CCBMA Study Guide 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Nursing

Download CCBMA Study Guide 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CCBMA Study Guide 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT Cysto- is a prefix meaning Bladder The term for narrowing is Stenosis Gastrectomy is the term for excision of the Stomach The abbreviation meaning two times a day is BID Indicate the correctly spelled word A. Pharengitis B. Pharyngitis C. Pharyngytis B. Pharyngitis Communication with patients can be improved by A. Using their first name B. Talking about yourself C. Providing privacy D. Avoiding eye contact C. Providing privacy What are patient instruction sheets used for? Prevent misunderstanding The best time to perform a breast exam ____________. Monthly Hyper- Increased Nephro- Kidney Auto- Self Osteo- Bone Dys- Painful Litho- Stone Brady- Slow Chole- Gallbladder Macro- Large Gastro- Examination -gram Record -ptosis Falling, dropping -stasis Stopping -plagia Paralysis -desis Bind or tie -phagia Swallowing -ostomy Surgical opening -pathy Disease hs At bedtime IM Intramuscular Hx History q.i.d. Four times per day gtt Drop q.d. Once daily p.c. After meals OD Right eye CC Chief complaint CHF Congestive heart failure RLQ Right lower quadrant Dx Diagnosis LMP Last menstrual period I and D Incision and drainage Tx Treatment Hct Hematocrit LUQ Left upper quadrant SOB Shortness of breath STAT Immediately po By mouth Term for Lower blood pressure Hypotension Term for Scar tissue Cicatrix Term for Enlargement of the kidney Nephromegaly Term for Gallbladder stones Cholelithiasis Term for Beneath the skin Adduction Situated near the surface Superficial Pertaining to the belly Ventral Away from the midline, pertaining to a side Lateral Pertaining to the back Dorsal Pertaining to the middle Medial Situated above, or directed upward Superior Referring to the sole of the foot Plantar Bending motion that decreases the angle between adjoining bones Flexion Lying face down and flat Prone The lungs are found in which immediate to most general cavity Thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Lying flat on the back Supine Toward the tail Caudal Toward the brain/head Rostral The liver is found in which immediate to most general cavity Abdominal, then abdominopelvic, then ventral (anterior) The heart is found in which immediate to most general cavity Pericardial, then mediastinum, then thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Frontal/Coronal plane divides the body into Anterior and posterior Midsagittal plane divides the body into Left and right Transverse plane divides the body into Superior and inferior What are the main cavities Dorsal and ventral What is located in dorsal cavity Cranial and vertebral What cavities are located in the thoracic cavity Right pleural cavity, left pleural cavity, mediastinum What organs are located in the thoracic cavity Lungs, heart, part of the esophagus, trachea, and thymus gland What cavities does the diaphragm divide Thoracic and abdominopelvic What organs are located in the abdominopelvic cavity Stomach, small intestine, large intestine, kidneys, bladder, gall bladder, liver, pancreas, and reproductive organs What cavities are located in the abdominopelvic cavity Abdominal and pelvic The abdomen is divided into 9 areas. Starting from upper right (under the breast) and going across, then down the rows Right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac Right lateral, umbilicus, left lateral Right iliac/inguinal, hypogastric/pelvic, left iliac/inguinal Going in order from the most superior vertebrae to the tail bone name the type of vertebrae and give the right number of each Cervical (C1-C7), includes atlas (C1) and axis (C2) Thoracic (T1-T12) Lumbar (L1-L5) Sacrum Coccyx T/F: When two people communicate, both persons will alternate roles as sender and receiver as they seek responses and clarification. T T/F: Shaking your head in a negative way can jeopardize your communication with the patient. T T/F: A MA may need to enter a patients' personal space to deliver care to a patient. T T/F: Vital signs can be taken by a MA. T T/F: MA's may remove orthopedic casts. T T/F: Injecting collagen or Botox is within the MA's scope of practice. F T/F: MA' are allowed to inject anesthetics. F T/F: Medication may be given orally by a MA. T T/F: A MA is permitted to use a laser. F T/F: MA's may call themselves the office "nurse". F T/F: Recommending a course of treatment for a patient is within the scope of practice. F T/F: If directed, a MA can apply an orthopedic splint. F T/F: A MA can remove superficial sutures. T T/F: MA's may perform finger sticks. T A physician retired without notifying his patients. The physician could be charged with _______________________. Abandonment The disposal of medical infectious waste is controlled by _______________________. CAL/OSHA Regulations. A physician describes a procedure, risks and alternative treatments to patient. This is called a/an _______________________. Informed consent A MA who performs a procedure ordered by the physician employers protected under what principle? Respondeat Superoir A MA can be required to appear in court with this document _______________________. Subpoena Narcotic prescriptions are regulated by which agency? Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) A MA discusses a patient by name at lunch with others in the building. The MA could be charged with _______________________. Invasion of privacy. A patient agrees to receive a flu shot. This is an example of _______________________. Consent A method of meditating disputes between a patient and a physician is called _______________________. Arbitration Patient rights include this principle _______________________. Confidentiality A false statement said about another person's character is called _______________________. Slander A person under legal age who is self-supporting and living apart from parents is called a/an _______________________. Emancipated minor This document is required in order to provide medical records _______________________. Records release Failure to perform professional care is called _______________________. Negligence State law requires that physicians always report this condition _______________________. Abuse Billing an insurance company for false charges is considered _______________________. Fraud Carefully documenting the patient's care will help prevent professional _______________________. Liability The patient's medical records belong to the _______________________. Physician T/F: Written instructions are the best way to be sure patient's understand directions. T Subcutaneous What is the first and most important rule to remember is an emergency? Stay calm What are MA's expected to make decisions in medical office emergencies based on? Medical knowledge Instruments touched by unloved hands are considered... Contaminated Define aerobes Bacteria that thrive in oxygen In what position should hinged instruments be in when sterilized Open What are molds and yeasts types of Fungi Define sterilization Destruction of all microorganisms Define asepsis Absence of bacteria What is a surface free of contaminated instruments called? A sterile field When you wash instruments to remove debris, you are ____________-ing them Sanitize Define pathogen An organism that produces disesse What are gloves, masks, and gowns are known as what? Personal protective equipment What is a sterile pack containing scissors, thumbs forceps, and gauze squares called? Suture removal pack What is the term for removal of contaminated materials from a wound? Debridement What is scrubbing the surgical site in a circular motion from the center to the edge called? Surgical prep What is removing fluids or gasses by suction called? Aspiration What is flushing out a wound or cavity with a solution called? Irrigation What is a sterile surface containing sterile items Surgical tray What does s/s, s/b, and b/b describe what surgical instrument? Scissors What are instruments used to clamp off blood vessels called Hemostats What is a sterile covering placed over a wound called A dressing What is the procedure where instruments such as fiberoptic scopes are soaked in chemicals called Cold sterilization What is the pulse located at the elbow called Brachial What is the pulse at the knee called Popliteal What is the pulse located at the thumb side of the wrist called Radial What is the pulse located at the side of the neck called Carotid What is the pulse located in the middle of the groin called Femoral What is the highest reading of the blood pressure called Systolic What is blood pressure measured while the patient is lying, sitting, and standing considered Orthostatic What is an instrument used to test reflexes called Percussion hammer What is an instrument used to open a body orifice for viewing called Speculum What is an instrument used to examine the eye called Ophthalmoscope What is an instrument used to examine the ear called What instrument is used to prepare urine for a microscopic examination Centrifuge What is the number of leads for a standard EKG. 12 What is a simple lab test that has a high degree of accuracy A waived test What type of results are ensured by a quality control in a laboratory Accurate What are stool specimens tested for Occult blood What is a machine used for testing lung capacity Spirometer What type of specimen can be used to diagnose tuberculosis Sputum specimen What the patient begins urinating in the toilet and catches the remainder in the cup, what type of catch is that considered? Midstream catch A physician orders 150 mcg of Vitamin B12. You have 100 mcg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? 1.5 A physician orders 10mg of Compazine. You have 5 mg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? 2 A sub cut injection is given at what angle 45-90 degree What is the most used deep (adult) IM injection site Dorsogluteal When administering a sub cut injection, what is the max dose 2cc aka 2ml What should you keep in mind when choosing a needle/syringe unit for the patient Age and size of patient The gauge of the needle is determined by which diameter Lumen A physician orders 0.25 mg of Lanoxin. You have 0.125 mg tablets on hand. How many tablets will be given? 