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Cellular Biology: Membranes, Proteins, Transport, and Signaling, Exams of Theory of Formal Languages for Automata

A comprehensive overview of various cellular structures, their characteristics, and functions. Topics covered include membranes, proteins, transport mechanisms, signaling, and more. It delves into the properties of hydrophilic and hydrophobic substances, diffusion, osmosis, amphipathic molecules, and the structure and functions of proteins, transmembrane proteins, and organelles such as the ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, and golgi apparatus. It also discusses the central dogma, dna replication, and transcription. Furthermore, it explains the structure and function of tissues, tight and gap junctions, and the immune system, including antigens, antibodies, and interferon.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 05/13/2024

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Download Cellular Biology: Membranes, Proteins, Transport, and Signaling and more Exams Theory of Formal Languages for Automata in PDF only on Docsity! BMS 300 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS FOR 2024. 1. Dipole Moment - Correct answer Partial negative and partial positive charge 2. What causes surface tension? - Correct answer Hydrogen bonding 3. Hydrophilic - Correct answer "water loving" 4. Hydrophobic - Correct answer "water fearing" 5. Hydration Shell - Correct answer Water surrounding the ions 6. Diffusion - Correct answer Movement of ions from high to low concentrations 7. Osmosis - Correct answer Diffusion of water 8. Amphipathic - Correct answer "both loving" 9. Characteristics of the head group - Correct answer Hydrophilic, charged, phosphodiestor bonds 10.Characteristics of the tail - Correct answer Hydrophobic, uncharged, ester bonds. 11.Characteristics of proteins - Correct answer Made up of amino acids, have polypeptides, includes enzymes, structural elements, and Trans membrane proteins 12.Characteristics of Trans membrane Proteins - Correct answer Has a lumen that is a hydrophilic pathway, allows movement of ions, and has R-groups. Hydrophobic interacts with lipid bilayer and hydrophilic interacts with pathway/lumen 13.Characteristics of prokaryotes - Correct answer Arches and bacteria. Single celled, no membrane bound "organs", free floating DNA (circular) 14.Eukaryotes - Correct answer Fungus plants and animals. Multi-cell, organelles, nucleus (DNA compacted) 15.What is contained in the nucleus? - Correct answer DNA 16.Nuclear pores - Correct answer Transport of molecules. It is selective to protein and RNA 17.What makes the rough endoplasmic reticulum rough? - Correct answer Ribosomes 18.What does glycosylation mean? - Correct answer it has sugars on it 19.Where does final processing occur? - Correct answer Golgi apparatus 20.Ribosome - Correct answer where proteins are made 21.Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum - Correct answer Folding, glycosylating, and packaging of proteins 22.Tran’s membrane proteins - Correct answer Cross the membrane and are on both the inside and outside of the cell 23.Lysosome proteins - Correct answer Destined for delivery to the lysosome 24.Secreted proteins - Correct answer Destined to leave the cell 25.What is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum responsible for? - Correct answer fat processing 26.Characteristics of the mitochondria - Correct answer it is ATP. Is double layered, and is passed down from the mom only 27.What is the lysosome similar to? - Correct answer a garbage disposal 28.Characteristics of long transport - Correct answer Polymer: microtubules. Monomer: tubulin. Motor protein (vesicle transporting ATPase): kinesis is positive directed and dynein is negative directed 29.Characteristics of local transport - Correct answer Polymer: filamentous actin. Monomer: globular actin. Motor protein (vesicle transporting ATPase): myosin. 30.Central Dogma - Correct answer DNA ---replication---> DNA ---transcription---> RNA ---translation---> protein 31.What part of the central dogma occurs in the nucleus? - Correct answer Replication and Transcription 32.What part of the central dogma occurs in the cytoplasm? - Correct answer Translation 33.What part of the central dogma is semi-conservative? - Correct answer Replication 68.Hemi desmosomes - Correct answer Use keratin filaments, protein plaque, and integrin to anchor the cell to the basal lamina 69.What does apical mean? - Correct answer faces the lumen (open space) 70.What does basilar mean? - Correct answer faces the basal lamina (usually near the blood) 71.What is all connective tissue derived from? - Correct answer Mesenchyme 72.What do fibrocystic/fibroblasts create? - Correct answer Connective