CDEO Exam Prep Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

Download CDEO Exam Prep Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! CDEO Exam Prep Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024 What is the central focus of clinical documentation? a. Protection against mal-practice claims b. Communication to office staff and other departments about the patient's care c. To facilitate optimum patient care d. Communication to other the providers and ancillary personnel concerning the patient encounter - Correct Answer- c. To facilitate optimum patient care The central focus of all clinical documentation should be to demonstrate the quality of care provided to the patient with detail and accuracy to facilitate optimum patient care. The CDEO will focus his or her attention on records requested for post payment review. a. Yes, CDEOs only review records that might be an audit concern and require physician education. b. Yes, CDEOs only review records for paid claims by government payers. pg. 1 professoraxe l c. No, CDEOs do not review records unless it is requested by the compliance officier. d. No, CDEOs review records on a proactive basis to prevent documentation deficiencies - Correct Answer-d. No, CDEOs review records on a proactive basis to prevent documentation deficiencies Clinical documentation improvement is a proactive measure. The CDS will develop and monitor policies and procedures that affect the documentation process. CDI should begin at the front end of all services and care. Prevention of documentation issues is the key. See Page 1 The CDEO will review the findings of the auditor in order to: a. Reprocess claims b. Make an addendum to the medical record c. Prevent deficient documentation d. Know what accounts should be adjusted off - Correct Answer-c. Prevent deficient documentation The CDEO will review the findings of the auditor to determine what should be done to resolve documentation the issues on a proactive basis to prevent documentation and compliance risks. pg. 2 professoraxe l a. Within 48 hours of patient visit b. A minimum of bi-weekly c. During the encounter or as soon as possible d. The end of each day for all encounters that day - Correct Answer-c. During the encounter or as soon as possible The best way to achieve the most accurate, detailed documentation is for the provider to document the encounter/services as soon as possible after (if not during) the encounter. Quality assurance of patient care is only evident if: a. The patient maintains a state of optimum health b. Visits are only required for well-checks or injury c. The patient survey and ROS does not change d. If it is documented in the patient's medical record - Correct Answer-d. If it is documented in the patient's medical record Quality assurance in patient care is only evident if it is documented in the medical record. Quality services may have been provided; however, if this is not evident within the medical record, problems may arise. pg. 5 professoraxe l Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding clinical documentation improvement efforts? a. Documentation reviews should be limited to the costliest chronic conditions to treat. b. Documentation reviews can be performed on a prospective basis. c. Documentation reviews must be completed yearly. d. Documentation reviews require access to the denial data. - Correct Answer-b. Documentation reviews can be performed on a prospective basis. CDI programs are intended to be performed on a prospective basis to improve documentation deficiencies prior to claim submission. The intent is to identify deficiencies and make the appropriate corrections and prevent future deficiencies. CDI programs can also include retrospective reviews. Why is it important to involve physicians in Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) programs? a. It encourages physician participation. b. It helps justify the need for CDI programs. c. It will eliminate the need to query providers. d. It will help providers time management. - Correct Answer-a. It encourages physician participation. pg. 6 professoraxe l Getting physicians involved in CDI helps to gain physician buy in and encourages other physicians to participate and is a great way to educate physicians. Which of the following documentation deficiencies has a negative impact on patient outcomes? a. Failure to indicate the date of the patient's last blood test. b. Failure to include the instructions for post procedure care and potential complications. c. Failure to sign the patient's medical records provided by another physician. d. Failure to report the patient's pharmacy preference for insurance participation. - Correct Answer-b. Failure to include the instructions for post procedure care and potential complications. Although all the choices are deficiencies in capturing patient information, failure to inform a patient of potential post- operative complications could impact the patient's recovery. In this question, you are determining the option that affects clinical care of the patient. What is an effective method for communicating documentation deficiencies to a provider? pg. 7 professoraxe l d. Significant changes should be documented once a year. - Correct Answer-a. Significant changes should be documented at each encounter. Problem lists should be updated when a significant change takes place to make sure the information on the problem list is still current and accurate. A common problem is the list is created but it is not maintained so it becomes difficult to know which conditions are current and which are resolved. If the problem list is maintained, it is an effective tool for managing the patient's conditions. Failure to document which of the following statements could lead to a negative patient outcome? a. Allergies: PCN b. Patient denies loss of appetite or vomiting. c. Patient has remained on her diet. d. Patient indicates her daughter lives with her to assist in her care. - Correct Answer-a. Allergies: PCN Failure to document an allergy could lead to an allergic reaction if the provider prescribes a medication not realizing the patient is allergic. pg. 10 professoraxe l What is a documentation challenge for services provided by providers in an inpatient facility? a. Documentation may not include the progress note for a subsequent inpatient encounter. b. Documentation deficiencies may not be identified until after the provider has left. c. Providers may not have access to the entire record for the inpatient stay. d. Providers may not have access to the hospital EHR to document the inpatient encounters. - Correct Answer-b. Documentation deficiencies may not be identified until after the provider has left. Maintaining consistent and quality documentation can be difficult in the inpatient setting because deficiencies may not be identified until after the provider has left the facility. Adhering to the CMS Documentation Guidelines for E/M services will meet the clinical documentation requirements for all encounters. a. Yes, E/M documentation guidelines help the provider document all requirements needed for a detailed record. b. Yes, CDI is a proactive approach to ensure E/M services are reimbursed correctly. pg. 11 professoraxe l c. No, the CMS documentation guidelines provide the least expected documentation to support a visit. d. No, CDI programs do not include monitoring of the correct coding of E/M services. - Correct Answer-c. No, the