2 What is the preferred site for a TB skin test? Anterior forearm What is proper way to express 1/2 cc 0.5 cc aka 0.5 ml What is an injection into the fatty tissue lying immediately under the skin called Sub cut Which route does p.o. Medication be administered Orally Most ampules contain how many doses One Antitussive medications are used to control what Coughing All procedures during a medical emergency must be ______________. Documented The first technique to use to control bleeding is ______________. Direct pressure Poorly reacting pupils might indicate a severe ______________. Head injury A piece of emergency equipment used to return proper heart rhythm ______________. Defibrillator/AED The first thing a medical assistant should do in an emergency situation ______________. Assess the situation Equipment prepared in advance for emergency use is called a ______________. Crash cart A basic of CPR is to clear the ______________. Airway The lack of a pulse is one way to identify ______________. Cardiac arrest A straight fracture across the bone shaft is called ______________. Transverse A weak and rapid pulse is a sign of ______________. Shock Skeletal system organs Bones Muscle system Muscles Opposition Thumb touch to other fingers Elevation Shrugging shoulders Depression Lowering shoulders Protraction Hunching shoulders Retraction Squaring shoulders Pronation Back of the hand facing forward anatomically Supination Front of the hand facing forward in anatomical position Plantar flexion Pointing toes Dorsiflexion Flexing foot/toes Eversion Turning sole of the foot outward/laterally Inverison Turning sole of the foot inwardly/medially Nervous system organs Brain, spinal cord, sensory organs, and nerves Circulatory system organs Heart, and blood vessels Lymphatic system organs Red bone marrow, thymus gland, spleen, and lymph nodes Respiratory system organs/structures Nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx (voice box), trachea, the lungs, respiratory airways (bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli) Respiratory airways Trachea (anterior to the esophagus), Bronchi (primary, secondary, and tertiary), bronchioles, alveolar ducts Digestive system organs: Alimentary canal and Accessory Esophagus, stomach, small intestine (duodenal, jejunum, ileum), large intestine (cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum) Liver, and pancreas Urinary system organs Kidneys, and urinary bladder Endocrine system glands and organs hypothalamus, pituitary gland, pineal gland, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal gland, pancreas, and reproductive organs (female: ovaries, male: testes) Male reproductive structures and accessory glands Penis, testes, and scrotum Prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland Female reproductive structures and accessory glands Ovaries, uterine tubes (fallopian tubes), uterus, cervix, vagina, and vulva Mammary glands Applied ethics Practical application of moral standards that are meant to benefit the patient Bioethics Moral dilemmas and issues of advanced medicine and medical research (a branch of applied ethics) Litigious Inclined to sue Laws Rule or actions prescribed by authority that have a binding legal force Precedent The decision of the case acts as a model for any future cases in which the facts are the same Ethics The branch of philosophy related to morals, moral principles, and moral judgements Morality Quality of being virtuous or practicing the right conduct Utilitarianism The unauthorized publicity of information about a patient Public Law (Criminal law) Socially intolerable conduct that is punishable by law Misdemeanors Punishable by fines or imprisonment of up to one year; less serious offenses than felonies Felony A serious crime that carries a punishment of death or imprisonment for more than one year Defendant Plaintiff; The person being sued in a court of law Prosecutor Brings the criminal lawsuit on behalf of the government Subpoena A written command from the court for a person or documents to appear in court Subpoena duces tecum "Under penalty, wake with you"; witness to appear in court with certain records or other material Endorsement An approval or sanction Guardian ad litem An adult to act in the court on behalf of a child in litigation Statute of limitations The period of time that a patient has to file a lawsuit Discovery rule When the problem is discovered or should have been discovered Good Samaritan laws State laws that help to protect from liability healthcare professionals and ordinary citizens who provide care to a victim of an accident or other emergency Respondeat superior "Let the master answer"; an employer is liable for acts of the employee within the scope of employment Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) A type of managed healthcare plan in which a range of healthcare services are made available to plan members for a predetermined fee Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) A plan in which the patient uses a medical provider (physician or hospital) who is under contract with the insurer Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO) A new managed care concept that is a combination of HMO and PPO concepts Medicare Federal program that provides healthcare coverage for three groups of people: persons 65 years and older, disabled persons that are entitled to Social Security benefits, and end-stage renal disease victims Medicaid A federal program implemented by the individual states, with federal government paying over 50% of its expenditures Solo practice MD independent, completely solo Sole proprietorship MD in charge, hires others Partnership All assets and responsibility shared Associate practice Work is shared, but not profits or loses Group practice Everything is shared Corporation Managed by a board of directors State type of credentials Licenses and certifications National type of credentials Registration Abandonment A civil wrong or tort; physicians not giving proper notice to patient of termination of care Advance directive A written statement in which people state the type and amount of care they wish to receive during a terminal illness and as death approaches Durable power of attorney A legal document that empowers another person (proxy) to make healthcare decisions for an incompetent patient In loco parentis