BKAT 9R FINAL EXAM Questions and Correct Answers Rated GRADE A+ Latest Updates 2024, Exams of Engineering

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BKAT 9R FINAL EXAM Questions and

Correct Answers Rated GRADE A+

Latest Updates 2024

Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris does not include which response below?

1. resting
2. beta blockers
3. oxygen
4. nitroglycerine - ANSWERS-beta blockers The classical ECG change with muscle injury in acute myocardial infarction is:
5. presence of a Q wave
6. ST segment elevation
7. myocardial electrical irritability
8. a peaked T wave - ANSWERS-ST segment elevation Elevated cardiac iso-enzyme generally does not occur in which response below?
9. Closed chest injury
10. pericarditis
11. congestive heart failure
12. cardiac surgery - ANSWERS-Congestive heart failure The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to:
13. Increase the afterload
14. Improve renal perfusion
15. Increase cardiac output
16. Decrease fluid volume - ANSWERS-Increase cardiac output You receive orders to starte Nipride and Dobutamine in your patient with end-stage cardiomyopathy. How will this treatment regimen affect cardiac output?
17. Increase preload and reduces afterload
18. Reduces preload and increases afterload
19. Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility
20. Reduces preload and improves contractility - ANSWERS-Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility In dealing with a depressed patient during the first days post AMI the most appropriate nursing action would be:
21. Encourage to patient to ventilate his/her concerns
22. Provide for privacy so the patient can rest
23. Limit visits only to family members
24. Provide a quiet environment for the patient - ANSWERS-Encourage the patient to

ventilate his/her concerns

Mr. Seamore is receiving thrombolytics (TPA) 3 hours after an AMI. Which of the following would most likely require discontinuing the infusion?

1. PVCs
2. Bleeding gums
3. Oozing at the insertion site
4. Change in mental status - ANSWERS-Change in mental status The following monitor would indicate that the pulmonary artery (Swan Ganz) catheter is in which position?
5. Superior vena cava
6. Right ventricle
7. Pulmonary artery
8. Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge) - ANSWERS-Pulmonary artery occlusion (wedge) A systolic murmur that is auscultated at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border is called:
9. aortic insufficiency
10. aortic stenosis
11. pulmonary insufficiency
12. pulmonic stenosis - ANSWERS-aortic stenosis Which of the following wave patterns indicates proper functioning of an arterial line? - ANSWERS-High to low After an arterial catheter is removed, direct pressure should generally be applied to the artery:
13. For 2 full minutes
14. For 8- 10 minutes
15. Until the oozing of blood from the puncture site slows
16. Until a pressure dressing is applied - ANSWERS-For 8 - 10 minutes A central venous pressure CVP reading directly reflects pressure in the:
17. Left atrium
18. Right atrium
19. Left ventricle
20. Pulmonary artery - ANSWERS-Right atrium An elevated CVP reading may indicate:
21. Right heart failure
22. A fall in blood pressure
23. Acute dehydration
24. Onset of left ventricle failure - ANSWERS-Right heart failure The pulmonary artery occlusive (wedge) pressure (PAOP) reflects pressure in the:
25. aorta

2. left ventricle
3. right atrium
4. vena cava - ANSWERS-left ventricle The normal pulmonary artery pressure is:
5. (10-20)/(0-4) mean 5 - 10
6. (21-30)/(5-15) mean 11 - 20
7. (31-35)/(16-20) mean 21 - 30
8. (36-45)/(21-23) mean 31 - 33 - ANSWERS- 11 - 2 How many mm Hg is the normal PAOP
9. 1- 3
10. 6 - 12
11. 15 - 20
12. 21 - 26 - ANSWERS- 6 - 12 An elevated PAOP may indicate:
13. Hypovolemia
14. Peripheral vasodilation
15. systemic hypotension
16. left ventricular failure - ANSWERS-left ventricular failure Mr. Adams, a 68 yo patient, complains of feeling "a little funny in his chest." His ECG shows atrial fibrillation/flutter. Which of the following medications could be used to treat his cardiac rhythm?
17. Digoxin
18. Nifedipine
19. Diltiazem
20. Adenosine - ANSWERS-Diltiazem A QRS complex wider than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates:
21. Normal sinus node conduction
22. Bundle branch block
23. Second degree heart block
24. myocardial infarction - ANSWERS-bundle branch block The following rhythm represents: - ANSWERS-First degree HB Special care should be exercised when administering IV dopamine because:
25. Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis
26. High doses may lead to a profound bradycardia
27. Precipitation can occur when used in a dextrose IV solution
28. even low doses decrease renal perfusion - ANSWERS-Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis The following strip is: - ANSWERS-Aflutter