tissue proper (dermis, tendons, and ligaments) 73.What do chrondroblasts create? - Correct answer Cartilage (fibrocartilage, hyaline, elastin) 74.What do osteocytes create? - Correct answer Bone 75.What do hematopoietic stem cells create? - Correct answer Blood 76.Diaphysis - Correct answer the middle/long section of the bone 77.Epiphysis - Correct answer the top/bottom part of the bone. 78.Medullary Space - Correct answer Hollow center part of the bone. It is hallow so that the bone is not too heavy 79.What is the medullary space filled with? - Correct answer Yellow bone marrow 80.What does the medullary space allow - Correct answer Fat storage 81.Osteocytes - Correct answer "Bone builder." Secretes collagen and hydroxyapatite 82.Collagen - Correct answer Prevents sheer/lateral forces (sideways forces) 83.Hydroxyapatite - Correct answer Prevents compression forces 84.Osteoblasts - Correct answer "Bone builder" They are mature osteocytes 85.Osteoclasts - Correct answer "Bone breaker." Secrete acid which breaks down bone 86.What stimulates osteoclast activity? - Correct answer Low calcium concentrations 87.Signaling Types - Correct answer Autocuing, Paracrine, Endocrine, and Exocrine 88.Autocuing Signaling - Correct answer "Self." Cell secreting hormone contains hormone receptor 89.Paracrine Signaling - Correct answer "Neighbor." Hormone binds to neighboring cell 90.Endocrine Signaling - Correct answer "Bloods." Hormone travels through blood and enters another cell 91.Exocrine Signaling - Correct answer "Ducts." Hormone travels through a duct and leaves the cell 92.Protein Peptide Hormone Characteristics - Correct answer Hydrophilic, G-protein coupled receptor (Tran’s membrane receptor), fast, secondary messenger (for signal amplification). Adenylyl cycles --> ATP --> camp 93.Steroid Hormone Characteristics - Correct answer Cholesterol based. Hydrophobic. Cytoplasmic receptor (binds intracellular). Acts a transcription factor. Slow. 94.What does the hypothalamus release? - Correct answer Hormones 95.Where the ligand gated channels are (for Na or Cal) aka stretch activated channels located? - Correct answer Dendrite 96.Where are the potassium (K+) channels located? - Correct answer Soma/cell body 97.What channels are located on the axon? - Correct answer Voltage gated sodium (Na+) and voltage gated potassium (K+) 98.Where are the voltage gated calcium (Ca2+) channels located? - Correct answer on the axon terminal (output region) 99. In the nervous system where is the nucleus located? - Correct answer Cell body 100. What channels are responsible for the input region? - Correct answer Ligand gated (stretch activated channels) 101. What channels are responsible for the conductible region? - Correct answer Voltage gated potassium (K+) and voltage gated sodium (Na+) channels 102. Where does the action potential occur? - Correct answer in the conductible region 103. What channels are responsible for the output region? - Correct answer Voltage gated calcium (Ca2+) channels 104. Where does neurotransmitter release occur? - Correct answer in the output region 105. Characteristics of fast axoplasmic transport - Correct answer Fast (200- 400 mm/day). Has membrane bound proteins? Hydrophobic proteins in vesicles (kinesis/microtubules). 106. Characteristics of slow axoplasmic transport - Correct answer Slow (0.5-2 mm/day). Hydrophilic cytoplasmic proteins (captains, kinesis, microtubules). Move in fits and starts which cause slower movement 107. Glial cells in the CNS - Correct answer Astrocyte and oligodendrocyte 108. Astrocyte - Correct answer Maintain extracellular neurotransmitter and ion concentration 109. Oligodendrocyte - Correct answer Myelin ate axons in CNS 110. Glial cells in the PNS - Correct answer Schwann cells 111. Schwann cells - Correct answer Myeliantes axons in the PNS. Can re- grow after being damaged 112. What is the purpose of the myelin sheath? - Correct answer Protection and to make the action potential faster (insulation) 113. IPSP - Correct answer Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials. Has ligand gated chloride (Cal-) channels? 114. EPSP - Correct answer excitatory post-synaptic potentials. Has ligand gated sodium (Na+) channels? 