What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (1991) prohibit? Discrimination- unfair or unequal treatment Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 defined An employer is required by law to provide a safe and healthy work environment Clinical Laboratories Improvement Act (CLIA) defined Minimum quality standards for laboratories enforced by the federal governent Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1985 defined An important act that covers a wide range of federal government financing for health insurance coverage continuation AFTER an employee had been laid off or left a job Social Security Act of 1935 defined Federal law that covers all private and most public sector employees Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 defined Regulates the privacy of patients' healthcare information HIPAA objectives Improve portability of health insurance Combat fraud, abuse, and waste Promote the expanded use of medical savings accounts Simplify the administration of health insurance Stages of grief Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance Palliative care The total care of patients whose disease is no longer responsive to curative therapy Control systems Medical terminology uses what main languages? Latin and Greek What do doctors of osteopathic medicine stress the importance of? Preventative medicine and holistic patient care, in addition to a special focus on the musculoskeletal system and osteopathic manipulative therapy (OMT) Subluxations Removing any disruptions or distortions of this energy flow that may be caused by slight misalignments Substance abuse The repeated and excessive use of a substance, despite its destructive effects, to produce please and escape reality What is the use of illegal drugs or the misuse of prescription and over-the-counter drugs considered? Substance abuse Addiction regarding substances The compulsive use of a substance despite its negative and sometimes dangerous effects Tolerance The need to increase the amount of a substance to get the same effect Paraphrasing Listening to what the sender is communication, analyzing the words, and restating them to confirm that the receiver has understood the message as the sender intended Types of defense mechanisms Verbal aggression, sarcasm, rationalization, compensation, regression, repression, apathy, displacement, denial, physical avoidance, and projection Apathy A lack of feeling, emotion, interest, and concern Barriers of communication Physical impairment, language, prejudice, stereotyping, and perception Maslow's hierarchy of needs (bottom of the pyramid to the top) Physiological needs (survival), Safety and security, Love and belonging (relationships), Esteem and recognition, and Self-actualization (fulfillment) Infraction A minor offense punishable only by a fine; violation Libel Written defamation; a harmful, false statement made about anther person written out Slander Oral defamation; a harmful, false statement made about another person by mouth Burden of proof in a Criminal case Reasonable doubt; 100% guilty Burden of proof in a Civil case Preponderance of the evidence; more than 50% guilty Arbitration An alternative to trial in which a third party is chosen to hear evidence and make a decision because of the individual's familiarity with or knowledge of the law or the issues involved Continuity of care Means of entry Susceptible host What is resident flora? It resides and grows in the epidermis and deeper layers of the skin; aka NORMAL FLORA What is transient flora? It lives and grows on the superficial skin layers, or epidermis What are the three bloodborne diseases that area considered the biggest threat to health care workers? HBV, HCV, and HIV What is postexposure prophylaxis (PEP)? It is the treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease, to prevent the disease. What is an opportunistic infection? It is an infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot defend itself from pathogens normally found in the environment. Sanitization defined Removal of organic material and reduces the number of microorganisms to a safe level Decontamination defined Physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogens on an item so that it is no longer capable of transmitting disease Disinfectant defined An agent used to destroy pathogenic microorganisms; does not kill bacterial spores Sterilization defined The process of destroying all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores Noncritical item defined Item that comes in contact with intact skin but not with mucous membranes Critical item defined Item that comes in contact with sterile tissue or the vascular system What vital signs does an MA perform? Temperature, Pulse, Respiration (TPR), blood pressure (BP), and pulse oximetry (O2) Tachypnea defined An abnormal increase in the respiratory rate Bradypnea defined An abnormal decrease in the respiratory rate Hypoxemia defined The decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood (less than 95%) Hypoxia defined The reduction in the oxygen supply to the tissues of the body Hypertension defined High blood pressure Hypotension defined Low blood pressure Sitting position description Sitting upright Supine position description Lying on back Prone position description Lying on stomach Dorsal recumbent position description Lying on back, with legs open and bent at the knee Lithotomy position description Lying on back, with legs open and bent at the knee and feet in stirrups Sims position description Lying on stomach with right leg flexed sharply and