CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers, Exams of Information Systems

Download CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers and more Exams Information Systems in PDF only on Docsity! CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 100% 1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration? • wiki • e-mail • weblog • instant messaging 2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.) • regenerating data signals • acting as a client or a server • providing a channel over which messages travel • applying security settings to control the flow of data • notifying other devices when errors occur • serving as the source or destination of the messages 3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used? • DSL • dial-up • satellite • cell modem • cable modem 4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement? • LAN • MAN • WAN • WLAN 5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015) • flash memory • NVRAM? • RAM • ROM • a TFTP server? 6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device? • a console connection • an AUX connection • a Telnet connection • an SSH connection 7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015) • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used. • The administrator is already in global configuration mode. • ARP • DHCP • DNS • FTP • NAT • PPP 16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.) • ARP • BOOTP • ICMP • IP • PPP 17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details? • Request for Comments • IRTF research papers • protocol models • IEEE standards 18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network? • IP address • default gateway address • MAC address • logical address 19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use? • ARP, multicast • DNS, unicast • DNS, broadcast • ARP, broadcast • PING, multicast • PING, broadcast 20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host? • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network. • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host. • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway. • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful. 21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model? • It accepts frames from the physical media. • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames. • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface. • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals. 22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables? • requiring proper grounding connections • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference • avoiding sharp bends during installation 23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.) • Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity. • Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss. • Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling. • Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices. • Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables. 24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame? • logical address • physical address • data • error detection 25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch? • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a • crossover Ethernet cable connection • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected 26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015) • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses • just the PC0 MAC address • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses • just the PC1 MAC address • just the PC2 MAC address? 27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch? • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not. • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches. • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table. • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not. 28. What is the purpose of the routing process? • to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network • to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks • to convert a URL name into an IP address • to provide secure Internet file transfer • to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses 29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address? • ARP • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group 38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?? • FEC0::/10? • FDFF::/7? • FEBF::/10? • FF00::/8 39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages? • to inform routers about network topology changes • to ensure the delivery of an IP packet • to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions • to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution 40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015) • The DNS server addresses are incorrect. • The default gateway address in incorrect. • The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation. • The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers. 41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address? • 192.168.1.64/26 • 192.168.1.32/27 • 192.168.1.32/28 • 192.168.1.64/29 42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices? • random static addresses to improve security • addresses from different subnets for redundancy • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses 43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015) • Site 1 • Site 2 • Site 3 • Site 4 44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.) • /62 • /64 • /66 • /68 • /70 45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.) • DHCPDISCOVER • DHCPOFFER • DHCPREQUEST • DHCPACK • DHCPNACK 46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function? • to require users to prove who they are • to determine which resources a user can access • to keep track of the actions of a user • to provide challenge and response questions 47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router? • exec-timeout 30 • service password-encryption • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$ • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60 48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page? • ipconfig /all • arp -a • ipconfig /displaydns • nslookup • custom adapter • crossover cable • wireless bridge • wireless client software 55. Consider the following range of addresses: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000:: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000:: 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000:: … 2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000:: The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 . 56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.) CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015) 57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.) • regenerating data signals • acting as a client or a server • providing a channel over which messages travel • applying security settings to control the flow of data • notifying other devices when errors occur • serving as the source or destination of the messages 58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP? • when a cellular telephone provides the service • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network • when a satellite dish is used • when a regular telephone line is used 59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority? • audio conference, database, HTTP • database, HTTP, audio conference • audio conference, HTTP, database • database, audio conference, HTTP 60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS? • RAM • flash • NVRAM • disk drive 61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch? • a console connection • an AUX connection • a Telnet connection • an SSH connection 62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process? • Ctrl-Shift-X • Ctrl-Shift-6 • Ctrl-Z • Ctrl-C 63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015) • HR Switch(config)#? • Switch(config)#? • HRSwitch(config)#? • HR(config)#? • Switch# 64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command? • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory. • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted. • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file. • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored. 65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely? • FastEthernet0/1 • VLAN 1 • vty 0 • console 0 66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing? • the TCP/IP stack on a network host • connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices • connectivity between a PC and the default gateway • connectivity between two PCs on the same network • physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network 67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation? 76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.) • stores routing tables • allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard • maintains instructions for POST diagnostics • holds ARP cache • stores bootstrap program 77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports? • A console port is used for remote management of the router. • A console port is not used for packet forwarding. • Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports. • Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports. 78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination? • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host. • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent. • The entire transmission is re-sent. • The transmission continues without the missing portion. 79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011? • 192.0.2.199 • 198.51.100.201 • 203.0.113.211 • 209.165.201.223 80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.) • 10.20.30.1 • 172.32.5.2 • 192.167.10.10 • 172.30.5.3 • 192.168.5.5 • 224.6.6.6 81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space? • private addresses • public addresses • multicast addresses • experimental addresses 82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5.02, 2015) • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.) • 192.168.1.16/28 • 192.168.1.64/27 • 192.168.1.128/27 • 192.168.1.96/28 • 192.168.1.192/28 84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts? • /23 • /24 • /25 • /26 85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media? • Transmission Control Protocol • Real-Time Transport Protocol • Secure File Transfer Protocol • Video over Internet Protocol 86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility? • to determine the active TCP connections on a PC • to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server • to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network • to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC 87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5.02, 2015) • The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system. • The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system. • An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable. • An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system. 88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP? • EAP • PSK • WEP • WPA 89. Fill in the blank. Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex . • audio conference, web page, financial transactions • financial transactions, audio conference, web page 95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS? • RAM • flash • NVRAM • disk drive 96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes? • The configuration will be copied to flash. • The configuration will load when the router is restarted. • The new configuration file will replace the IOS file. • The changes will be lost when the router restarts. 97. What information does the loopback test provide? • The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly. • The device has end-to-end connectivity. • DHCP is working correctly. • The Ethernet cable is working correctly. • The device has the correct IP address on the network. 98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer? • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device. • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium. • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media. • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer. 99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network? • CSMA/CD • priority ordering • CSMA/CA • token passing 100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field? • The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame. • The switch notifies the source of the bad frame. • The switch drops the frame. • The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error. 101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame? • 0.0.0.0 • 255.255.255.255 • FFFF.FFFF.FFFF • 127.0.0.1 • 01-00-5E-00-AA-23 102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch? • the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation • the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection • the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable • the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected 103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame? • cut-through switching • store-and-forward switching • fragment-free switching • fast-forward switching 104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.) • adjacency tables • MAC-address tables • routing tables • ARP tables • forwarding information base (FIB) 105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network? • It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host. • It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward • the destination host. • It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host. • It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host. 106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address? • ARP • DNS • NAT • SMB • DHCP • HTTP 107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks?? CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02, 2015) • The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table. • The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.