head cycles the sarcomere is in a relaxed state, because there is no formation of the crossbridge making the thin filament move. - **when calcium is no longer being puffed it leaves the calcium binding site on troponin empty and tropomyosin returns to cover the myosin binding site resulting in no cross-bridge formation & there leads to sarcomere relaxation** In the absence of reformation of a cross-bridge for a subsequent head-cycling, what do you think leads to the "pushing back" of the z-disks to the relaxed position (Hint: A really big protein). - correct answer ✔✔Titan pulls the z-disks back to their original "relaxed" position. What is a myogram? - correct answer ✔✔A noninvasive technique that can measure the tension produced by a single twitch. a record of a muscle twitch or a chart of the timing and strength of a muscle's contraction. For a force-tension myogram, what are the phases of muscle twitches? - correct answer ✔✔latent period, period of contraction, period of relaxation latent period of muscle twitch - correct answer ✔✔period after stimulus before contraction begins, is the first stage in muscle contraction when the muscle does not show any external changes. Everything including the opening of the voltage gated Ca2+ channels in sarcoplasmic reticulum period of contraction - correct answer ✔✔cross-bridge formation & power stroke take place. from the onset to the peak of tension development, and the myogram tracing rises to a peak period of relaxation - correct answer ✔✔final phase, lasting 10-100ms, where myosin heads bind ATP and release from actin; titan protein pulls the z-disk back to its resting position, is initiated by reentry of Ca2+ into the SR; muscle tension decreases to zero and tracing returns to baseline Why do you think there is always a latent period for a twitch? - correct answer ✔✔The latent period is everything leading up to the cross-bridge formation. There will be a 0-5 msec delay between contractions because of action potentials. what parts of the head cycling account for the period right at the end of the latent period (and therefore beginning of the twitch/contraction period) to the apex (highest point of the twitch? - correct answer ✔✔Cross-bridge formation takes place right at the end of the latent period and at the beginning of the contraction period. pinpoint on a myogram the following: (a) where crossbridge formation occurs, (b) the period of the power stroke (c) the point at which the myosin heads are still bound to myosin after the power stroke, but have not released. - correct answer ✔✔... exact stuff on review sheet What parts of the head cycling account for the beginning of the relaxation of the muscle twitch to when it is fully relaxed? - correct answer ✔✔cross -bridge release → Hydrolysis of ATP → Recovery Stroke ( The movement of the myosin head back to its original position is called the recovery stroke) The relaxation portion of the twitch requires that the Z-discs move to their original position. Based on this what element of the sarcomere promotes this once the myosin heads cannot form a crossbridge? - correct answer ✔✔Titan protein acts as a spring and will pull the z-disks back to their original position. Are individual twitches digital events? - correct answer ✔✔Yes they are discrete digital responses What does "digital" mean in this context? - correct answer ✔✔It's an all or none principle, you'll either get a muscle twitch or nothing at all What is summation and how does it apply to twitches? - correct answer ✔✔When the second twitch is activated before the first twitch is done and causes an overall stronger twitch, twitch can stand on the shoulders of the 1st twitch How does summation occur and what is its overall significance? - correct answer ✔✔When the second twitch is activated before the first twitch is done and causes an overall stronger twitch. Its significant because it can lead to an action potential and it increases the tension and strength of the twitch. Where in the cell does glycolysis always occur? - correct answer ✔✔cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) What happens to the end product of glycolysis under conditions found in most cells, most of the time (Assume that the cell is to extract all the possible energy from the covalent bonds of glucose in the presence of oxygen)? - correct answer ✔✔it produces a lot of ATP Approximately how many molecules of ATP are made from the complete oxidative metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose? - correct answer ✔✔36-38 ATP (2 ATP come from glycolysis and 36 ATP come from the citric acid cycle) In what organelle do carbons from glycolysis enter to further energy extraction during aerobic metabolism of glucose? - correct answer ✔✔mitochondria Is aerobic (oxidative) breakdown of glucose very efficient? Explain. Is it very fast? Explain. - correct answer ✔✔Aerobic breakdown of glucose is done within the mitochondria and it is not fast, but very efficient. Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is then decarboxylated into acetate. Acetate then moves into the citric acid cycle. The CAC releases electrons into the Electron transport chain which creates energy to power ATP-synthase. ATP-synthase phosphorylates ADP→ ATP. This process gives you over 30 ATP (around 36 ATP). The process takes a longer time but is very efficient and produces loads of ATP From one molecule of glucose using glycolysis alone, how many ATPs can be made? - correct answer ✔✔2 ATP Can the same steps/outcome of the aerobic (oxidative) breakdown of glucose be done "anaerobically"? Explain. Is this very fast? Explain. Is this very efficient? Explain. Is oxygen necessary? Explain. - correct answer ✔✔Yes, anaerobic breakdown of glucose is called glycolysis and it occurs in the cytoplasm without oxygen. This form of breakdown is very fast, but not efficient. The process breaks down glucose into 2 pyruvates with the release of 2 ATP. Be especially mindful of the comparison between fast twitch glycolytic fibers vs. slow twitch oxidative in terms of: myoglobin content, twitch speed, glycogen content, endurance, ability to thicken upon exercise, ability to conduct anaerobic glycolysis, lactate production (What is the significance lactate production?). - correct answer ✔✔Weight bearing exercises like weight training hypertrophy muscles to get more power in fast twitch fibers. what is the most common neuron type? - correct answer ✔✔multipolar neurons axon hillock definition - correct answer ✔✔the launching pad for an action potential "trigger zone" definition - correct answer ✔✔the site where if passed the neuron will initiate an action potential Know pathways mediated by sensory (afferent pathways) neurons (what type of neuron is such a sensory neuron) from the surface of the body to the spinal cord. - correct answer ✔✔The sensory division is the pathway mediated by sensory neurons. Pseudo-unipolar neurons are used here dorsal root of spinal nerve - correct answer ✔✔These structures contain the axons of the autonomic sensory neurons. conducts afferent information ventral root of spinal nerve - correct answer ✔✔This structure contains the cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons that innervate the skeletal muscles. conducts efferent information dorsal root ganglion - correct answer ✔✔a nodule on a dorsal root that contains cell bodies of afferent spinal nerve neurons gray matter of spinal cord - correct answer ✔✔surrounds the central canal. nerve cell bodies arranged in a butterfly shape with anterior and posterior "horns" white matter of spinal cord - correct answer ✔✔This area surrounds the gray matter. It is composed of both myelinated and unmyelinated axons. It has three regions, anterior, lateral, and posterior columns. Where do the cell bodies of such sensory neurons congregate? - correct answer ✔✔dorsal root ganglion Explain the difference of how a sensory neuron will circuit with spinal cord motor neurons if one "touches velvet" compared with the situation if one stabs oneself or burns oneself (Hint: Reflex) - correct answer ✔✔If a person stabs or burns themselves, it initiates a reflex Specifically, where are motor somatic motor neurons located within the gray matter of the spinal cord? - correct answer ✔✔Ventral horn What is the difference(s) between somatic motor pathways vs autonomic motor pathways (hint: relay station, conscious control of motor neuron/position of motor neuron in spinal cord)? - correct answer ✔✔Somatic motor pathways are under conscious control while autonomic motor pathways are under unconscious control (happens automatically) When one does a curl and stimulates the contraction of the biceps, one also simultaneously relaxes the biceps, yet no motor neuron can directly signal a muscle it controls to relax. How can this be explained? - correct answer ✔✔Curling your bicep, you're doing 2 different things. Stimulating your bicep by motor neurons that are firing action potentials Also have motor neurons that are inhibiting your triceps The inhibition of this occurs at the level of the motor neuron that's being controlled by the brain By doing a bicep curl, our brain inhibits the motor neurons that control our triceps so that they aren't activated. simultaneously its stimulating the motor neuron that controls the bicep to contract