CMS documentation guidelines provide the least expected documentation to support a visit. The basic CMS documentation guidelines for E/M services include the least expected documentation to support an encounter. Quality is going above and beyond the basic information. What are some common documentation deficiencies? I. Incorrect dates of service II. Misspelled words III. Inconsistencies within the record IV. Incomplete dictation V. Missing orders for diagnostic tests - Correct Answer-I, II, III, IV, V When initiating a CDI program, which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Focus on services with the highest reimbursement b. Focus on the highest risk area pg. 12 professoraxe l d. There are no requirements for corrections to electronic medical records. - Correct Answer-c. Reliable means to clearly identify the original content and the modified content. For electronic health records (EHR), the amendment, correction, or delayed entry must be distinctly identified. There must also be a way to provide a reliable means to clearly identify the original content and the modified content. The person altering the record and the date of the revision, amendment, or addenda must also be documented. How must medical records be retained? a. Electronically b. Paper format c. Microfiche d. A specific requirement does not exist - Correct Answer-d. A specific requirement does not exist. There are no specific requirements as to how the medical records must be retained. They may be kept in their original format, or reproduced in a way that is legally acceptable. The most important component of retention is that the record is protected, to ensure the security and integrity of the records. What must be included in a business associate agreement? pg. 15 professoraxe l a. The name of each person who will see the PHI. b. The permitted and required uses of PHI by the business associate. c. Each record that is shared with the business associate must be identified individually, included names and dates of service. d. There are no requirements for what is included in the business associate agreement. - Correct Answer-b. The permitted and required uses of PHI by the business associate. When documenting physical therapy treatment encounter for Medicare, what should be documented for the modalities? a. Each individual modality used with total duration of time in minutes b. A list of all modalities considered for treatment c. Additional modalities used outside of the treatment plan and why they were used d. Modalities expected to be used on the next treatment date - Correct Answer-a. Each individual modality used with total duration of time in minutes. Treatment encounter notes for each treatment day and should include: · Date of treatment · Treatment, intervention, or activity pg. 16 professoraxe l · Total timed treatment by individual modality and total treatment time in minutes (includes timed codes and untimed codes) · Signature and professional identity of the qualified professional furnishing the treatment · Additional information may include response to treatment or changes. What is the Health Care Fraud and Abuse Control Program? a. A program that keeps track of the financial success of each of the Fraud and Abuse programs run by the US government. b. A program established by HIPAA to combat fraud and abuse in healthcare. c. The OIG's Health Care Fraud Prevention and Enforcement Team. d. A program established by the OIG to create sample compliance plans. - Correct Answer-b. A program established by HIPAA to combat fraud and abuse in healthcare. When a minor procedure is performed in the office, what is the documentation requirement? a. A formal operative report must be documented. pg. 17 professoraxe l d. In the office visit prior to the surgery - Correct Answer-a. Indication for surgery According to the Joint Commission (JC) Official "Do Not Use" List, what would be considered an abbreviation that should not be used in a medical record and why? a. IU; because it can be mistaken for IV or the number 10. b. HTN; because there should be more specification on the type of hypertension. c. PRN; because it may be misunderstood to be a privacy issue. d. IV; because it can be mistaken for IU. - Correct Answer-a. IU; because it can be mistaken for IV or the number 10. In an operative note, where should information be taken to ensure accurate assignment of a CPT® code? a. From the header, where the title of the planned surgery is listed. b. From the body of the operative note c. From the OR schedule, based on how the procedure was scheduled by the physician. d. From the findings area of the report - Correct Answer-b. From the body of the operative note pg. 20 professoraxe l What program was established by HIPAA to combat fraud and abuse committed against all health plans, both public and private? a. Health and Human Services Fraud Prevention Program b. Compliance Program c. OIG HEAT d. Health Care Fraud and Abuse Control Program - Correct Answer-d. Health Care Fraud and Abuse Control Program How long does HIPAA require medical records to be maintained? a. Five years from the date of its creation or the date from which it was last in effect (whichever is later). b. Six years from the date of its creation or the date from which it was last in effect (whichever is later). c. Ten years from the date of its creation or the date from which it was last in effect (whichever is later). d. Five years past the date of death of the patient. - Correct Answer-b. Six years from the date of its creation or the date from which it was last in effect (whichever is later). pg. 21 professoraxe l Which type of provider is not required to dictate his or her own operative report? a. Primary surgeon b. Co-surgeon c. Surgeons in a surgical team d. Assistant surgeon - Correct Answer-d. Assistant surgeon Each provider involved in a surgical case is expected to document the portion of the surgical procedure they performed with the exception of a surgical assistant. When a surgery requires the help of a surgical assistant, the primary surgeon documents the operative report. The primary surgeon should clearly explain in the indications section of the note why an assistant was necessary, and what the assistant surgeon performed that required the assistance. What information does a privacy practice notice contain? a. Elements to notify individuals as to how the covered entity will use and disclose the PHI. b. Notification of each person who has access to their record and what access level they will have. c. Notification of when their payments have been received from the insurance carrier. pg. 22 professoraxe l d. Department of Justice - Correct Answer-d. Department of Justice Under what circumstance may providers use or disclose protected health information without patient consent? a. Advertising of the entity's services b. Payment, treatment, or operations c. Request from a spouse or another family member d. Request from a neighbor or close friend - Correct Answer-b. Payment, treatment, or operations What is on of the differences between the Stark law and the Anti-Kickback law? a. The Start law refers to fraudulent billing; the Anti-Kickback law refers to remuneration for self referrals. b. No intent must be proven for the Anti-Kickback law; the Stark law requires proof of intention. c. The Anti-kickback law refers to fraudulent billing; the Stark law refers to remuneration for self