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A comprehensive set of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various topics in biology 2420. It serves as a valuable resource for students preparing for their final exam, offering a thorough review of key concepts and principles. The questions cover a wide range of subjects, including cell structure, metabolism, genetics, and microbiology, providing a comprehensive assessment of the student's understanding of the course material.
Typology: Exams
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Living entities, surrounded by a membrane, that are capable of growing, reproducing, responding and metabolizing are known as: A) Cells B) biofilms C) bioreactors - ANS- Cells ________ contain a nucleus composed of genetic material surrounded by a membrane: A) pseudokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) prokaryotes D) enzymes - ANS- Eukaryotes ________ cells are those that do not have a membrane-bound nucleus: A) pseudokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) prokaryotes D) fungi - ANS- Prokaryotes Bacteria are: A) eukaryotic B) prokaryotic C) mixokaryotic D) monokaryotic - ANS- Prokaryotic Who demonstrated that cell-produced proteins called enzymes were responsible for chemical reactions in a cell? A) A. Leeuwenhoek B) R. Koch C) L. Pasteur D) J. Lister E) E. Buchner - ANS- E. Buchner
Proteins are polymers of: A) amino acids B) nucleotides C) polysaccharides D) glucose - ANS- Amino Acids Which is an example of a polysaccharide: A) Cellulose B) Glucose C) Enzymes D) pili - ANS- Cellulose Short, hair-like- external structures of bacteria are called: A) cilia B) flagella C) fimbriae D) pseudopodia - ANS- Fimbriae The monomers that make up nucleic acids are: A) nucleotides B) amino acids C) lipids - ANS- Nucleotides (uracil, cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine) Reactions that require energy are called ________ reactions: A) endergonic B) endothermic C) exergonic D) exothermic - ANS- Endothermic Has an axial filament: A) E. coli
B) B. burgdoferi C) S. aureus D) P. aeruginosa - ANS- B. burgdoferi A microbe is moving toward a food source. This is an example of: A) reproduction B) metabolism C) responsiveness D) growth - ANS- Responsiveness It is a period characterized by cell doubling. Metabolic activity is at maximum level in the _________ phase of growth. A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary - ANS- Log The period where the individual bacteria are maturing and not yet able to divide. A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary - ANS- Lag Metabolic activity stays halts/ends & bacteria die is the ______ phase of growth. A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary - ANS- Death Where in a bacterial cell is the most ATP generated? A) cytoplasma membrane
B) flagella C) cytosol D) nucleus E) mitochondria - ANS- Cytoplasma Membrane Metabolic activity stays steady is the ______ phase of growth. Is often due to a growth-limiting factor such as the depletion of an essential nutrient, and/or the formation of an inhibitory product such as an organic acid. Results from a situation in which growth rate and death rate are equal A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary - ANS- Stationary Human pathogens are classified as: A) thermophiles B) mesophiles C) psychrophiles - ANS- Mesophiles An organism that grows at intermediate temperatures. Grows b/t 10-45 degrees C. Includes many common types of bacteria and those that live on/in warm blooded. A) thermophiles B) mesophiles C) psychrophiles - ANS- Mesophiles Organisms that are found in conditions hot enough that most organisms cannot tolerate them. A) thermophiles B) mesophiles C) psychrophiles - ANS- Thermophiles Bacteria that prefer cold, thriving at temperatures between 0C and 25C A) thermophiles B) mesophiles
C) psychrophiles - ANS- Psychrophiles Proteins that promote chemical reactions in the cell are called: A) flagella B) enzymes C) spores D) biofilm - ANS- Enzymes NAD is a: A) Protein B) electron-carrier C) RNA - ANS- Protein Where glycolysis occurs: A) cytoplasm B) cell wall C) cytoplasm membrane - ANS- Cytoplasm Pyruvic acid is a product of: A) ETC B) Krebs cycle C) glycolysis - ANS- Glycolysis ATP, NADH, FADH2 is a product of: A) ETC B) Krebs cycle C) glycolysis - ANS- Krebs cycle Loosely attached to cell surface of some bacteria are: A) flagella B) capsule
C) fimbria D) slime layer - ANS- Slime layer Bacterial communities that are embedded in a self produced matrix, and are attached to a surface are known as: A) Quorum sensing B) capsule C) biofilm D) slime layer - ANS- Biofilm The sum of all genetic material in a cell is known as: A) Genetics B) Genome C) Gene D) Operon - ANS- Genome All the genetic information in an organism; all of an organism's chromosomes. - ANS- Genome A segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait - ANS- Gene Scientific study of heredity - ANS- Genetics A segment of DNA containing adjacent genes including structural genes and an operator gene and a regulatory gene - ANS- Operon C. pseudodiphtheriticum divide by: A) binary fission B) budding C) snapping division - ANS- Snapping division This type of division occurs in some gram + bacilli like Corynebacterium/Diphtheria: A) binary fission
B) budding C) snapping division - ANS- Snapping division A form of asexual reproduction of yeast in which a new cell grows out of the body of a parent. - ANS- Budding A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size - ANS- Binary Fission Asexual reproduction in which the parent cell's outer wall tears apart with a snapping movement to create the daughter cells - ANS- Snapping Division The division of a cells's cytoplasm is known as: A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis - ANS- Cytokinesis A specific sequence of DNA that encode for a protein is known as: A) genome B) gene C) genotype D) phenotype - ANS- Gene An organism's genetic makeup, or allele combinations - ANS- Genotype The physical features and functional traits of bacteria are known as: A) genotype B) phenotype C) heterotype - ANS- Phenotype Which of the following is the strongest base pair: A) adenine-thymine
B) guanine-cytosine C) adenine-guanine - ANS- Guanine-Cytosine Which of the following nucleotide bases are in DNA: A) adenine B) thymine C) cytosine D) guanine E) uracil - ANS- adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine Which of the following nucleotide bases are in RNA: A) adenine B) thymine C) cytosine D) guanine E) uracil - ANS- adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil The enzyme that unzips the double helix is: A) DNA ligase B) DNA helicase C) DNA polymerase D) recombinase - ANS- DNA Helicase An enzyme that joins together fragments of DNA is called: A) DNA ligase B) DNA helicase C) DNA polymerase - ANS- DNA Ligase (facilitates the joining of DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond.) The enzyme involved in DNA replication that joins individual nucleotides to produce DNA Molecule: A) DNA ligase
B) DNA helicase C) DNA polymerase - ANS- DNA polymerase (type of enzyme that is responsible for forming new copies of DNA, in the form of nucleic acid molecules.) What is DNA polymerase? A. is an enzyme. B. adds new nucleotides to a strand. C. proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct. D. makes rare mistakes resulting in mutation. E. is all of these. - ANS- is all of these. (Is an enzyme, adds new nucleotides to a strand, proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct, and makes rare mistakes resulting in mutation) The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as: A) transcription B) translation C) transfusion - ANS- Transcription What is RNA formed by? What are proteins formed by? A. replication; translation B. translation; transcription C. transcription; translation D. replication; transcription - ANS- Transcription;Translation. The term "sticky ends" is associated with: A) translation B) expression C) Restriction enzymes D) glycolysis - ANS- Restriction Enzymes DNA molecules that deliver a gene into a cell are known as: A) PCR B) Vectors
C) Electroporators D) Transplant - ANS- Vectors (eg. plasmids) The process of ___________ is described as semiconservative: A) transcription B) translation C) DNA replication D) Protein replication E) RNA replication - ANS- DNA Replication The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen. - ANS- Involves a virus The horizontal transfer process known as Transformation primarily: A) involves a virus. B) involves bacteria C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen. - ANS- Involves bacteria, competent, plasmid The horizontal transfer process known as conjugation: A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen. - ANS- Requires a pilus, plasmid
Using which technique can be produced a large number of DNA molecules: A) Protein synthesis B) Gel electrophoresis C) Microarray D) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) - ANS- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Which are most resistant? A) enveloped viruses B) E. coli C) Saccharomyces D) endospores - ANS- Endospores Which of the following are considered to be a frameshift mutations A) insertions B) inversions C) investing - ANS- insertions (& deletions) Promotors are initiations points in the process of: A) DNA replication B) transcription C) translation D) mutation - ANS- Transcription What is a binding site for an RNA polymerase called? A. gene B. promoter C. codon D. protein - ANS- Promoter Beta-lactams act on:
A) Cell Wall Synthesis B) Protein Synthesis C) DNA Synthesis - ANS- Cell Wall Synthesis Pleomorphic bacteria are: A) bacilli B) cocci C) spherical D) vary in size and shape - ANS- Vary in size and shape Bacteria reproduce: A) sexually B) asexually - ANS- Asexually Which bacteria protect intestinal tract and vagina from invasion by pathogens: A) Bacillus B) Listeria C) Lactobacillus D) Streptococcus E) Staphylococcus - ANS- Lactobacillus A virion is composed of an: A) envelope B) capsid C) nucleic acid D) capsid and nucleic acid - ANS- Capsid & nucleic Acid Using which enzyme HIV inserts its DNA into the human chromosome? A) reverse transcriptase B) protease C) integrase
D) DNAse - ANS- Integrase Which enzyme does HIV uses to transcribe DNA to RNA (Synthesis of DNA)? A) reverse transcriptase B) protease C) integrase D) DNAse - ANS- Reverse transcriptase Enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of proteins into smaller peptide fractions and amino acids by a process known as proteolysis - ANS- Protease All Prion diseases results in what sign/symptoms? A) diarrhea B) open wounds C) fever D) neurological degradation E) inflamation - ANS- Neurological degradation Normal microbiota that can cause disease are known as: A) opportunistic pathogens B) Obligate pathogens - ANS- Opportunistic pathogens Are organisms that cannot survive for long outside of the human body: A) opportunistic pathogens B) Obligate pathogens - ANS- Obligate pathogens Diseases that are spread from animal hosts to humans are known as: A) zoology B) zoo C) zoonoses D) animaloses - ANS- Zoonoses
Subjective characteristics of a disease are known as: A) Asymptomatic B) Syndrome C) Signs D) Symptoms - ANS- Symptoms What is the name of molecules released by host cells that inhibit the spread of viral infections: A) pyrogens B) interferons C) prions - ANS- Interferons A chemical circulating in the blood that causes a rise in body temperature. A) pyrogens B) interferons C) prions - ANS- Pyrogens (Bacterial toxins, cytoplasmic contents of bacteria released by lysis and antibody-antigen complexes) _____have been held responsible for a number of degenerative brain diseases, including mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, fatal familial insomnia, kuru, and an unusual form of hereditary dementia known as Gertsmann-Straeussler-Scheinker disease - ANS- Prions Which term describes a disease that is acquired in health care setting: A) neuplastic B) nosocomial C) congenital D) idiopathic - ANS- Nosocomial The study of the antigen-antibody interaction in blood serum is called: A) immunology B) Serology C) cytology
D) geography - ANS- Serology Which test is used to verify the presence of antibodies against the HIV: A) Agglutination B) fluorescent antibody C) western blot - ANS- Western Blot Which of the following bacterial genera is used for the degradation of environmental pollutants? A) Actinomyces B) Streptomyces C) Corynebacterium D) Rhizobium E) Nocardia - ANS- Nocardia During a helminth (parasite) infection increase: A) basofils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes - ANS- Eosinophils (WBC) During a bacterial infection increase: A) basofils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eusinophils E) lymphocytes - ANS- Neutrophils During a viral infection increase: A) basofils B) macrophages
C) neutrophils D) eusinophils E) lymphocytes - ANS- Lymphocytes Which of the following is a sign of disease? A) headache B) dizzness C) fever D) nuasea E) cramps - ANS- Fever Which of the following types of toxins are produced only by Gram-negative bacteria: A) neurotoxins B) endotoxins C) cytotoxins - ANS- Endotoxins Short polypeptides that act against microorganisms are known as: A) sulfonylamide B) antimicrobial peptide C) antimicrobial DNAs - ANS- antimicrobial peptide Antigens are? A) foreign molecules B) cells that do protect our body C) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen - ANS- Foreign molecules What is the most efficient way to control infectious disease? A) active immunization by vaccination B) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins C) immune testing D) immunoglobulins
E) drinking tea - ANS- Active immunization by vaccination Subunit vaccines are produced with: A) antigenic fragments of microbes B) deactivated but whole microbes - ANS- Antigenic fragments of microbes _______ is a relationship in which both members benefit: A) symbiosis B) antagonism C) mutualism D) commensalism - ANS- Mutualism Virulent strains of S. aureus can resist penicillin because they can produce: A) A slime layer B) coagulase C) beta-lactamase D) staphylokinase E) lipase - ANS- Beta-lactamase Chickenpox and _______ is caused by the same virus: A) caries B) shingles C) cancer D) diarrhea E) malaria - ANS- Shingles What is the usual cause of endocarditis: A) soil bacteria B) normal microbiota C) zoonotic pathogens D) prions - ANS- Normal Microbiota