without having to fight the tricep muscle. For graded potentials explain the term "dying out locally" - correct answer ✔✔Decrement means the potential will die out locally and decrease (can't hear the teachers voice from back of classroom). For graded potentials explain the term "the response is proportional to the stimulus" - correct answer ✔✔means that a smaller stimulus causes a smaller graded potential Can depolarizations be graded potentials? - correct answer ✔✔yes Can hyperpolarizations be graded potentials? - correct answer ✔✔yes Can graded potentials summate? - correct answer ✔✔yes Define summation insofar as graded potentials are concerned? - correct answer ✔✔stimulus can stand on the shoulders of the previous one What else have you learned about in this class that can undergo summation? - correct answer ✔✔a twitch can What kind of ion would you have to inject or introduce into the cell to get a hyperpolarization? - correct answer ✔✔To induce hyperpolarization, chloride ion (Cl-) could be injected into the cell or potassium (K+) could exit the cell. What kind of ion would you have to inject or introduce into the cell to get a depolarization? - correct answer ✔✔To induce depolarization, sodium ions (Na+) can be injected into the cell What ions discussed could potentially be depolarizing? - correct answer ✔✔sodium ions (Na+) What ions discussed could potentially be hyperpolarizing? - correct answer ✔✔potassium Can graded potential be experienced by all cells or just excitable cell? - correct answer ✔✔Graded potentials can be experienced by all cells. What are excitable cells? - correct answer ✔✔cells capable of initiating AP how do resting membrane potentials and action potentials of neurons compare with resting membrane potentials and action potentials of muscles? - correct answer ✔✔they are basically the same except the resting membrane potential for neurons is -85 mV and for muscles it is -70mV. Can action potentials in either type of excitable cell blend together or summate? - correct answer ✔✔Action potentials cannot summate What is the general purpose of glial cells? - correct answer ✔✔Support cells for neurons (neurons cannot function without glial cells-> think of hospital analogy) What is the ~ratio of glial cells to neurons in the brain? - correct answer ✔✔Most of the cells in the brain are glial cells not neurons Explain how a neuron "decides" to fire at any given time based on the balance of ESPs and IPSPs summating from its synapses. - correct answer ✔✔The neuron is constantly summing all of the depolarizing (EPSP) and hyperpolarizing (IPSP) synapses that are imparted to it at any point in time. If the summation is above -55mv then it will fire an action potential If the summation of the EPSPs and IPSPS are great enough to drive the trigger zone to threshold then what happens? - correct answer ✔✔If the summation is great enough to drive the trigger zone to -55mv then an action potential will be fired If the summation mentioned previously is not great enough to drive the trigger zone to threshold, then what happens....or does not happen? - correct answer ✔✔If the summation is not great enough to drive the trigger zone to threshold nothing happens For the neurotransmitters discussed in class, what ions do they regulate at post synaptic membranes? - correct answer ✔✔Sodium and chloride How is the neurotransmitter Acetylcholine signal abolished? - correct answer ✔✔acetylcholine esterase How is the neurotransmitter Norepinephrine signal abolished? - correct answer ✔✔removed via vacuum/transporter protein (secondary active transport) How is the neurotransmitter Serotonin signal abolished? - correct answer ✔✔removed via vacuum/transporter protein (secondary active transport) What are cholinergic circuits linked to in the functioning of the brain? - correct answer ✔✔Thinking and memory? For acetylcholine Is there a famous disease in which the neurons of these circuits start getting sick and begin dying? - correct answer ✔✔Alzheimers Though far from a cure, is there a type of drug that can be used to gently boost the functioning of these circuits and allow these neurons that die in Alzheimers to function a little longer than they otherwise would? - correct answer ✔✔Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors How would this type of drug work to allow neurons related to Alzheimers function longer? - correct answer ✔✔inhibits the inhibitor to boost acetylcholine levels in the synapse (prevents it from being broken down so it can function for longer) What are the serotonin secreting neurons (seratonergic neurons) and Norepinephrine (Adrenergic neurons) famous for