referrals. d. No intent must be proven for the Stark law; the Anti- Kickback law requires proof of intention. - Correct Answer-d. No intent must be proven for the Stark law; the Anti-Kickback law requires proof of intention. pg. 25 professoraxe l The Stark law has strict liability regarding overpayments, meaning no intent must be proven. For civil monetary penalties for the Stark law, though, intent is required for knowing violations. The Anti-Kickback law requires proof of intention. The law state the person must "knowingly and willfully" violate the law. The "willful" verbiage is not founding the Stark law. In a Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA), does the OID specify the Independent Review Organization to be used? a. No, the OIG does not specify the IRO to be used, but does retain the right to notify the provider i they must select a new IRO. b. No, the OIG does not have nay input on the IRO used under any circumstance. c. Yes, the CIA will identify five IROs that can be used for the CIA Review. d. Yes, the specific IRO will be named in the CIA. - Correct Answer-a. No, the OIG does not specify the IRO to be used, but does retain the right to notify the provider i they must select a new IRO. pg. 26 professoraxe l Which option is NOT part of the seven elements that should be included in a compliance plan based on the OIG's recommendations? a. Conducting effective training and education b. Responding promptly to detected offenses and developing corrective action c. Identifying employees on the exclusions list d. Developing effective lines of communication - Correct Answer-c. Identifying employees on the exclusions list. The OIG has identified seven elements that should be present in every compliance plan based on criteria adopted by the federal government in the federal sentencing guidelines. The OIG lists seven fundamental elements for an effective compliance program, which are: 1-Implementing written policies, procedures and standards of conduct; 2-Designating a compliance officer and/or compliance committee; 3- Conducting effective training and education; 4-Developing effective lines of communication; 5-Enforcing standards through well-publicized disciplinary guidelines; 6-Conducting internal monitoring and auditing; and 7-Responding promptly to detected offenses and developing corrective action When a provider is excluded under the Exclusions Statute, what must he or she do at the end of the exclusionary period? pg. 27 professoraxe l b. Revenue loss c. What should only be reported for Medicare Part B d. What can be used for corporate integrity agreements - Correct Answer-a. Providing deficiencies in documentation. A CDEO professional to educate providers and facilities of billing practices or services that have been identified by the OIG as high risk for fraud and abuse and which will be the focus of the OIG's audits for the coming year. It may also help in forming the scope of an audit for a provider or facility or may influence recommendations given to a practice. The introductory message to the Work Plan states that the OIG chooses the composition of the Work Plan by assessing relative risks in the programs it oversees, identifying areas that are most in need of attention, and setting priorities for the sequence and proportion of resources to be allocated. Also meeting medical necessity in the documentation for services rendered. The OIG lists potential risk areas for individual and small physician groups in the compliance plan guidance. Which option below is listed as a risk area? a. Under coding b. Unbundling c. Overuse of E/M codes pg. 30 professoraxe l d. Failure to follow the "same-day" rule - Correct Answer-b. Unbundling The OIG's Compliance Program Guidance for Individual and Small Physician Group Practices identifies four risk areas affecting physician practices. What are the four risk areas? a. Claims submission; background checks for staff; HIPAA violations; audit compliance. b. Coding and billing; reasonable and necessary services; documentation; and improper inducements, kickbacks, and self-referrals. c. Coding and billing; background checks for staff; documentation; improper inducements, kickbacks, and self- referrals. d. Claims submission; HIPAA violations; audit compliance; improper inducements, kickbacks, and self-referrals. - Correct Answer-b. Coding and billing; reasonable and necessary services; documentation; and improper inducements, kickbacks, and self-referrals. Which OIG publication is released monthly on the OIG website to identify various projects that will be addressed during the fiscal year by the Office of Audit Services, Office of Evaluation pg. 31 professoraxe l and Inspections, Office of Investigations, and Office of Counsel to the Inspector General? a. OIG Work Plan b. Semiannual Report to Congress c. Compendium of Unimplemented Recommendations d. OIG Compliance Plan Guidance - Correct Answer-a. OIG Work Plan. The HHS OIG publishes its Work Plan monthly on its website that lists the various projects that will be addressed during the fiscal year by the Office of Audit Services, Office of Evaluation and Inspections, Office of Investigations, and Office of Counsel to the Inspector General. It summarizes new and ongoing reviews and activities that OIG plans to pursue during the next fiscal year and beyond. A provider consistently charges a higher level of E/M service than is documented to help cover the cost of his declining practice. Would this be fraud or abuse, and why? a. Abuse; charging one level higher on each visit does not show intent. b. Abuse; the provider's practice is common and therefore would not be considered fraudulent. pg. 32 professoraxe l d. 25-40 percent of the total claim amount - Correct Answer-b. 15-25 percent of the money recovered What is the definition of abuse? a. making false statements or misrepresenting facts to obtain an undeserved benefit or payment from a federal health care program b. an action that results in unnecessary costs to a Federal health care program, either directly or indirectly c. reporting the submission of false claims d. practicing medicine while on the exclusions list of the OIG - Correct Answer-b. an action that results in unnecessary costs to a Federal health care program, either directly or indirectly Based on the compliance program guidance documents by the OIG, what should be documented when non-compliant conduct is found? a. date of incident, name of the reporting party, name of the person responsible for taking action, follow-up action taken. b. date of the incident, date of termination of the employee in non-compliance. c. action found to be non-compliant, date the employee's name was reported to the OIG. pg. 35 professoraxe l d. date of the incident, date the OIG received the report on the investigation - Correct Answer-a. date of incident, name of the reporting party, name of the person responsible for taking action, follow-up action taken. What action would be considered fraud rather than abuse? a. Increased level of E/M visits based on electronic health record documentation. b. A provider utilizing modifier 25 on all E/M visits reported with a minor procedure. c. A provider requiring the coding staff to intentionally code E/M services one level higher than documented. d. A keying error. - Correct Answer-c. A provider requiring the coding staff to intentionally code E/M services one level higher than documented. Which of the following best