115. Where does summation of the PSPs occur? - Correct answer Trigger zone 116. Temporal summation - Correct answer EPSP arrive at the trigger zone at the same time 117. Spatial summation - Correct answer EPSP arrive at the trigger zone at the same space 118. What happens when threshold is reached? - Correct answer an action potential fires 148. Interferon - Correct answer virtually infected cells will release interferon onto neighboring cells to slow down endocytosis and exocytosis, as well as, transcription and translation 149. What causes inflammation? - Correct answer Neutrophils, Mast Cells, Monocytes 150. Neutrophils - Correct answer Secrete bleach and peroxide (which are nonspecific responses) 151. Mast Cells - Correct answer Secrete histamine. Binds endothelial cells (making them more permeable to water). Binds smooth muscle on arteriole (to increase hydrostatic pressure) 152. Monocytes - Correct answer Mature into macrophages. Link the innate to the adaptive immune system 153. Histamine - Correct answer Binds smooth muscle. Increase blood flow. Vasodilator 154. Plasma B-cells - Correct answer Secrete antibody to neutralize or opsonize bacteria 155. Memory B-cells - Correct answer create a specific antibody for next exposure 156. T-helper CD-4 cells - Correct answer Interact with MHCII (which is only on the professional antigen presenting cells). 157. Cytotoxic T-killer CD-8 cells - Correct answer Interact with MHC I (which is on all cells expect red blood cells) 158. P-Wave - Correct answer Influx of Na+ into the atrium 159. QRS Complex - Correct answer Influx of Na+ into ventricle. Wave of depolarization through contractile cardiomyocytes from apex to base of the heart. 160. T-Wave - Correct answer Repolarization of muscle (via voltage gated K+ channels) 161. Artery - Correct answer Take blood away from the heart 162. Vein - Correct answer Bring blood toward the heart 163. Endocardium - Correct answer Endothelial cells line all interior surfaces 164. Myocardium - Correct answer Muscle layer made of cardiomyocytes 165. Pericardium - Correct answer Visceral directly touches heart. 166. Pericarditis - Correct answer Inflammation/swelling of pericardium. Increase in fluid leads to an increase of pressure in the heart. 167. Sterling's Law - Correct answer an increase in end diastolic volume will lead to an increase in stroke volume 168. Coronary Blood Flow - Correct answer Blood flow to the myocardium. Occurs during diastole 169. Flow of Electrical Signal through Conductible System - Correct answer SA node --> AV node --> Bundle of his --> left and right bundle branches --> Purkinje fibers 170. Hemoglobin - Correct answer two alpha chains, two beta chains, iron in porphyria ring, oxygen binding site. 171. Conductible cardiomyocytes - Correct answer Set rate and rhythm (pacemaker). Role is to deliver depolarizing potentials to contractile cardiomyocytes 172. Contractile cardiomyocytes - Correct answer Generate force through muscle contraction. 173. Blood flow through the heart - Correct answer Vena Cava --> right atrium --> artioventricular valve --> right ventricle --> pulmonary valve --> pulmonary artery (to lungs) --> pulmonary vein (from lungs) --> left atrium --> atrioventricular valve --> left ventricle --> aortic valve --> aorta 174. Effect of radius on resistance - Correct answer if radius gets smaller flow decreases so resistance is greater 175. Ohm's Law - Correct answer Change in pressure = resistance x flow 176. Type I pneumocystis - Correct answer Line alveoli and responsible for gas exchange 177. Type II pneumocystis - Correct answer Produce surfactant which reduces surface tension 178. Boyle's Law - Correct answer P1V1 = P2V2 179. Dalton's Law - Correct answer Total pressure of a gas is the sum of the partial pressures of the gas 180. What causes contractions? - Correct answer Histamine (secreted by mast cells) binds to smooth muscle in proneniole 181. What causes relaxation? - Correct answer Epinephrine binds to a beta 2 adrenergic receptor 182. What is the diaphragm made of? - Correct answer skeletal muscle 183. What innervates the diaphragm? - Correct answer Lower motor neurons 184. Carbonic anhydrase - Correct answer Enzyme that catalyzes the forward and reverse reaction of: CO2 + H2O <-----> H+ + HCO3- 185. What causes a rightward shift? - Correct answer Enhanced unloading of O2 in the tissues. Decrease in pH (Bohr Effect). Increase in temperature. Increase in pressure of CO2 (which causes the Bohr Effect). 186. What causes a leftward shift? - Correct answer Increase in ph. Decrease in temperature. Decrease in pressure of CO2. 187. Glomerulus - Correct answer where the arterioles deliver blood entering the renal artery to 188. Vasa Recta - Correct answer Blood vessel that is an extension of the efferent arteriole of the juxtamedullary nephron. Required for maintain juxtamedullary gradient 189. Par tubular capillary - Correct answer Blood vessel in the proximal convoluted tubule. 190. Juxtaglomerular Apparatus - Correct answer Controls renin (cells embedded in afferent arterioles that monitor the endothelial cells) and blood pressure. 191. Juxtaglomerular Cells - Correct answer Release renin. 192. What controls the corticomedullary gradient? - Correct answer Juxtamedular nephron 193. Process of Digestion - Correct answer Pyloric Sphincter --> Duodenum --> Jejunum --> Ileum