maintaining? - correct answer ✔✔mood Does the underperformance of the secretion of adrenergic and or seratonergic neurons correlate to a clinical condition? - correct answer ✔✔correlates to depression. Are there ways to boost the functioning of these adrenergic and or seratonergic neurons? (Hint: one life style change, one pharmaceutical avenue). - correct answer ✔✔Lifestyle change: exercise Pharmaceutical avenue: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)- ex: Prozac What is GABA, what is it derived from and what type of ligand gated ion channel on the post synaptic membrane is it often matched with? Based on your answer, does it have hyperpolarizing (IPSP) effects on the Post synaptic membrane or depolarizing (EPSP) effects on the post synaptic membrane? - correct answer ✔✔Gamma aminobutyric acid Derived from Glutamic acid Ligand gated ion channel= Cl- It has hyperpolarizing (IPSP) effects on the post synaptic membrane What are barbiturates and how do they affect GABAnergic synapses? - correct answer ✔✔Barbiturates can calm someone down and sleep, very powerful and suppress neurons and could cause death. Barbiturate binding enhances GABA binding which opens Chloride channels causing prolonged inhibition of post synaptic neuron. What are uses of barbiturates and what can an overdose cause? - correct answer ✔✔Used in anesthesia and executions Overdose= death because it would completely shut down the nervous system Telencephalon - correct answer ✔✔aka cerebrum, biggest part of the brain Cerebrum - correct answer ✔✔aka telencephalon. Area of the brain responsible for all voluntary activities of the body gyrus - correct answer ✔✔gyrus (singular)/gyri (plural). A convoluted ridge between anatomical grooves/sulcus. sulcus - correct answer ✔✔sulcus (singular)/sulci (plural), creases brain tracts: tractus - correct answer ✔✔lots of fibers white matter of brain - correct answer ✔✔myelinated axons. carry signals from one part of the CNS to another corpus callosum - correct answer ✔✔the large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them. important for integrative function Diencephalon - correct answer ✔✔structure in between brain stem and cerebrum, composed of hypothalamus and thalamus Thalamus - correct answer ✔✔the brain's sensory control center (except for olfactory), located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla central sulcus - correct answer ✔✔dividing line between frontal and parietal lobe cerebral cortex - correct answer ✔✔outer region of the cerebrum, containing sheets of nerve cells; gray matter of the brain Lobes of the cortex - correct answer ✔✔frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, insulator -inner layer "retina, macula lutea, fovea centralis, optic disc" Know the tunics (the layers of the eyeball) - correct answer ✔✔SUPERFICIAL------->DEEP Sclera----Choroid----Retina Sclera= white of the eyeball Choroid= very vascularized Know the three major cell types embedded within the retina and know their relative position from most deep to most superficial and vice versa, with most superficial defined as the cells closest to encountering a photon. - correct answer ✔✔SUPERFICIAL Ganglion cells Bipolar cells Photoreceptors (rods and cones) DEEP what cells directly receive the photons? - correct answer ✔✔ganglion cells compare and contrast rods and cones. - correct answer ✔✔Rods: - activated in low light (before cones) -they make out black & white, gray, and fuzzy objects (so not a clear picture) -they are more sensitive than cones -when you have a dark room and barely turn lights up, these are what are activated Cones: -activated in bright light -they give you a crisp, clear, and colored vision of objects -they are less sensitive Both: -communicate synaptically through bipolar neurons (center of retina) Know the order in which cells of the retina synaptically activate each other upon light stimulus. - correct answer ✔✔Light(stimulus) → ganglion cells→ Bipolar cells→ Photoreceptors (rods and cones) Axons from what retinal cell converge to form the optic nerve? - correct answer ✔✔Axons from the Ganglionic cell layer What general class of neuron are the axons from the ganglionic cell layer? - correct answer ✔✔... Where are bipolar neurons in the retina and what is their role? - correct answer ✔✔-Bipolar neurons are located in the middle of the retina -role: When photoreceptors are activated they synapse with the bipolar neurons which then stimulate the multipolar ganglion cells which take information along the surface of the retina. All of the axons of the ganglion cells converge into an optic disc which exits the back of the eye and becomes the optic nerve