represents an example of fraudulent activity? a. Waiving cost-shares or deductibles. b. A pattern of claims for services not medically necessary. c. Failure to maintain adequate medical or financial records. pg. 36 professoraxe l d. Billing for services at a higher level than provided or necessary. - Correct Answer-d. Billing for services at a higher level than provided or necessary. Documentation states that the patient had a "Status post hysterectomy. The patient presents with a fever." Which of the following would be a compliant question to query? a. Are the fever and the surgery related? b. What is the patient's temperature? c. By status post, how long has it been since the patient's surgery? d. Do you know the cause of the fever? - Correct Answer-d. Do you know the cause of the fever? CDEOs should not ask leading questions of providers. Instead, ask the question in a way that will generate an original response. By asking if the provider knows the cause of the fever, you will know whether this is a surgical complication. According to documentation, the patient has COPD, hypertension, and CKD, and is hospitalized with a fever of 40 C. The first-listed diagnosis in the discharge summary is ARF. The query most pertinent to coding would ask: pg. 37 professoraxe l mastectomy four years ago. In the assessment, it is noted that the patient is currently on Tamoxifen. For this encounter, which query is most appropriate? a. Please review this patient's chart and clarify whether the patient has a resolved or active breast cancer. b. Please review the patient's chart and document the indications for Tamoxifen therapy. c. Was a reconstruction performed at the time of the mastectomy? d. Please review the documentation and indicate the dosage of the medication. - Correct Answer-b. Please review the patient's chart and document the indications for Tamoxifen therapy. Tamoxifen is used to treat some types of breast cancer in men and women. It is also used to lower a woman's chance of developing breast cancer if she has a high risk (such as a family history of breast cancer). As a CDI professional, how can you utilize information provided in the OIG Work Plan to improve documentation? a. Review the documentation for services identified on the OIG Work Plan that are performed in your practice and provide feedback regarding documentation deficiencies identified. pg. 40 professoraxe l b. Review the findings from the OIG Work Plan audit to determine potential revenue opportunities for your practice. c. When presented with a refund request from a private payer, do not allow the refund unless the service is included on the OIG Work Plan. d. Review the quarterly release of the OIG Work Plan. - Correct Answer-a. Review the documentation for services identified on the OIG Work Plan that are performed in your practice and provide feedback regarding documentation deficiencies identified. Review of the OIG Workplan provides information on services that will be audited by the OIG. It is a best practice to review the services that appear on the OIG workplan that you are performing in your office. According to the OIG Work Plan, the reasonableness of physician home visits is being reviewed. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Improper payments were made for office visits. b. Home visits are never reimbursed by Medicare. c. Home visits are covered if medical necessity is supported by the documentation. pg. 41 professoraxe l d. Improper payments were made for beneficiaries requiring skilled services. - Correct Answer-c. Home visits are covered if medical necessity is supported by the documentation. What is an acceptable format for a provider query? Select all that apply. a. Multiple Choice b. Yes/No with option for other c. Open-Ended d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Which statement is TRUE regarding the CMS Stars quality rating system? a. Quality bonus payments are made to physician who score at least four stars. b. Quality bonus payments are made to Medicare Advantage plans who score at least four stars. c. Quality bonus payments are made to physician who score at least five stars. d. Quality bonus payments are made to Medicare Advantage plans who score at least five stars. - Correct Answer-b. Quality bonus payments are made to Medicare Advantage plans who score at least four stars. pg. 42 professoraxe l b. I and III c. I and II d. II and IV - Correct Answer-b. I and III In a medical record review, which of the following ICD-10-CM codes would prompt satisfaction of the HEDIS measure of Pharmacotherapy Management of COPD Exacerbation and search for potential risk adjustment support. I. J44.1 - COPD with acute exacerbation II. J44.9 - COPD, unspecified III. J21.9 - Acute bronchiolitis, unspecified IV. J45.909 - Unspecified asthma, uncomplicated a. I b. I and II c. I and III d. I, II, III, and IV - Correct Answer-b. I and II For this measure, COPD, emphysema and chronic bronchitis diagnoses support the measure. STARS Ratings are important because they: a. Identify plans with the highest risk scores. pg. 45 professoraxe l b. Identify plans with the lowest risk scores. c. Identify top performing doctors. d. Identify top performing health plans. - Correct Answer-d. Identify top performing health plans. Which of the following is a benefit of e-Prescribing? a. Reduction of prescription cost. b. Eliminating ALL errors in documentation. c. Avoiding errors caused by illegible handwriting. d. Availability of access for prescription drugs - Correct Answer-c. Avoiding errors caused by illegible handwriting. Benefits of e-prescribing include: - Avoiding errors caused by illegible handwriting - Avoided telephone miscommunication between the pharmacy and the office - Immediate access to a patient's medication history and, in some instances, information related to their general medical condition - Immediate warning and alert systems about potential patient drug-drug, drug-disease, drug-allergy interactions, and dosing errors pg. 46 professoraxe l - Point of care provider access to the patient's payer formulary benefits Improved monitoring of the use of controlled substances Which of the following is NOT a benefit for providers to utilize electronic health records? a. Improve quality, safety, and efficiency b. Avoid fraud and abuse c. Improve care efficiencies d. Continuity of care - Correct Answer-b. Avoid fraud and abuse E-prescribing electronically transmits new and refill prescriptions to a community or mail order pharmacy. What is an advantage to E-Prescribing (eRx)? a. Point of care provider access to the patient's payer formulary benefits. b. Increase security to patient's medical history and current conditions. c. Decrease in patient illegal drug use. pg. 47 professoraxe l d. Cost measures are reported on a year-end report by the individual providers. - Correct Answer-b. An eligible provider can receive partial credit towards the total composite score for promoting interoperability. The quality category offers the highest weight for reporting measures. Promoting interoperability reporting allows an eligible provider to receive partial credit toward the total composit score, unlike meaninful use which was an all or nothing score. Improvement activities include measures that reflect activities clinicians have always done in their practices, such as timely communication of test results, or establishing care plans for patients. The cost category does