A strong ventricular stimulus is potentially dangerous when it lands on the:

1. U wave
2. P wave
3. T wave
4. QRS complex - ANSWERS-T wave The rhythm strip below shows: - ANSWERS-VTach An indication for use of an external cardiac pacemaker includes:
5. paroxysmal atria tachycardia
6. Ventricular fibrillation
7. Wenckebach (Mobitz Block Type 1)
8. Symptomatic complete heart block - ANSWERS-Symptomatic complete heart block In the following rhythm strip the transvenous pacemaker shows:
9. Failure to sense
10. Demand pacing
11. Failure to fire
12. Failure to capture - ANSWERS-Failure to sense The initial drug treatment for sustained ventricular tachycardia when a pulse is present is:
13. Isuprel 1.0 mg in 250 ml D5W drip
14. Epinephrine 1.0 mg IV push
15. Atropine 0.5 mg IV push
16. Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 mn - ANSWERS-Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 min The rhythm strip below is: - ANSWERS-Vfib The cardiac rhythm of atrial flutter is:
17. benign condition in most people
18. normal following AMI
19. hazardous, as the ventricular ate may suddenly increase
20. hazardous, as it may progress to second degree heart block - ANSWERS- Hazardous, as the ventricular rate may suddenly increase Upon recognizing ventricular fibrillation in an ICU, the next thing the nurse should do is:
21. perform a precordial thump
22. establish unresponsiveness
23. give amiodarone IV
24. check the ECG leads - ANSWERS-Establish unresponsiveness The treatment in an emergency situation for complete heart block is:
25. a trial of atropine
26. preparing for transcutaneous pacing

3. doing cardiac compressions
4. using digoxin - ANSWERS-Preparing for transcutaneous pacing Your patient has atrial flutter with a ventricular response of 150 beats per minute. Therapy for this rhythm includes:
5. Digoxin, a temporary pacemaker, potassium chloride
6. Lidocaine, sodium bicarb, cardioversion
7. Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion
8. Isordil, nitropaste, pronestyl - ANSWERS-Amiodarone, cardizem, cardioversion Signs of cardiac tamponade do not include which response below?
9. distended neck veins
10. pulsus paradoxus
11. decreased systolic pressure
12. bradycardia - ANSWERS-bradycardia In the patient with ventricular fibrillation, the correct energy setting for the first defibrillation when using a biphasic defibrillator is how many joules?
13. 240
14. 360
15. 150
16. 80 - ANSWERS- 150 A patient becomes apneic and pulseless. The monitor shows asystole. The drug that would most likely be used initially is:
17. verapamil
18. atropine
19. epinephrine
20. amiodarone - ANSWERS-Epinephrine The antidote for heparin is:
21. Protamine sulfate
22. Narcan
23. Glucagone hydrochloride
24. vitamin K - ANSWERS-Protamine sulfate The most important step in preventing central venous catheter related sepsis is:
25. Use of a transparent membrane dressing
26. Scrubbing access ports with alcohol
27. using antibiotic ointment under the dressing
28. thorough hand washing - ANSWERS-Thorough hand washing An excessive amount of chest tube drainage in the first few hours following thoracic surgery is how many ml's per hour?
29. 150
30. 75