Which bacterial species are the causative agents of impetigo and erysipelas: A) S. typhimurium and E. coli B) B. burgdoferii and L. monocytogenes C) S. aureus and S. pyogenes - ANS- S. Aureus & S. Pyogenes Fluctuating fever that spikes every afternoon is a sign of: A) tularemia B) brucellosis C) lyme disease D) plague - ANS- Brucellosis A green pigment produced by P. aeruginosa that contributes to tissue damage is: A) streptokinase B) pyocyanin C) lipase D) hyaluronidase - ANS- Pyocyanin Lyses Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, & Platelets: A) streptokinase B) pyocyanin C) lipase D) hyaluronidase - ANS- Streptokinase Staphylococcus pathogens use ______ as a virulence factor to destroy the polysaccharide that holds animal cells together, making it easier for the pathogen to spread through the tissues of the host organism A) streptokinase B) pyocyanin C) lipase D) hyaluronidase - ANS- Hyaluronidase
What is the causative agent of most peptic ulcers: A) N. meningitidis B) H. influenzae C) H. pylori D) E. coli - ANS- H. Pylori Which term refers to hard nodules in the lungs: A) tubercules B) caseous necrosis C) tuberculous cavities - ANS- Tubercules Which type of the leprosy disease is more severe? A) tuberculoid B) lepromatous - ANS- Lepromatous A virulence factor for S. mutans is: A) LPS B) Flagella C) dextran D) mycolic acid E) neurotoxin - ANS- Dextran (produce a sticky, extracellular, dextran-based polysaccharide that allows them to cohere, forming plaque) Viral meningitis is more serious than bacterial meningitis. A) True B) False - ANS- False Endotoxin (lipid A) is released by: A) gram (+) bacteria B) gram (-) bacteria - ANS- Gram -
"Vegetations" is caused by bacterial colonization of: A) ear B) endocardium C) skin D) wounds - ANS- Endocardium Urease is an important virulence factor of: A) Salmonella B) S. aureus C) Francisella D) Helicobacter E) E. coli - ANS- Helicobacter The major cause of bacterial pharyngitis is: A) S. typhi B) B. burgdorferi C) F. tularensis D) S. pyogenes - ANS- S. Pyogenes The terms "Antigenic Drift" and "Antigenic Shift" are associated with: A) Protozoa B) Viruses C) bacteria - ANS- Viruses Diphtheria toxin: A) initiates adherence of bacteria into cells B) prevents protein synthesis of the cell - ANS- Prevents protein synthesis of the cell The microaerophilic bacterium H. pylori causes: A) pharyngitis B) diarrhea
C) peptic ulcers D) pneumonia - ANS- Peptic Ulcers Microaerophilic means: A) bacteria grow under less oxygen conditions B) bacteria grow under high oxygen conditions - ANS- Bacteria grow under less oxygen conditions Saccharomyces in an example of which of the following types of microorganisms? A) fungi B) protozoa C) bacteria D) alga E) virus - ANS- Fungi Multicellular, filamentus fungi are: A) Yeasts B) Molds - ANS- Molds Type of fungus that grows in multicellular filaments called hyphae. These tubular branches have multiple, genetically identical nuclei, yet form a single organism, known as a colony - ANS- Mold Is a type of fungus that grows as a single cell - ANS- Yeast A. niger is an example of which of the following types of microorganisms? A) fungi B) protozoa C) algae D) viruses - ANS- Fungi Microbes that move by means of cilia are: A) fungi
B) protozoa C) bacteria D) alga E) virus - ANS- Protozoa Micrococcus luteus is a motile bacterium: A) true B) false - ANS- False The "ciliary motility" is a motility form of: A) Amoeba B) Paramecium C) E. coli D) Saccharomyces - ANS- Paramecium Resolution is best described as: A) the ability to magnify a specimen B) the ability to distinguish between two adjacent objects C) the difference between two waves - ANS- Distinguish between two adjacent objects Which of these eukaryotes has flagella: A) Paramecium B) Euglena C) Amoeba - ANS- Euglena Pseudopodia are movement organelles of: A) Paramecium B) Euglena C) Amoeba - ANS- Amoeba The 4X objective is sufficient for observing bacteria:
A) true B) false - ANS- False E. coli is an example of which of the following types of microorganisms? A) fungi B) protozoa C) algae D) viruses E) bacteria - ANS- Bacteria Positively charged dyes will stain bacteria? A) true B) false - ANS- True Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on their: A) ATP B) endospore C) cell wall D) integral proteins - ANS- Cell Wall In the Gram staining Iodine serves as a: A) counterstain B) mordant C) primary stain D) decolorizing agent - ANS- Mordant Crystal violet is the ________ in the gram stain: A) counterstain B) mordant C) primary stain D) decolorizing agent - ANS- Primary stain
What role does safranin play in the gram stain: A) counterstain B) mordant C) primary stain D) decolorizing agent - ANS- Counterstain Staining procedure that uses a single positively charged dye is called a _______ stain. A) simple B) negative C) gram - ANS- Simple Extracellular extensions that provide motility of some bacteria are: A) cilia B) flagella C) pseudopodia - ANS- Flagella We did staining of specimens with dyes to increase: A) wave length B) magnification C) contrast D) resolution - ANS- Contrast Is M. luteus a gram-, or a gram+ bacterium? A) gram- B) gram+ - ANS- Gram + An example of acid-fast bacterium is: A) E. coli B) Bacillus C) Mycobacterium