Cell Organelles and Cellular Processes, Exams of Nursing

Download Cell Organelles and Cellular Processes and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NURS 8022 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023 COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A 3-day old infant is noted to have a mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin level and icterus. Your concern is that this child may have: a. physiologic jaundice b. kernicterus c. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency d. pathologic jaundice - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>physiologic jaundice Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. lysosomes b. ribosomesc. smooth endoplasmi c reticulum d. golgi complex - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Lysosomes Ans: B- peroxisomes - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A) lysosomes B) peroxisomes C) ribosomes D) oxyhydrosomes The difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is that eukaryotes: a. all of these CORRECT ANSWERs are correct b. are smaller in size c. contain organelles d. have no nuclear membrane - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Contain organelles and complex internal membranes Ans: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A) enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthese B) influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production C) edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production D) potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure Which of the following is function of Golgi? a. Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell b. Produces ATP for cell function c. Contains hydrolytic enzymes d. Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell Ans: A- apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered singel cells - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis? A) apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered singel cells B) apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm C) apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death D) apoptosis results in benign malignancies Ans: C- the osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: A) during cell injury cause by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: B) the pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels Programmed cell death is an active process of cellular self-destruction. It is also referred to as a. apoptosis b. necrosis c. metastatic calcification d. gangrene - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Apoptosis The nucleolus is a small dense structure composed mainly of RNA and cellular DNA. What causes the DNA to bind and fold into chromosomes? a. amino acid sequences b. histones c. polymerase d. miRNA - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Histones Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is never transmitted from father to son. It is a good example of a. sex-linked recessive disease b. autosomal dominant disease c. x-linked recessive disease d. chromosome structure abnormality disease - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>x- linked recessive disease Which cell is the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? a. t lymphocytes b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. b lymphocytes - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Eosinophils Which pathway in the complement system is activated by an antigen-antibody response? a. lectin b. classic c. alternative d. none of the above - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>classic The hallmark of AIDS profound immunosuppression, results from: a. proper function of helper t cells b. infection of b cells c. severe loss of CD4 Th cells d. none of the above - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>severe loss of CD4 Th cells These are proteins released by bacteria during growth. a. endotoxins b. TNF c. exotoxins d. pili - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>exotoxins Activation of the complement cascade may destroy pathogens directly and can activate with virtually every other component of the inflammatory response. True/False - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>True Ans: A- endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by: A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus One of the leading causes of death in the intensive care unit is the release of sufficient amounts of endotoxin resulting in endotoxic (septic) shock. The most common cause is: a. cachectin b. fungi c. gram-positive bacteria d. gram-negative bacteria - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>gram-negative bacteria The most common cause of fungal infections in humans are a. staphylococcus b. candida albicans c. gram-negative bacteria d. salmonella - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>candida albicans Which one of the childhood cancers is associated with the tumor suppressor genes? a. wilms tumor b. acute leukemia c. cerebellar hemagioblastoma d. testicular tumor - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>wilms tumor Leukemia refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a. connective tissue b. epithelial cells c. glandular tissue d. blood-forming cells - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>blood-forming cells Ans: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because: A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis D) the first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue? a. adenocarcinoma b. multiple myeloma c. basal cell carcinoma d. osteogenic sarcoma - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>osteogenic sarcoma Ans: A- infection - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy? A) infection B) ultraviolet damage What is the usual source of this condition in the lung from an obese smoker who had sudden death? a. valvular disease b. left heart failure c. endocartitis d. deep venous thrombosis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>deep venous thrombosis Ans: D- ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Graves disease develops from: A) a viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased in patients with: (Select 3) a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity d. liver disease e. congenital heart defects f. high alcohol consumption - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity Ans: A- high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include: A) high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins B) diminished levels of TRH C) high levels of TSH D) diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin Ans: B- decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum postassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? A) increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B) decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis C) increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis D) decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss Which form of cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromacytosis, or glycogen storage disease? a. hypertrophic b. infiltrative c. restrictive d. septal - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Restrictive A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe a(n): a. acute pericarditis b. pericardial effusion c. myocardial infarction d. restrictive pericarditis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>acute pericarditis Ans: A- resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease? a. tricuspid valve prolapse b. tricuspid prolapse c. mitral valve prolapse d. aortic stenosis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>mitral valve prolapse Ans: C- hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: A) hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration B) the dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime C) hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity Infective endocarditis is most often caused by a: a. rickettsiae b. fungus c. bacterium d. virus - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>bacterium Ans: A- the Somogyi effect - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with: A) the Somogyi effect B) the dawn phenomenon Ans: B- suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>In aplastic anemis (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes B) suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequte amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantitites of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) lact of stem cells toform sufficient quantities of leukocytes Congenital heart defects that cause acyanotic congestive heart failure usually involve: a. obstructive lesions b. left to right shunts c. right to left shunts d. mixed lesions - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>left to right shunts Ans: C- erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemotlytic anemia? A) warm autimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen D) immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by: a. creating alveolar dead space b. impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion c. creating a right to left shunt d. decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion Ans: B- is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood Alveolar dead space is a result of: a. atelectasis b. pulmonary edema c. pulmonary emboli d. pneumonia - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>pulmonary emboli The cause of pulmonary edema in ARDS is the result of increased: a. oncotic pressure increase by fulminant trauma to the lungs b. capillary hydrostatic pressure c. levels of serum sodium and water d. capillary permeability - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>capillary permeability Ans: A- excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero? A) excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible B) hemoglobin does now break down inot bilirubin in the intrauterin environment C) the liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form D) the destruction of erythtocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth Ans: C- by reducing the contractility of the myocardium - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? A) by increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction B) by causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia C) by reducing the contractility of the myocardium D) by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system ulmonary hypertension results from which of the following alteration? a. ischemia of the myocardium b. narrowed pulmonary capillaries c. narrow bronchi and bronchioles d. destruction of alveoli - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>narrowed pulmonary capillaries The chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RSD) of the newborn is: a. smoking during pregnancy b. premature birth c. low birth weight d. mother's alcohol consumption during the formation of lung - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>premature birth Ans: C- capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceases - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung? A) blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments B) alveolar pressure is greater than venouse pressure, but not greater than arterial pressure C) the capillary bed collapses and normal blood flow ceases D) blood flows through Zone I, but it is ipeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure Ans: A- vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? A) vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption B) bone marrow function depression C) iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias D) prescrbed daily warfarin (Coumadin) d. primary nephrotic syndrome - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>primary nephrotic syndrome Hypoalbuminemia and sodium retention - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Factors that contribute to edema in nephrotic syndrome Oncogenes of the ras gene family and tumor-supressor genes including TP53 mutations are mainly implicated in: a. primary bladder cancer b. pancreatitis c. cholecystitis d. glomerulonephritis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>primary bladder cancer PSGN (post streptococcal glomerulonephritis), IgA nephropathy - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>types of glomerulonephritis in children The MOST common sign of portal hypertension in children is: a. splenomegaly b. ascites c. hepatic encephalopathy d. upper gastrointestinal bleeding - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>splenomegaly Nephrotic syndrome in adults is characteristic of: a. glomerular injury b. diabetic nephropathy c. acute kidney injury d. acute tubular necrosis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>glomerular injury Two - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>The GFR increases, achieving adults level by what age Hypoplastic kidney - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>A small kidney with decreased number of nephrons A 55 yo african-american male with a hx of obesity, tobacco use, and hypertension presents to your clinic with c/o hematuria and dull, aching flank pain. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis would be: a. prostatitis b. renal cell carcinoma c. acute pyelonephritis d. diverticulitis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>renal cell carcinoma The microorganisms usually associated wtih acute pyelonephritis include all EXCEPT: a. pseudomonas b. proteus c. staph aureus d. E. coli - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>staph aureus Well demarcation in benign - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Benign vs malignant cancer tumor GERD causes inflammatory responses in the esophageal wall resulting in: a. erosion and ulcerations b. tissue fragility c. hyperemia d. all of the above - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>all of the above Cancers arising from the mesenchymal tissue usually have the suffix - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>sarcoma Decrease - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Factors that suppress ovulation increase or decrease risk of ovarian cancer A 45 yo female presents to the ED with abdominal discomfort, epigastric tenderness and upper GI bleeding. She has a hx of a recent H-pylori infection. Her most likely diagnosis would be: a. illeus b. hiatal hernia c. acute gastritis d. GERD - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>acute gastritis Radiation, diet, synthetic