4. 30 - ANSWERS- 150

A routine check of your patient's blood gas values show a pH of 7.40, pO2 of 98 mm Hg, pCO2 of 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 25 mEq. These results reflect:

1. metabolic acidosis
2. metabolic alkalosis
3. normal values
4. respiratory compensation - ANSWERS-normal values Before suctioning a patient, you adjust the vacuum pressure so that it is:
5. 150 mm Hg of vacuum pressure
6. as high as needed to effectively remove secretions
7. 120 mm Hg of vacuum pressure
8. no higher than the diastolic blood pressure - ANSWERS- 120 mm Hg of pressure Your post-operative patient has a left anterior chest tube. When you auscultate the lung fields bilaterally, you hear diminished breath sounds in the right posterior base. This would most likely be due to:
9. pleuritis
10. consolidation
11. the chest tube
12. atelectasis - ANSWERS-atelectasis Your patient is on a ventilator. The low volume alarm sounds. This may be due to:
13. pulmonary edema
14. increasing secretions
15. a disconnected tube
16. biting the tube - ANSWERS-a disconnected tube To assess proper positioning of an endotracheal tube, the most appropriate nursing action would be to:
17. check for a change in the respiratory rate
18. listen for bilateral breath sounds
19. check for chest expansion
20. listen for minimal leak of the cuff - ANSWERS-Listen for bilateral breath sounds Mr. Ray has an endotracheal tube. While you are making rounds, you ask if his breathing is okay. In an audible tone, he says "yes". You should first:
21. raise the head of the bed
22. ask the patient to cough
23. notify the physician
24. check the functioning of the cuff - ANSWERS-check the functioning of the cuff The high pressure alarm on a volume respirator will not be triggered by which response below?

1. biting on the tube
2. pulmonary edema
3. leaking cuff
4. decreased lung compliance - ANSWERS-leaking cuff The most important reason for diminishing breath sounds in a motor vehicle crash victim with closed chest trauma is:
5. chest pain when breathing normally
6. a pulmonary bleed
7. development of a pneumothorax
8. cervical spinal-cord injury - ANSWERS-Development of a pneumothorax A moderately burned trauma patient is admitted to your unit. The most important treatment related to the burns during the first 24 hours after injury is:
9. fluid replacement
10. accurate administration of antibiotics
11. pain relief measures
12. early wound cultures - ANSWERS-fluid replacement Your trauma patient, who is 4 days post fracture of the right femur, suddenly develops shortness of breath. The most likely cause is:
13. Fat embolus
14. Pneumonia
15. Pleural effusion
16. Pulmonary edema - ANSWERS-Fat embolism To help prevent ventilator acquired pneumonia (VAP), the most important nursing action would be to:
17. keeping FIO2 at 60%
18. changing the ventilator tubing qshift
19. careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning
20. treat low peak-inspiratory pressures - ANSWERS-Careful hand-washing and use of gloves when suctioning The most important nursing activity for a patient admitted with the diagnosis of cervical spinal cord injury is:
21. keeping the patient flat
22. immobilizing the head
23. noting change in feeling extremities
24. doing hourly neuro checks - ANSWERS-Immobilizing the head In a patient with cervical spine injury, the most important observations the nurse makes concerns which of the following physiological parameters?
25. heart rate
26. respirations
27. urinary output