not require any actions on the part of the clinicians. CMS will analyze data from both Part A and Part B claims to calculate the overall costs of patient care by looking at the total per capita cost the Medicare spending per beneficiary (MSPB) for several episode measures including Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), Congestive What size practice is considered a group practice for reporting MIPS? a. Two or more b. Three or more c. Four or more d. Ten or more - Correct Answer-a. Two or more pg. 50 professoraxe l A provider group is two or more physicians. The Medicare Quality Payment Program data for each year must be submitted by ______. a. March 31 of the following calendar year b. December 31 of the same calendar year c. January 1 of the following calendar year d. There is no deadline date - Correct Answer-a. March 31 of the following calendar year The MIPS performance year is January 1 through December 31. Participating providers must report the data by March 31 of the following calendar year. What are examples of Promoting Interoperability: I. Patient-Specific Education II. e-Prescribing III. Care and Transition Documentation Practice Improvements IV. Engagement of New Medicaid Patients and Follow-Up V. Provide Patient Access a. II, III, and IV b. I, II, and IV pg. 51 professoraxe l c. I, III, IV and V d. I, II, and V - Correct Answer-d. I, II, and V Examples of Promoting Interopeability: Measures are: e-prescribing Provide Patient Access Patient-Specific Education Which of the following scenarios supports reporting 4064F- 1P? a. A patient diagnosed with MDD who has a poor medication interaction with his medication for HTN and antidepressants. b. A patient diagnosed with MDD who is already taking antidepressants. c. A patient diagnosed with ADOL taking Cymbalta 20 mg twice daily. d. A patient diagnosed with MMD who has not taken Cymbalta for a week because her prescription ran out and she is waiting for the refill to become available. - Correct Answer- a. A patient diagnosed with MDD who has a poor medication interaction with his medication for HTN and antidepressants. 1P is appended when the performance measure is not met due to medical reasons. Code 4064F is a Category II CPT® code pg. 52 professoraxe l Modifier 22 is never reported with E/M codes. Modifier 22 can be reported with an endoscopic procedure is converted to an open procedure if it increases the difficulty or time required to perform the service. Which statement is TRUE regarding an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)? a. One ABN will cover all procedures performed on a Medicare beneficiary by that provider. b. An ABN should be given to the patient to sign after a service has been denied as not medically necessary. c. The provider should make a good faith effort to estimate the cost within $100 or 25% of the actual cost, whichever is greater, on the ABN before requesting the beneficiary's signature. d. The ABN is optional. The provider may bill a Medicare beneficiary for services denied not medically necessary with or without a signed ABN. - Correct Answer-c. The provider should make a good faith effort to estimate the cost within $100 or 25% of the actual cost, whichever is greater, on the ABN before requesting the beneficiary's signature. Which of the following scenarios qualifies for modifier 58? pg. 55 professoraxe l Modifier 58-Staged or related procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional during the postoperative period. a. Delayed surgical wound closure to promote healing b. Removal of adhesions caused by a previous surgery c. A re-excision due to infection d. Debridement of an infected surgical wound - Correct Answer-a. Delayed surgical wound closure to promote healing When the provider plans the procedure in stages, modifier 58 is appended to the staged procedure. Which of the following scenarios qualifies for modifier 25? Modifier 25-Significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional on the same day of the procedure or other service a. History and physical performed prior to a hysterectomy. b. Preventive E/M performed in conjunction with a problem related E/M. pg. 56 professoraxe l c. A patient returns to the office for an injection ordered during the last E/M. d. A nurse's assessment of the patient's BP prior to administering an IV. - Correct Answer-b. Preventive E/M performed in conjunction with a problem related E/M. According to CPT® coding guidelines, when a preventive E/M is performed on the same date of service as a problem related E/M, report both E/M services and append modifier 25 to the problem related E/M. Both services must be documented, and the problem related E/M must be medically necessary and require significant additional work, above the service performed for the preventive service. Which modifier begins a new global period for unrelated procedure? a. Modifier 25 b. Modifier 57 c. Modifier 78 d. Modifier 79 - Correct Answer-d. Modifier 79 Modifier 78 does not extend the global period and allows for the intraoperative percentage only of a procedure. The global period remains effective from the date of the original surgery. pg. 57 professoraxe l a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Yearly d. Every two years - Correct Answer-c. Yearly Which of the following statements is true regarding RAFs? a. A patient with a RAF score of 2.65 receives a payment bonus if their healthcare improves. b. A patient with a RAF score of 2.65 will likely consume more health care in the coming year than a patient with a RAF score of 1.06. c. A patient with a RAF score of 2.65 will likely consume less health care in the coming year than a patient with a RAF score of 1.06. d. A patient's RAF score is determined based on the cost of patient's medical care for the previous year. - Correct Answer- b. A patient with a RAF score of 2.65 will likely consume more health care in the coming year than a patient with a RAF score of 1.06. The higher the RAF score, the more health care services a patient will more likely consume. pg. 60 professoraxe l In October, a Medicare Advantage Organization (MAO) audit of a provider's submitted diagnoses determines conflicting diagnoses submitted from two consecutive years. The following diagnoses were reported for the patient. FY 20X1 Diagnoses: Emphysema Type 2 Diabetes Stage 3 CKD CHF, left sided Diabetic cataract BKA Diagnoses through October, 20X2: Chronic atrial fibrillation Diabetes Cataract Which of the following statements is TRUE? I. The provider likely overlooked linking diabetes to cataract in 20X2. pg. 61 professoraxe l II. The provider likely overlooked documenting left-sided CHF in 20X2. III. The patient's emphysema was cured in 20X2. IV. The patient's BKA improved in 20X2. V. The patient likely development a new diagnosis of chronic atrial fibrillation in 20X2. I, II, III, IV, and V I, II, and V I, II, IV, and V III and IV - Correct Answer-I, II, and V The provider did not document a causal link for the diabetes and cataract. Although not needed for code selection, it is best practice for the provider to document all causal links for quality care. CHF is not cured and likely overlooked when documenting the diagnoses in 2016. Emphysema and below the knee amputation (BKA) do not improve and it is likely the provider did not document the conditions or forgot to code them in 2016. Because the chronic atrial fibrillation was not documented in 2015, it is likely a new diagnosis in 2016. How does the risk adjusted payment system help Medicare patients? a. The patient's options for providers increase. pg. 62 professoraxe l Fee schedules for fee-for-service models are determined based on: a. Physician cost b. RVUs c. ICD-10-CM codes d. Patient co-payment amount - Correct Answer-b. RVUs Medicare established the RBRVS system to reimburse physicians based on the CPT® code submitted for reimbursement. Each CPT® code has a Relative Value Unit (RVU) assigned. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding medical necessity? a. CMS creates NCDs to inform providers when a service is considered medically necessary. b. If the provider performs the service it will be considered medically necessary. c. If the patient does not respond to the treatment provided, the service is not considered medically necessary. d. CMS releases edits to CPT® codes to indicate which procedures are considered medically necessary. - Correct Answer-a. CMS creates NCDs to inform providers when a service is considered medically necessary. pg. 65 professoraxe l CMS has the power under the Social Security Act to determine on a case-by-case basis if the method of treating a patient is reasonable and necessary. For all payers, even if a service is reasonable and necessary, coverage may be limited if the service is provided more frequently than allowed under a NCD, LCD, or a clinically accepted standard of practice. In addition, the NCD and LCDs list ICD-10-CM codes for diagnoses that are considered medically necessary. In some cases, the NCDs and LCDS also list diagnosis codes that are NOT considered medically necessary. Which components are used to determine RVUs? I. Physician work II. Physician admitting privileges III. Location of the practice IV. Practice expense V. Malpractice insurance a. I and II b. I, II, IV and V c. I, IV and V d. I, III, and IV - Correct Answer-c. I, IV and V pg. 66 professoraxe l RVUs are configured using three components: 1. Physician work—time, skill, training, and intensity of service provided 2. Practice expense—reflects the cost of ancillary personnel, supplies, and office overhead 3. Professional liability/malpractice insurance Which of the following services are included in the global surgical package? a. General anesthesia b. Physical therapy services following hip replacement c. Evaluation of the patient in the recovery room d. Transportation of the patient to a rehab facility if needed - Correct Answer-c. Evaluation of the patient in the recovery room The CPT® codebook describes the surgery package as including: • Subsequent to the decision for surgery, E/M services on the date immediately prior to or on the date of the procedure (including history and physical) • Local anesthesia: defined as local infiltration, metacarpal/metatarsal/digital block, or topical anesthesia• Operation itself pg. 67 professoraxe l b. RAC c. LCD d. RADV - Correct Answer-a. CERT CMS developed a program to determine national, contractor specific, provider compliance error rates, paid claims error rates, and claims processing error rates. The program is known as the Comprehensive Error Rate Testing (CERT) program When is an ABN required? a. When the patient must meet their deductible. b. When the procedure may not be covered for the patient's condition. c. When the service is statutorily excluded from Medicare payment. d. When the patient has secondary coverage to Medicare. - Correct Answer-b. When the procedure may not be covered for the patient's condition. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding fee-for- service? a. The provider must be contracted with a payer to be paid. pg. 70 professoraxe l b. The provider reimbursement is determined by the CPT® code(s) reported. c. The diagnosis code reported determines the amount the provider will be paid. d. Without a preauthorization, services will not be paid. - Correct Answer-b. The provider reimbursement is determined by the CPT® code(s) reported. FFS is paid based on the CPT codes reported by the provider. Although obtaining a preauthorization is required by some payers for some services, it is not required for all services. Four years post hepatic transplant, the patient is recently diagnosed with combined hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma of the liver. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. C80.2, C22.0 b. T86.49, C80.2, C22.0, C22.1, Z94.4 c. T86.49, C80.2, C22.0 d. C80.2, C22.0, C22.1, Z94.4 C80.2-Malignant neoplasm assoc with transplanted organ C22.0-Liver Cell Carcinoma pg. 71 professoraxe l C22.1-Intrahepatic bile duct carcinoma T86.49-Other complications of liver transplant Z94.4-Liver Transplant Status - Correct Answer-c. T86.49, C80.2, C22.0 ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.2.r indicates this situation requires three codes (complication, neoplasm associated with transplant organ, and the malignancy) and is to be coded as a transplant complication. The guideline tells us to assign first the appropriate code from T86.-, Complications of transplanted organs, followed by code C80.2 Malignant neoplasm with transplanted organ, then to use an additional code for the specific malignancy. Hepatic means related to the liver. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Complication/transplant/liver/specified type NEC which directs you to T86.49. Next, the neoplasm associated with the transplant organ is coded. Look in the Alphabetic Index for Complication/transplant/malignant neoplasm which directs you to C80.2. In the Tabular List C80.2 has a note to code first the complication code (T86.-) and to use an additional code for the specific malignancy. C A 63 year-old came in to the ED with severe shortness of breath and goes into respiratory failure. He was intubated and admitted for acute respiratory failure. Chest X-ray shows he has pleural effusion. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? pg. 72 professoraxe l guiding you to code E10.11. Code Z79.4 Long term use of insulin is not required for a type 1 diabetic because these patients are insulin dependent. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. A 58 year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD- 10-CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, R41.3 b. G30.0, F02.80 c. F02.80, G30.0 d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 F02.80-Dementia in other disease classified elsewhere w/o behavioral disturbance (manifestation) G30.0- Alzheimer's disease with early onset F29-Unspecified psychosis not due to a substance or known physiological condition R41.3-Other amnesia - Correct Answer-b. G30.0, F02.80 In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, look for Alzheimer's diseases or sclerosis and you are directed to see Disease, Alzheimer's. Look for Disease, diseased/Alzheimer's/early pg. 75 professoraxe l onset which directs you to G30.0 [F02.80]. The code in brackets indicates a manifestation code. When we verify the G30.0 code in the Tabular List there is an instructional note under code section G30 that confirms that we should code also the dementia. F02.80 is the correct code because the provider does not mention any behavioral disturbances. Sequencing rules tell us that the manifestation code always follows the etiology code. Codes F29 Psychosis and R41.3 Memory loss are not reported because these are signs and symptoms of Alzheimer's. See ICD-10-CM guideline I.B.4. A patient with metastatic bone cancer (primary site unknown) presents to the oncologist's office for a chemotherapy treatment. On examination the oncologist finds the patient to be severely dehydrated and cancels the chemotherapy. The patient receives intravenous hydration in the office and reschedules the chemotherapy treatment. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. E86.0, C80.1, C79.51 b. E86.0, C79.51, C80.1 c. C40.30, E86.0, C79.51 d. C79.51, E86.0 E86.0-Dehydration pg. 76 professoraxe l C80.1-Malignant neoplasm, unspecified C79.51-Secondary Malignant neoplasm of bone C40.30-Malignant neoplasm of short bones of unspecified lower limb - Correct Answer-b. E86.0, C79.51, C80.1 Per ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.2.c.3 when the admission/encounter is for management of dehydration due to the malignancy or therapy, or a combination of both, and only the dehydration is being treated (intravenous hydration); the dehydration is sequenced first, followed by the code(s) for the malignancy. The treatment is directed at the bone cancer or the metastatic site. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look for Dehydration E86.0 In the ICD-10-CM Table of Neoplasms look for Neoplasm, neoplastic/bone. Use the code from the Malignant Secondary column directing you to code C79.51. Also in the Table of Neoplasms look for unknown or unspecified site and use the code from the Malignant Primary column which directs the coder to C80.1. Verify the code selections in the Tabular List. A patient is seen for his hypertension with stage 5 CKD and myocardial disease. The conditions are stable and he is told to continue with his medications. The myocardial disease is unrelated to the hypertension. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. I12.0, N18.5, I51.5 pg. 77 professoraxe l coded. The reason for the visit was to treat the urinary tract infection, making that code primary. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Infection/urinary (tract) NEC directing you to code N39.0. Look in the Tabular List for code N39.0. There is an instructional note stating, "Use additional code to identify infectious agent." This note must always be followed when the organism is known. The note states "Pseudomonas showed in the urine culture." Look in the Alphabetic Index for Infection/Pseudomonas NEC/as cause of disease classified elsewhere which directs you to B96.5. Hematuria (R31.9) is integral to a uri A 65 year-old female patient returns to her primary care provider for follow up of an upper respiratory infection diagnosed the previous week. Her condition has not improved and her cough has increased. She has a long history of smoking. She currently smokes one pack a day and is dependent on the cigarettes. She uses a bronchodilator for her COPD. The provider changes her antibiotics to treat her acute bronchitis with COPD. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this visit? a. J44.9, J20.9, Z72.0 b. J44.0, Z72.0 c. J44.0, J20.9, F17.210 d. J44.0, J21.9, F17.210 pg. 80 professoraxe l J44.9- COPD, unspecified J20.9- Acute Bronchitis, unspecified Z72.0- Tobbaco use J44.0-COPD with acute Lower respiratory infection F17.210-Nicotine dependence, cigarettes, uncomplicated J21.9-Acute Bronchiolitis, unspecified - Correct Answer-c. J44.0, J20.9, F17.210 In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look for Disease, diseased/pulmonary/chronic obstructive/with/acute bronchitis J44.0. In the Tabular List, there is an instructional note to code also to identify the infection. For this example, the infection is reported with a code from category code J20 Acute Bronchitis. Because there is no indication of the infectious agent for the acute bronchitis, an unspecified code is used. Look for Bronchitis/acute or subacute (with bronchospasm or obstruction) J20.9. In the Tabular List category J44 has a note to code also the type of asthma which is not applicable to this case so it is not coded. J44 also has a note to report an additional code for use of or exposure to smoke. The patient is currently still smoking and is dependent on cigarettes. Look for Dependence (on)/nicotine/cigarettes F17.210. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. pg. 81 professoraxe l A provider performed an aspiration via thoracentesis on a patient in observation status in the hospital. The patient has advanced right lung cancer that has metastasized to the pleura with malignant pleural effusion. Later the same day, due to continued accumulation of fluid, the patient was returned to the procedure room and the same provider performed a repeat thoracentesis. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. C78.2, C34.91 b. C34.91, C78.2, J91.0 c. C78.2, C34.91, J91.0 d. J91.0 C78.2 - Secondary malignant neoplasm of pleura C34.91 - Malignant neoplasm of unspecified part of right bronchus or lung J91.0 - Malignant pleural effusion (manifestation) - Correct Answer-c. C78.2, C34.91, J91.0 The patient has malignant pleural effusion. Look in the ICD-10- CM Alphabetic Index for Effusion/pleura, pleurisy, pleuritic, pleuropericardial/malignant directing you to code J91.0. In the Tabular List there is a note under J91.0 to code the malignant neoplasm first, if known. In this case, it is known. According to ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.2.b when treatment is pg. 82 professoraxe l Lithium. Her provider also manages her manic-depressive psychosis, hypothyroidism, and migraine headaches. Additional medications are Synthroid and Midrin. During the past week, she became manic, running all her credit cards to the limit, getting inappropriately involved in a friend's suicide attempt, quitting her job, and trying to take over the pulpit at church. On the day of the clinic visit, she threatened to strike the telephone repairman with a lead pipe. She was admitted for Lithium adjustment. Diagnoses are: moderate manic- depressive bipolar with circular current manic state, hypothyroidism, and migraine. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. F31.12, E03.9, G43.909 b. F31.62, E03.9, G43.911 c. F31.32, E03.9, G43.909 d. F31.89, G43.911, E03.8 F31.12 - Bipolar disorder, current episode man - Correct Answer-a. F31.12, E03.9, G43.909 In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look for Disorder/bipolar/current (or most recent) episode/manic/without psychotic features/moderate guiding you to code F31.12. No code assignment is necessary for depression because depression is a component of bipolar disorder. Although not psychiatric conditions, both pg. 85 professoraxe l hypothyroidism and migraine headaches are coexisting conditions under treatment and are coded. In the Alphabetic Index, look for Hypothyroidism which directs you to E03.9 and look for Migraine directing you to code G43.90-. Verify the codes in the Tabular List. When reviewing code G43.90 in the Tabular List, a 6 th character of 9 is selected because there is no mention of an intractable migraine or status migrainosus. The patient was given thrombolytic therapy for an acute myocardial infarction (STEMI) of the anterolateral wall which converted to a NSTEMI. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. I21.09 - ST elevation (STEMI) MI involving other coronary after of anterior wall b. I22.8 - Subsequent ST elevation (STEMI) MI of other sites c. I21.29 - ST elevation (STEMI) MI involving other coronary after of anterior wall d. I22.0 - Subsequent ST elevation (STEMI) MI of anterior wall - Correct Answer-a. I21.09 According to ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.e.1, the ICD-10-CM codes for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) identify the site, such as anterolateral wall or true posterior wall. The same section goes on to state that if STEMI converts to NSTEMI due to thrombolytic therapy, it is still coded as STEMI. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Infarct, infarction/myocardium, myocardial (acute) (with stated pg. 86 professoraxe l duration of 4 weeks or less)/ST elevation (STEMI)/anterior (anteroapical) (anterolateral) (anteroseptal) (Q wave) (wall) which directs you to I21.09. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. A patient is being treated for ketoacidosis and diabetic coma due to malignant neoplasm of the pancreatic body. The patient uses insulin routinely. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a.E13.11, C25.1 b.E10.11, C25.2, Z79.4 c.C25.9, E08.11 d.C25.1, E08.11, Z79.4 E13.11 - Other specified DM with ketoacidosis with coma C25.1 - Malignant neoplasm of body of pancreas E10.11 - DM 1 with ketoacidosis with coma C25.2 - Malignant neoplasm of tail of pancreas Z79.4 - Long term use of insulin C25.9 - Malignant neoplasm of pancreas, unspecified pg. 87 professoraxe l a. I11.0, I51.3 b. I10, I51.7 c. I51.7 d. I11.9, I51.7 I11.0 - Hypertensive heart with HF I51.3 - Intracardiac thrombosis, NEC I10 - Essential (primary) HTN I51.7 - Cardiomegaly I11.9 - Hypertensive heart without HF - Correct Answer-b. I10, I51.7 According to ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 if the documentation does not have a causal relationship between the hypertension and heart disease the conditions are coded separately. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Hypertension referring you to I10. Then look for Cardiomegaly which states to see also Hypertrophy, cardiac. Hypertrophy/cardiac (chronic) (idiopathic) referring you to I51.7. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. The patient has a history of unstable angina, hypertension, and chronic systolic heart failure. He is seen in the ED after prolonged chest pain that was not relieved by medication. pg. 90 professoraxe l Cardiac enzymes are elevated, and EKG shows anterior infarct. A decision was made to perform a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography. Left heart catheterization was performed in order to perform a left ventriculogram. He tolerated the procedure well and will be discharged. His final diagnosis is chronic systolic heart failure and hypertension. The two conditions are unrelated. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. I50.22, I10 b. I11.0 c. I11.0, I10 d. I11.0, I50.22 I50.22 - Chronic system CHF I10 - Essential (primary) HTN I11.0 - Hypertensive heart with HF - Correct Answer-a. I50.22, I10 ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates when the documentation specifically states the two conditions are unrelated between hypertension and heart disease, they are coded separately. In this case, there is no causal relationship coded. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Failure/heart/systolic (congestive)/chronic (congestive) pg. 91 professoraxe l directing you to I50.22. Then, look for Hypertension which directs you to I10. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. A patient sees the nephrologist for a B-12 injection to treat erythropoietin resistant anemia due to stage 3 chronic kidney disease. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. N18.9, D63.8 b. D63.1, N18.3 c. N18.3, D63.1 d. D63.8, N18.9 N18.9 - CKD, unspecified D63.8 - Anemia in other chronic disease classified elsewhere (manifestation) D63.1 - Anemia in CKD (manifestation) N18.3 - CKD, stage 3 (moderate) - Correct Answer-c. N18.3, D63.1 In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look for Anemia/in (due to) (with)/chronic kidney disease or Anemia/erythropoietin resistant anemia (EPO resistant anemia) guiding you to code D63.1. In the Tabular List at D63.1 there is an instructional note stating to code first underlying chronic kidney disease. Look in the Alphabetic Index for Disease, pg. 92 professoraxe l convulsions were brought on by the intake of alcohol. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Convulsions directing you to code R56.9. Documentation states alcohol abuse not alcoholism with intoxication. Look in the Alphabetic Index for Abuse/alcohol/with/intoxication directing you to F10.129. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. A 22 year-old patient status post-surgery developed a postoperative infection. The patient quickly deteriorated and became septic, developed gas gangrene (gas bacillus infection) and went into postprocedural septic shock. With aggressive intravenous antibiotic management, the patient improved. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. T81.44XA, A48.0, T81.12XA b. T81.12XA, R65.21, A48.0 c. R65.21, A48.0, T81.12XA d. A48.0, R65.21, T81.44XA A48.0 - Gas gangrene R65.21 - Severe sepsis with septic shock T81.44XA - Sepsis following a procedure, initial encounter T81.12XA - Post-procedural septic shock, initial encounter - Correct Answer-a. T81.44XA, A48.0, T81.12XA pg. 95 professoraxe l Per ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.1.d.5.c states when a postprocedural infection has resulted in postprocedural septic shock, the code for the precipitating complication, such as code T81.4-, infection following a procedure is coded first followed by code T81.12- Procedural septic shock. A code for the systemic infection should also be assigned. In the ICD-10- CM Alphabetic Index look for Sepsis/postprocedural referring you to T81.44-. Verifying this code in the Tabular List we will need to place two X placeholders and select the 7th character of A since the treatment is active. Complete code is T81.44XA. The Tabular List for T81.4, has an instructional note to code the infection. For the systemic infection look in the Alphabetic Index for Gangrene, gangrenous/gas (bacillus) which directs you to A48.0. Guideline I.C.1.d.5.c. shows that the systemic infection should also be assigned, but it does What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for uncontrolled hypertension with stage 3 chronic kidney disease? a.I12.9, N18.9 b.N18.9, I12.3 c.I12.9, N18.3 d.N18.3, I12.9 pg. 96 professoraxe l I12.9 - Hypertensive CDK with stage 1-4 CKD, or unspecified CKD N18.9 - CKD, unspecified I12.3 - N18.3 - CKD, stage 3 - Correct Answer-c.I12.9, N18.3 Per ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.2 assign codes from category I12, Hypertensive chronic kidney disease, when both hypertension and a condition classified to category N18, Chronic kidney disease are present. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look for Hypertension/kidney/with/stage 1 through stage 4 chronic kidney disease which directs you to code I12.9. In the Tabular List, there is a note to use an additional code to identify the stage of chronic kidney disease (N18.1-N18.4 or N18.9). Look in the Alphabetic Index for Disease, diseased/kidney/chronic/stage 3 (moderate) directing you to code N18.3. Verify code selection in the Tabular List. A patient with amyloidosis being treated for glomerulonephritis. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. E85.3, N08 b. N08, E85.4 c. N08, E85.3 pg. 97 professoraxe l