raised up to hip area, with left leg slightly bent Knee-chest position description Kneeling with butt elevated, head resting to one side lying on the table Fowler's position description Sitting position with table head at a 45 degree angle and patient resting completely back What is myopia? Nearsighted What is hyperopia? Farsighted What is presbyopia? A decreased ability to focus clearly on close objects; begins to occur after age 40 Erythema defined Redding of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin Edema defined Swelling Lead wires not following body contour, other electrical equipment in the room or walls, and improper grounding of the electrocardiograph Normal sinus rhythm ECG that is within normal limits What are pulmonary function tests used for? PFT's are used to assess lung functioning, assisting in the detection and evaluation of pulmonary disease Spirometry defined A simple, noninvasive screening test that is often performed in the medical office; it measures how much air is pushed out of the lungs and how fast it is pushed out What is asthma? A chronic lung disease that affects the small airways (alveoli) of the lungs What does a peak flow meter measure? Measures how quickly air flows out of the lungs when the patient exhales forcefully What is the difference between radiolucent and radiopaque? Radiolucent permits the passage of x-rays; soft-tissue structures Radiopaque obstructs the passage of x-rays; bones What type of patient is recommended to have a bone density scan for osteoporosis? And at what age do they start having it every 2 years? Postmenopausal women, above 65 years old have it done every 2 years Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) defined A radiograph of the kidney's, ureters, and bladder to detect kidney stones, blockages, narrowing, and growths within the urinary system What is computed technology (CT)? An advanced radiographic exam that uses only minimal amounts of radiation What are MRI's used for? For imaging tissues of high fat and water content that cannot be seen with other radiologic techniques Reference range defined within an acceptable range Waived test defined A laboratory test that has been determined by CLIA to be simple procedure that is easy to perform and has a low risk of erroneous results Nonwaived test defined A complex lab test that does not meet the CLIA criteria for waiver and is subject to the CLIA regulations What is an analyte? A substance that is being identified or measured in a lab test What does quality control ensure? Test results to be reliable and valid What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative tests? Qualitative indicates whether or not a substance is present; while qualitative indicates the exact amount of chemical substance is present Hematology defined The study of blood What do these stand for: WBC, RBC, HgB, Hct, PT, and Plt? White blood cell Red blood cell Hemoglobin Hematocrit Prothrombin time Platelet count Anemia defined decrease in hemoglobin level Polycythemia defined increase in hemoglobin levels What does hematocrit measure? The percentage volume of packed red blood cells in whole blood What is blood glucose? It is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism; main source of energy for the body Glycogen defined Glucose stored in muscle and liver for later use What does insulin enable glucose to do? Enter the body's cells and be converted to energy Which type of cholesterol is considered good? LDL or HDL HDL (high-density lipoprotein) Infectious disease Communicable disease Contagious Can be spread from one person to another directly or indirectly C. artery What is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart? The SA (sinoatrial) node The main organ(s) of the urinary system is/are the... A. ureters B. urethra C. kidneys D. bladder C. kidneys Endometriosis is an abnormal condition of what female organ system? Reproductive system What are the three tiny bones in the middle of the ear called? Ossicles What were HCPCS codes developed to identify? Services/supplies not in the CPT-4 What is a necessary trait a MA should have? A. bilingual B. empathy C. negativity B. empathy Body language is an example of... A. eye contact B. verbal communication C. non-verbal communication C. non-verbal communication In CA, the MA may administer which of the following procedures? A. suturing lacerations B. intravenous therapy C. intramuscular injections C. intramuscular injections By law in CA, all MA's shall receive training in... A. infection control B. basic surgical procedures C. intubation A. infection control When one state accepted another state's license for a doctor, it is... A. reciprocity B. endorsing C. credentialing A. reccprocity What are the two main types of law? Civil and criminal What type of consent is this considered: when the physician has explained a procedure, the risks and whether there are alternatives to the patient? Informed consent Arbitration is... A. a court session B. a deposition C. mediating a dispute D. dismissing a charge C. mediating a dispute Misfeasance, malfeasance, and malpractice are forms of... A. contracts B. liabilities C. negligence C. negligence What is the one thing physicians in CA are required to report by law? Abuse A housekeeper is a job classification which has... A. occupational exposure B. special requirements C. minimal requirements A. occupational exposure Under CAL-OSHA, an exposure control plan must include... A. record keeping of occupational injuries B. information on sterilization procedures C. training in intravenous injections A. record keeping of occupational injuries Is gonorrhea considered a reportable disease or condition? Yes it is. The medical record can only be released once... there is a signed release form filled out by the patient or guardian of the patient Under the Controlled Substance Act, Schedule II drugs... A. are written on special Rx blanks B. can not be prescribed to regular patients C. may be refilled up to 5 times in the span of 6 months A. are written on special Rx blanks Body measurement Why is patient education important? It helps patients understand situation/need for changes The ROS (Review of Systems) is part of the Medical History and is GENERALLY taken by who? The physician When interviewing a patient to obtain their medical history, the first step would be to ensure... A. prior testing is completed B. adequate time for interview C. privacy in a separate room C. privacy in a separate room What would the patient be draped with in the lithotomy positon? A diagonal drape What is a percussion hammer used to check for? Reflex action What test is used to assess a patient's lung function? Spirometer What is an electrocardiograph used to detect? Heart dysfunction What must a medical office adhere to when laboratory procedures are performed on site? CLIA and OSHA standards The urine specimen that is MOST concentrated is the... A. random B. 24 hour C. first morning C. first morning What is the most COMMON site for capillary puncture in adults? The middle finger What is the minimum amount of time records for dispensing/administration of controlled drugs be kept? 2 years How many times must a drug label be read before administration? 3 times What is an advantage of using parenteral administration of medication? A. less chance of infection B. faster completion time C. faster rate of absorption C. faster rate of absorption A 25 gauge needle with 3/8 length is used for what type of injection? A. z-track B. IM C. ID D. subcut C. ID What are the basic "ABC'S" for resuscitation? Airway, breathing, circulation What is a severe allergic reaction caused by hypersensitivity to a substance called? Anaphylactic shock What do you do first when responding to an office emergency? Stay calm and follow office protocol For what purpose would you use an AED? When a patient is in cardiac arrest Adenoma defined Tumorous gland Hematoma defined A swelling/mass of coagulated blood caused by a broken blood vessels Carcinoma defined Cancerous tumor Osteoma defined Bone tumor Medical term for joint pain Arthralgia Medical term for heart pain Cardialgia Medical term for kidney stone Nephrolithiasis Medical term for a mass in the liver Hepatoma Phlebitis defined inflammation of a vein Arthritis defined Inflammation of a joint What is movement away from the midline? Abduction Cystitis defined Inflammation of the urinary bladder What is the term for gallstones? Cholelithiasis What is the term for disease of the kidneys? Nephropathy What is the Eustachian tube? It is the narrow passage leading from the middle-ear to the pharynx. What does the AV node do? The AV node delays the impulse momentarily to allow for complete contraction of the atria and filling od the ventricles with blood What does the SA node do? The SA node, aka "pacemaker," initiates and regulates the heart beat What does the Bundle of His do? The Bundle of His divides the electrical impulse initiated by the SA node to the left and right sides of the heart What structures are located in the inner ear? The semilunar canals, vestibule, cochlea, and one side of the oval and the round windows What are the three ossicles? Malleus, incus, and stapes How do the semilunar canals help the body? They help by maintaining equilibrium What is the tympanic membrane? It is a semitransparent membrane that receives sound waves, aka "ear drum" Schedule for control substances: I II III IV V I: Cannot be prescribed II: Must be on triplicate prescription form in physician's own hand writing III: May be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period-must be indicated on the prescription form IV: Sign by physician, can be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period V: Inventory records must be kept STD's that the CDC keeps track of are... Chancroid, chlamydia, gonorrhea, Hepatitis B, HIV, and syphilis. What is a scalpels function? To make surgical incisions What is an operating scissor function? To cut through tissue What is a plain slinter forcep used for? To remove foreign objects from tissues What is a standard thumb forcep used for? To pick up tissue What is a standard tissue forcep with teeth used for? To grasp tissue What is a Kelly hemostatic forcep used for? To clamp off blood vessels What is a Mosquito hemostatic forcep used for? To hold delicate tissue or to clamp off small blood vessels T/F: A Crile-Wood needle holder is used to grasp a curved needle. T T/F: A tenaculum is not used to grasp and hold the cervix. F; A tenaculum is used to grasp and hold the cervix. What is Meniere's disease? Meniere's disease affects the ear, causing progressive deafness, and attacks of tinnitus and vertigo. What does the Ishihara test measure? Color vision/blindness What does the Weber test measure? Hearing loss assessment What does the Jaeger reading card assess? Near visual acuity What does MSDS stand for and mean? MSDS: Material Data Safety Sheet It contains information regarding the potential health effects of exposure to chemicals What does an audiometer measure/assess? An audiometer quantitatively measures hearing for various frequencies of sound waves.