4. pupillary response to light - ANSWERS-respirations The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure generally involves changes in:
5. response to pain
6. level of consciousness
7. equality of pupillary reactions
8. respiratory rate - ANSWERS-level of consciousness
9. Deepening intracranial pressure is characterized by:
10. tachycardia
11. pinpoint pupils
12. widened pulse pressure
13. increasing respirations - ANSWERS-Widened pulse pressure The drug of choice used to reduce increased intracranial pressure is:
14. the calcium channel blocker
15. phenobarbital
16. Mannitol
17. Furosemide (Lasix) - ANSWERS-Mannitol A positive Babinski response in an adult:
18. Indicates depressed reflexes
19. Is an expected finding
20. Is plantar flexion (curling under) of the toes
21. Indicates an abnormal finding - ANSWERS-Indicates an abnormal finding The nursing care of patient during the acute phase of a stroke does not include which response below?
22. Providing a quiet environment for the patient and family
23. Control of airway breathing and secretions
24. Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke
25. Alertness to any bleeding that might occur - ANSWERS-Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke The most important part of a neuro check is:
26. Testing strength of grip
27. Assessing pupillary response to light
28. Evaluating the level of consciousness
29. Comparing any change in speech patterns - ANSWERS-Evaluating the level of consciousness Signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include:
30. Increasingly severe headache, and slow and shallow breathing
31. Hyperactivity, and diaphoresis and absence of urine ketones
32. Dilated pupils, and flushed and warm skin

4. Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing - ANSWERS-Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Impending insulin shock (hypoglycemia) should be suspected when the diabetic patient complains of or manifests:
5. Decreased skin turgor, abdominal pain, restlessness
6. Flushed skin, tachycardia, Kussmal breathing
7. Thirst, hypotension, fruity odor to the breath
8. Weakness, headache, diaphoresis - ANSWERS-Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Measures that would be taken to treat a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis coma would not include which response below?
9. Dextrose 50% IV infusion
10. Insulin IV drip
11. Potassium replacements
12. IV fluid administration - ANSWERS-Dextrose 50% IV infusion Patients with diabetes mellitus who are acutely ill generally require a:
13. higher dose of insulin
14. restricted caloric intake
15. decrease in fluid intake
16. lower dose of insulin - ANSWERS-Higher dose of insulin The psychophysiologic stress response from acute illness and being in an ICU can result in decreased:
17. Heart rate
18. Alertness
19. Systolic blood pressure
20. Urine output - ANSWERS-Urine output Which of the following types of insulin when given sub-q will have a peak action within 2 to 4 hours?
21. Hummulin Lente
22. NPH
23. Lantus (glargine)
24. Regular - ANSWERS-Regular An unconscious trauma patient who was just admitted to the ICU is a diabetic who received his usual dose of sub-q NPH insulin at 7 AM. In how many hours after administration might you expect an insulin reaction to occur?
25. 1 - 2
26. 3 - 4
27. 8 - 14
28. 18 - 24 - ANSWERS- 8 - 14 A dangerous effect of rapidly re-warming a hypothermic patient is:

1. bradycardia
2. vasodilation and hypotension
3. seizure activity
4. sudden rise in blood pressure - ANSWERS-vasodilation and hypotension Mrs.Smith, who is post-operative craniotomy patient has a fasting blood sugar of 100mg, complains of extreme thirst, and has a urine greater than 1,000 ml's over two hours. You should suspect:
5. Increasing intracranial pressure
6. Overproduction of ADH
7. Acute adrenal insufficiency
8. Diabetes insipidus - ANSWERS-Diabetes Insipidus Mrs. Reece, a 64 yo woman with acute renal failure and oliguria, was admitted with congestive heart failure. Which of the following tests is abnormal?
9. BUN of 18 mg/dl
10. Urine specific gravity of 1.
11. Creatinine of 1.0 mg/dl
12. Potassium of 5.8 mEq/L - ANSWERS-Potassium 5.8 mEq/L A patient is admitted with a probable diagnosis of acute renal failure. The normal ml's of urine output for this 150 pound person per hour is:
13. 75
14. 100
15. 30
16. 10 - ANSWERS- 30 Practices to decrease catheter associated urinary tract infections does not include which response below?
17. Having a protocol for limiting urinary catheter use
18. Use of a reminder system for removal of urinary catheters
19. Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs
20. Providing perineal care during each nursing shift - ANSWERS-Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs Your patient has acute renal failure. Medications that are normally excreted through the kidneys will probably be:
21. Decreased in dosage
22. Administered as usual
23. Discontinued
24. Increased in frequency - ANSWERS-Decrease dosage Enteral feeding in acute renal failure commonly includes:
25. High protein, low potassium, low sodium
26. Restricted protein, high potassium, low sodium
27. No protein, high potassium, high sodium

4. Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium - ANSWERS-Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Sudden development of dyspnea and sinus tachycardia in an acute renal failure patient would most likely indicate which of the following?
5. Hyperkalemia
6. Pulmonary embolism
7. Fluid overload
8. Infection - ANSWERS-Fluid overload ECG changes commonly seen in hyperkalemia are:
9. narrow QRS, inverted T wave
10. narrow QRS, high P wave
11. wide QRS, inverted T wave
12. wide QRS, tall peaked T wave - ANSWERS-Wide QRS, tall peaked T wave When feeding a patient using continuous tube feedings, the most important intervention in preventing aspiration is to:
13. Keep the head of the bed elevated
14. Aspirate stomach contents Q4-6h for residual
15. check the position of the tube feeding each shift
16. turn the patient frequently - ANSWERS-keep the head of the bed elevated Low intermittent suction of gastric contents is not generally used in which response below?
17. to decompress abdominal distention
18. to prevent aspiration
19. when bowel sounds are absent
20. to control bleeding - ANSWERS-To control bleeding The safe placement of a nasogastric tube in an unconscious patient can be best assessed by:
21. instilling 30ml of normal saline through the tube
22. aspirating gastric content
23. checking the pH of the gastric aspirate
24. obtaining radiographic confirmation - ANSWERS-obtaining radiographic confirmation While caring for a day-two post-operative exploratory laparotomy patient, you notice "coffeground" material coming from her nasogastric tube. You should:
25. know this is a normal finding
26. irrigate the tube right aware
27. have the drainage tested for blood
28. listen for overactive bowel sounds - ANSWERS-have the drainage tested for blood Your patient, who is receiving a blood transfusion, has a sudden increase in body temperature. Your first response is to:

1. take the blood pressure
2. check the blood type of the patient
3. quickly observe for a rash
4. stop the transfusion - ANSWERS-stop the transfusion In a symptomatic sinus bradycardia, which of the following could be used to increase the heart rate
5. Propanolol
6. Digoxin
7. Atropine
8. Verapamil - ANSWERS-Atropine Which of the following drugs will crystallize when given IV with D5S?
9. Avelox
10. fosphenytoin
11. Dilantin (phenytoin)
12. phenobarbital - ANSWERS-Dilantin Precautions in using IV nitroprusside is not included in which response below?
13. protection of the solution from light
14. continuous monitoring for a sudden decrease in blood pressure
15. use of a fresh mixture at appropriate intervals
16. alertness to the development of an acute hypertensive episode - ANSWERS- Alertness to the development of an acute hypertensive episode The dosage of which drug must be tapered off slowly to prevent acute adrenal insufficiency
17. Nitroprusside
18. Cortisone
19. Phenytoin
20. Pitressin - ANSWERS-Cortisone Which of the following is not a manifestation of digitalis toxicity.
21. Rapid A-V conduction
22. PAT with block
23. Nausea
24. Yellow vision - ANSWERS-Rapid A-V conduction Mr. Clark was admitted to the ICU with burns to his back, legs, and feet following an explosion at his job. He tells you that his wife was health care power of attorney for him. The document gives Mr. Clark's wife the right/responsibility to:
25. make decisions regarding his care in the ICU
26. Decide if Mr. Clark is acting normally
27. sign the informed consent for any skin grafting
28. decide on her husband's care, if he loses consciousness - ANSWERS-Decide on her husband's care, if he loses consciousness

Examples of spiritual care for a seriously ill, conscious patient does not generally include which response below?

1. staying with or being with the patient
2. listening to the patient's concerns
3. telling the patient that everything is going to be all right
4. calling for a clergyman to visit the patient - ANSWERS-Telling the patient that everything is going to be alright