BKAT 9R EXAM Questions with 100% verified solutions Latest Updates 2024 GRADE A+, Exams of Engineering

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BKAT 9R EXAM Questions with 100%

verified solutions Latest Updates 2024

GRADE A+

The following monitor would indicate that the pulmonary artery (Swan Ganz) catheter is in which position?

1. Superior vena cava
2. Right ventricle
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge) Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge) A systolic murmur that is auscultated at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border is called:
5. aortic insufficiency
6. aortic stenosis
7. pulmonary insufficiency
8. pulmonic stenosis aortic stenosis Which of the following wave patterns indicates proper functioning of an arterial line? High to low After an arterial catheter is removed, direct pressure should generally be applied to the artery:
9. For 2 full minutes
10. For 8 - 10 minutes
11. Until the oozing of blood from the puncture site slows
12. Until a pressure dressing is applied For 8 - 10 minutes A central venous pressure CVP reading directly reflects pressure in the:
13. Left atrium

2. Right atrium

3. Left ventricle
4. Pulmonary artery Right atrium An elevated CVP reading may indicate:
5. Right heart failure
6. A fall in blood pressure
7. Acute dehydration
8. Onset of left ventricle failure Right heart failure The pulmonary artery occlusive (wedge) pressure (PAOP) reflects pressure in the:
9. aorta
10. left ventricle
11. right atrium
12. vena cava left ventricle The normal pulmonary artery pressure is:
13. (10-20)/(0-4) mean 5 - 10
14. (21-30)/(5-15) mean 11 - 20
15. (31-35)/(16-20) mean 21 - 30
16. (36-45)/(21-23) mean 31 - 33 11 - 2 How many mm Hg is the normal PAOP
17. 1 - 3
18. 6 - 12
19. 15 - 20
20. 21 - 26 6 - 12

An elevated PAOP may indicate:

1. Hypovolemia
2. Peripheral vasodilation
3. systemic hypotension
4. left ventricular failure left ventricular failure Mr. Adams, a 68 yo patient, complains of feeling "a little funny in his chest." His ECG shows atrial fibrillation/flutter. Which of the following medications could be used to treat his cardiac rhythm?
5. Digoxin
6. Nifedipine
7. Diltiazem
8. Adenosine Diltiazem A QRS complex wider than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates:
9. Normal sinus node conduction
10. Bundle branch block
11. Second degree heart block
12. myocardial infarction bundle branch block The following rhythm represents: First degree HB Special care should be exercised when administering IV dopamine because:
13. Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis
14. High doses may lead to a profound bradycardia
15. Precipitation can occur when used in a dextrose IV solution

4. even low doses decrease renal perfusion Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis The following strip is: Aflutter A strong ventricular stimulus is potentially dangerous when it lands on the:
5. U wave
6. P wave
7. T wave
8. QRS complex T wave The rhythm strip below shows: VTach An indication for use of an external cardiac pacemaker includes:
9. paroxysmal atria tachycardia
10. Ventricular fibrillation
11. Wenckebach (Mobitz Block Type 1)
12. Symptomatic complete heart block Symptomatic complete heart block In the following rhythm strip the transvenous pacemaker shows:
13. Failure to sense
14. Demand pacing
15. Failure to fire
16. Failure to capture Failure to sense The initial drug treatment for sustained ventricular tachycardia when a pulse is present is:

1. Isuprel 1.0 mg in 250 ml D5W drip
2. Epinephrine 1.0 mg IV push
3. Atropine 0.5 mg IV push
4. Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 mn Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 min The rhythm strip below is: Vfib The cardiac rhythm of atrial flutter is:
5. benign condition in most people
6. normal following AMI
7. hazardous, as the ventricular ate may suddenly increase
8. hazardous, as it may progress to second degree heart block Hazardous, as the ventricular rate may suddenly increase Upon recognizing ventricular fibrillation in an ICU, the next thing the nurse should do is:
9. perform a precordial thump
10. establish unresponsiveness
11. give amiodarone IV
12. check the ECG leads Establish unresponsiveness The treatment in an emergency situation for complete heart block is:
13. a trial of atropine
14. preparing for transcutaneous pacing
15. doing cardiac compressions
16. using digoxin Preparing for transcutaneous pacing

Your patient has atrial flutter with a ventricular response of 150 beats per minute. Therapy for this rhythm includes:

1. Digoxin, a temporary pacemaker, potassium chloride
2. Lidocaine, sodium bicarb, cardioversion
3. Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion
4. Isordil, nitropaste, pronestyl Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion Signs of cardiac tamponade do not include which response below?
5. distended neck veins
6. pulsus paradoxus
7. decreased systolic pressure
8. bradycardia bradycardia In the patient with ventricular fibrillation, the correct energy setting for the first defibrillation when using a biphasic defibrillator is how many joules?
9. 240
10. 360
11. 150
12. 80 150 A patient becomes apneic and pulseless. The monitor shows asystole. The drug that would most likely be used initially is:
13. verapamil
14. atropine
15. epinephrine
16. amiodarone Epinephrine

The antidote for heparin is:

1. Protamine sulfate
2. Narcan
3. Glucagone hydrochloride
4. vitamin K Protamine sulfate The most important step in preventing central venous catheter related sepsis is:
5. Use of a transparent membrane dressing
6. Scrubbing access ports with alcohol
7. using antibiotic ointment under the dressing
8. thorough hand washing Thorough hand washing An excessive amount of chest tube drainage in the first few hours following thoracic surgery is how many ml's per hour?
9. 150
10. 75
11. 50
12. 30 150 A routine check of your patient's blood gas values show a pH of 7.40, pO2 of 98 mm Hg, pCO2 of 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 25 mEq. These results reflect:
13. metabolic acidosis
14. metabolic alkalosis
15. normal values
16. respiratory compensation normal values

Before suctioning a patient, you adjust the vacuum pressure so that it is:

1. 150 mm Hg of vacuum pressure
2. as high as needed to effectively remove secretions
3. 120 mm Hg of vacuum pressure
4. no higher than the diastolic blood pressure 120 mm Hg of pressure Your post-operative patient has a left anterior chest tube. When you auscultate the lung fields bilaterally, you hear diminished breath sounds in the right posterior base. This would most likely be due to:
5. pleuritis
6. consolidation
7. the chest tube
8. atelectasis atelectasis Your patient is on a ventilator. The low volume alarm sounds. This may be due to:
9. pulmonary edema
10. increasing secretions
11. a disconnected tube
12. biting the tube a disconnected tube To assess proper positioning of an endotracheal tube, the most appropriate nursing action would be to:
13. check for a change in the respiratory rate
14. listen for bilateral breath sounds

3. check for chest expansion
4. listen for minimal leak of the cuff Listen for bilateral breath sounds Mr. Ray has an endotracheal tube. While you are making rounds, you ask if his breathing is okay. In an audible tone, he says "yes". You should first:
5. raise the head of the bed
6. ask the patient to cough
7. notify the physician
8. check the functioning of the cuff check the functioning of the cuff The high pressure alarm on a volume respirator will not be triggered by which response below?
9. biting on the tube
10. pulmonary edema
11. leaking cuff
12. decreased lung compliance leaking cuff The most important reason for diminishing breath sounds in a motor vehicle crash victim with closed chest trauma is:
13. chest pain when breathing normally
14. a pulmonary bleed
15. development of a pneumothorax
16. cervical spinal-cord injury Development of a pneumothorax

A moderately burned trauma patient is admitted to your unit. The most important treatment related to the burns during the first 24 hours after injury is:

1. fluid replacement
2. accurate administration of antibiotics
3. pain relief measures
4. early wound cultures fluid replacement Your trauma patient, who is 4 days post fracture of the right femur, suddenly develops shortness of breath. The most likely cause is:
5. Fat embolus
6. Pneumonia
7. Pleural effusion
8. Pulmonary edema Fat embolism To help prevent ventilator acquired pneumonia (VAP), the most important nursing action would be to:
9. keeping FIO2 at 60%
10. changing the ventilator tubing qshift
11. careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning
12. treat low peak-inspiratory pressures Careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning The most important nursing activity for a patient admitted with the diagnosis of cervical spinal cord injury is:
13. keeping the patient flat
14. immobilizing the head
15. noting change in feeling extremities

4. doing hourly neuro checks Immobilizing the head In a patient with cervical spine injury, the most important observations the nurse makes concerns which of the following physiological parameters?
5. heart rate
6. respirations
7. urinary output
8. pupillary response to light respirations The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure generally involves changes in:
9. response to pain
10. level of consciousness
11. equality of pupillary reactions
12. respiratory rate level of consciousness
13. Deepening intracranial pressure is characterized by:
14. tachycardia
15. pinpoint pupils
16. widened pulse pressure
17. increasing respirations Widened pulse pressure The drug of choice used to reduce increased intracranial pressure is:
18. the calcium channel blocker

2. phenobarbital
3. Mannitol
4. Furosemide (Lasix) Mannitol A positive Babinski response in an adult:
5. Indicates depressed reflexes
6. Is an expected finding
7. Is plantar flexion (curling under) of the toes
8. Indicates an abnormal finding Indicates an abnormal finding The nursing care of patient during the acute phase of a stroke does not include which response below?
9. Providing a quiet environment for the patient and family
10. Control of airway breathing and secretions
11. Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke
12. Alertness to any bleeding that might occur Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke The most important part of a neuro check is:
13. Testing strength of grip
14. Assessing pupillary response to light
15. Evaluating the level of consciousness
16. Comparing any change in speech patterns Evaluating the level of consciousness

Signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include:

1. Increasingly severe headache, and slow and shallow breathing
2. Hyperactivity, and diaphoresis and absence of urine ketones
3. Dilated pupils, and flushed and warm skin
4. Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Impending insulin shock (hypoglycemia) should be suspected when the diabetic patient complains of or manifests:
5. Decreased skin turgor, abdominal pain, restlessness
6. Flushed skin, tachycardia, Kussmal breathing
7. Thirst, hypotension, fruity odor to the breath
8. Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Measures that would be taken to treat a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis coma would not include which response below?
9. Dextrose 50% IV infusion
10. Insulin IV drip
11. Potassium replacements
12. IV fluid administration Dextrose 50% IV infusion Patients with diabetes mellitus who are acutely ill generally require a:
13. higher dose of insulin
14. restricted caloric intake
15. decrease in fluid intake
16. lower dose of insulin Higher dose of insulin

The psychophysiologic stress response from acute illness and being in an ICU can result in decreased:

1. Heart rate
2. Alertness
3. Systolic blood pressure
4. Urine output Urine output Which of the following types of insulin when given sub-q will have a peak action within 2 to 4 hours?
5. Hummulin Lente
6. NPH
7. Lantus (glargine)
8. Regular Regular An unconscious trauma patient who was just admitted to the ICU is a diabetic who received his usual dose of sub-q NPH insulin at 7 AM. In how many hours after administration might you expect an insulin reaction to occur?
9. 1 - 2
10. 3 - 4
11. 8 - 14
12. 18 - 24 8 - 14 A dangerous effect of rapidly re-warming a hypothermic patient is:
13. bradycardia
14. vasodilation and hypotension
15. seizure activity

4. sudden rise in blood pressure vasodilation and hypotension Mrs.Smith, who is post-operative craniotomy patient has a fasting blood sugar of 100mg, complains of extreme thirst, and has a urine greater than 1,000 ml's over two hours. You should suspect:
5. Increasing intracranial pressure
6. Overproduction of ADH
7. Acute adrenal insufficiency
8. Diabetes insipidus Diabetes Insipidus Mrs. Reece, a 64 yo woman with acute renal failure and oliguria, was admitted with congestive heart failure. Which of the following tests is abnormal?
9. BUN of 18 mg/dl
10. Urine specific gravity of 1.
11. Creatinine of 1.0 mg/dl
12. Potassium of 5.8 mEq/L Potassium 5.8 mEq/L A patient is admitted with a probable diagnosis of acute renal failure. The normal ml's of urine output for this 150 pound person per hour is:
13. 75
14. 100
15. 30
16. 10 30

Practices to decrease catheter associated urinary tract infections does not include which response below?

1. Having a protocol for limiting urinary catheter use
2. Use of a reminder system for removal of urinary catheters
3. Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs
4. Providing perineal care during each nursing shift Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs Your patient has acute renal failure. Medications that are normally excreted through the kidneys will probably be:
5. Decreased in dosage
6. Administered as usual
7. Discontinued
8. Increased in frequency Decrease dosage Enteral feeding in acute renal failure commonly includes:
9. High protein, low potassium, low sodium
10. Restricted protein, high potassium, low sodium
11. No protein, high potassium, high sodium
12. Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Sudden development of dyspnea and sinus tachycardia in an acute renal failure patient would most likely indicate which of the following?
13. Hyperkalemia
14. Pulmonary embolism
15. Fluid overload
16. Infection

Fluid overload ECG changes commonly seen in hyperkalemia are:

1. narrow QRS, inverted T wave
2. narrow QRS, high P wave
3. wide QRS, inverted T wave
4. wide QRS, tall peaked T wave Wide QRS, tall peaked T wave When feeding a patient using continuous tube feedings, the most important intervention in preventing aspiration is to:
5. Keep the head of the bed elevated
6. Aspirate stomach contents Q4-6h for residual
7. check the position of the tube feeding each shift
8. turn the patient frequently keep the head of the bed elevated Low intermittent suction of gastric contents is not generally used in which response below?
9. to decompress abdominal distention
10. to prevent aspiration
11. when bowel sounds are absent
12. to control bleeding To control bleeding The safe placement of a nasogastric tube in an unconscious patient can be best assessed by:
13. instilling 30ml of normal saline through the tube
14. aspirating gastric content

3. checking the pH of the gastric aspirate
4. obtaining radiographic confirmation obtaining radiographic confirmation While caring for a day-two post-operative exploratory laparotomy patient, you notice "coffeground" material coming from her nasogastric tube. You should:
5. know this is a normal finding
6. irrigate the tube right aware
7. have the drainage tested for blood
8. listen for overactive bowel sounds have the drainage tested for blood Your patient, who is receiving a blood transfusion, has a sudden increase in body temperature. Your first response is to:
9. take the blood pressure
10. check the blood type of the patient
11. quickly observe for a rash
12. stop the transfusion stop the transfusion In a symptomatic sinus bradycardia, which of the following could be used to increase the heart rate
13. Propanolol
14. Digoxin
15. Atropine
16. Verapamil Atropine Which of the following drugs will crystallize when given IV with D5S?

1. Avelox
2. fosphenytoin
3. Dilantin (phenytoin)
4. phenobarbital Dilantin Precautions in using IV nitroprusside is not included in which response below?
5. protection of the solution from light
6. continuous monitoring for a sudden decrease in blood pressure
7. use of a fresh mixture at appropriate intervals
8. alertness to the development of an acute hypertensive episode Alertness to the development of an acute hypertensive episode The dosage of which drug must be tapered off slowly to prevent acute adrenal insufficiency
9. Nitroprusside
10. Cortisone
11. Phenytoin
12. Pitressin Cortisone Which of the following is not a manifestation of digitalis toxicity.
13. Rapid A-V conduction
14. PAT with block
15. Nausea
16. Yellow vision Rapid A-V conduction

Mr. Clark was admitted to the ICU with burns to his back, legs, and feet following an explosion at his job. He tells you that his wife was health care power of attorney for him. The document gives Mr. Clark's wife the right/responsibility to:

1. make decisions regarding his care in the ICU
2. Decide if Mr. Clark is acting normally
3. sign the informed consent for any skin grafting
4. decide on her husband's care, if he loses consciousness Decide on her husband's care, if he loses consciousness Examples of spiritual care for a seriously ill, conscious patient does not generally include which response below?
5. staying with or being with the patient
6. listening to the patient's concerns
7. telling the patient that everything is going to be all right
8. calling for a clergyman to visit the patient Telling the patient that everything is going to be alright Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris does not include which response below?
9. resting
10. beta blockers
11. oxygen
12. nitroglycerine beta blockers The classical ECG change with muscle injury in acute myocardial infarction is:
13. presence of a Q wave
14. ST segment elevation
15. myocardial electrical irritability
16. a peaked T wave ST segment elevation

Elevated cardiac iso-enzyme generally does not occur in which response below?

1. Closed chest injury
2. pericarditis
3. congestive heart failure
4. cardiac surgery Congestive heart failure The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to:
5. Increase the afterload
6. Improve renal perfusion
7. Increase cardiac output
8. Decrease fluid volume Increase cardiac output You receive orders to starte Nipride and Dobutamine in your patient with end-stage cardiomyopathy. How will this treatment regimen affect cardiac output?
9. Increase preload and reduces afterload
10. Reduces preload and increases afterload
11. Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility
12. Reduces preload and improves contractility Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility In dealing with a depressed patient during the first days post AMI the most appropriate nursing action would be:
13. Encourage to patient to ventilate his/her concerns
14. Provide for privacy so the patient can rest
15. Limit visits only to family members

4. Provide a quiet environment for the patient Encourage the patient to ventilate his/her concerns Mr. Seamore is receiving thrombolytics (TPA) 3 hours after an AMI. Which of the following would most likely require discontinuing the infusion?
5. PVCs
6. Bleeding gums
7. Oozing at the insertion site
8. Change in mental status Change in mental status