chemicals, physical activity - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What are the important environmental and lifestyle factors correlated with breast cancer The primary lesions in which disease are continuous with no skip lesions, are limited to the mucosa and are not transmural? a. diverticulitis b. crohns disease c. irritable bowel syndrome d. ulcerative colitis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>ulcerative colitis ______ is characterized by lower abdominal pain, diarrhea-predominant, constipation - predominant, alternating diarrhea/constipation, gas, bloating and nausea. a. diverticulitis b. IBS c. ulcerative colitis d. crohns disease - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>IBS Essential theombocytosis, polycythemia Vera, chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, chronic neutrophilic leukemia, chronic eosinophilia leukemia - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>What are several disorders collectively known as chronic myeloproliferative disorder Trauma, CHD, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valve - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Most common risk factors for endocardial damage Symptomatic changes in chronic kidney disease including increased creatinine, urea and potassium levels do not become apparant until renal function declines to: a. 30% b. < 25% c. 25% d. 50% - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>< 25% stable, unstable, variant/printzmetal, silent - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Types of Angina PATHOPHYSIOLOGY • Lung tissue changes • Pleural disease CLINICAL PRESENTATION • Dyspnea • Non-productive cough • Weakness & fatigue • Deceased chest expansion with insp. • Digital clubbing • Cyanosis Ex: aspiration, atelectasis, bronchiectasis, bronchiolitis, pulmonary fibrosis, inhalation disorders, pneumoconiosis, allergic alveolitis, pulmonary edema, ARDS - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>restricted lung disease A compensatory breathing pattern frequently seen with DKA is called: a. cheyne stokes respirations b. apnea c. kaussmaul respirations d. hypoventilation - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>kaussmaul respirations Pulmonary embolism - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Occlusion or partial occlusion of pulmonary artery or it's branches by an embolus With diabetes insipidus, insufficient levels of _________ lead to polyuria and polydipsia? a. GH b. ADP c. IGF-1 d. ADH - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>ADH empyema - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>infected pleural effusion DKA is most commonly associated with: a. type I DM b. HHNKS c. diabetes insipidus d. type II DM - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>type I DM Weight gain and accumulation of adipose tissue in the trunk, face and cervical areas is seen with: a. hypothyroidism b. metabolic syndrome c. graves disease d. cushing disease - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>cushing disease Results from destruction of elastin in alveolar septa and loss of passive elastic recoil - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Emphysema/Chronic Bronchitis Cushing, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hyperaldosteronism, hypersecretion of adrenal androgens and estrogens, adrenocortical hypodunction - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex The most common type of monitoring and control system for our hormones is: a. positive feedback system b. down regulation c. negative feedback system d. up regulation - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>negative feedback system Hypoglycemia, DKA, HHNKS, Somogyi effect, dawn phenomenon - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Acute complications of diabetes The most common hormonally active pituitary tumor in both men and women is: a. prolactin b. ACTH c. TSH d. FSH e. oxytocin - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Prolatin Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Two common types of IBD Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most often caused by a. HIV b. E. coli c. H. influenze d. gonorrhea and chlamydia - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>gonorrhea and chlamydia Pemphigus, bulbous pemphigoid, erythema multiforme, SJS, TEN - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>Vesicollobullous disorders The use of oral contraceptives, nulliparity, and 30 years or older at first birth are associated with ___________ risk of breast cancer. increased/decreased - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>increased Most cancers of the prostate are _________ that develop in the periphery of the gland. a. myeloma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. adenocarcinomas d. sarcomas - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>adenocarcinomas Your patient presents with HTN, palpitations, tachycardia, glucose intolerance, excessive sweating & constipation. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. pheochromocytoma b. cushing syndrome c. hypoparathyroidism d. hypocortisolism e. hyperpituitarism - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>pheochromocytoma The most common form of diabetes in children is: a. type I DM b. SIADH c. type II DM d. diabetes insipidus - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>type I DM HHNKS is most closely associated with a. hyperkalemia b. type II DM c. increased ketosis B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum postassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? A) increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B) decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis C) increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis D) decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: A) hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration B) the dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime C) hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with: A) the Somogyi effect B) the dawn phenomenon C) diabetic ketoacidosis D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>the Somogyi effect Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? A) wher the squamos epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina B) where the columnar epithelium fo the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus C) where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus D) where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina In aplastic anemis (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes B) suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequte amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantitites of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) lact of stem cells toform sufficient quantities of leukocytes - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemotlytic anemia? A) warm autimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen D) immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? A) vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption B) bone marrow function depression C) iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias D) prescrbed daily warfarin (Coumadin) - CORRECT CORRECT ANSWER>>A- vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption