Cellular and Molecular Biology Concepts, Exams of Nursing

Download Cellular and Molecular Biology Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CSET 215/217 Xam Practice Test 147 Questions with Verified Answers Which is not true about a cell membrane? A. It is made from phospholipids B. Both plant and animal cells have a cell membrane C. The cell wall is the same as the cell membrane in plants D. It controls the passage of nutrients within a cell - CORRECT ANSWER C. The cell wall is the same as the cell membrane in plants Plant cells also have an outer cell wall to give it structure Microorganisms use all but the following to move: A. Pseudopods B. Flagella C. Cilia D. Pili - CORRECT ANSWER D. Pili Pili are used for attachment Eukaryotic cells are found in all but the following: A. Bacteria B. Protists C. Fungi D. Animals - CORRECT ANSWER A. Bacteria Which kingdom is comprised of organisms made of one cell with no nuclear membrane? A. Monera B. Protista C. Fungi D. Algae - CORRECT ANSWER A. Monera Monera is unicellular with no nucleus, Algae is a protist made of one type of tissue but had nucleus Rough endoplasmic reticulum contains: A. Vacuoles B. Mitochondria C. Microfilaments D. Ribosomes - CORRECT ANSWER D. Ribosomes Identify the correct sequence of organization of living things: A. cell-organelle-organ system-tissue-organ-organism B. cell-tissue-organ-organ system-organelle-organism C. organelle-cell-tissue-organ-organ system-organism D. tissue-organelle-organ-cell-organism-organ system - CORRECT ANSWER C. organelle-cell-tissue-organ-organ system-organism organism (human) made of several organ systems (nervous system) which consists of many organs (brain) which are made of tissues which are made of cells which contain organelles (mitochondria) Which is not a characteristic of living things? A. Movement B. Cellular structure C. Metabolism D. Reproduction - CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement Movement is not a characteristic of life- viruses are considered non living but have the ability to move The purpose of the Golgi Apparatus is: A. To break down proteins A. prokaryotes B. eukaryotes C. protists D. archaea - CORRECT ANSWER D. archaea Thermoacidophiles, methanogens, and halobacteria are members of the archaea group Which of the following is not a type of fiber that makes up the cytoskeleton? A. vacuoles B. microfilaments C. microtubules D. intermediate filaments - CORRECT ANSWER A. vacuoles Viruses are made of A. a protein coat surrounding a nucleic acid B. DNA, RNA, and a cell wall C. a nucleic acid surrounding a protein coat D. protein surrounded by DNA - CORRECT ANSWER A. a protein coat surrounding a nucleic acid viruses have either RNA or DNA Protists are classified into major groups according to A. their method of obtaining nutrition B. reproduction C. metabolism D. their form and function - CORRECT ANSWER D. their form and function This stage of mitosis includes cytokinesis or division of the cytoplasm and its organelles A. anaphase B. interphase C. prophase D. telophase - CORRECT ANSWER D. telophase Replication of chromosomes occurs during which phase of the cell cycle? A. prophase B. interphase C. metaphase D. anaphase - CORRECT ANSWER B. interphase The cell grows and copies the chromosomes in preparation for the mitotic phase. Which statement regarding mitosis is correct? A. diploid cells produce haploid cells for sexual reproduction B. sperm and egg cells are produced C. diploid cells produce diploid cells for growth and repair D. It allows for greater genetic diversity - CORRECT ANSWER C. diploid cells produce diploid cells for growth and repair In a plant cell, telophase is described as A. the time of chromosome doubling B. cell plate formation C. the time when crossing over occurs D. cleavage furrow formation - CORRECT ANSWER B. cell plate formation Identify this stage of mitosis A. anaphase B. metaphase C. telophase D. prophase - CORRECT ANSWER B. metaphase Identify this stage of mitosis A. prophase B. telophase C. anaphase D. metaphase - CORRECT ANSWER B. telophase Which process(es) result(s) in a haploid chromosome number? A. both meiosis and mitosis B. mitosis C. meiosis D. replication and division - CORRECT ANSWER C. meiosis In meiosis, there are two consecutive cell division resulting in the reduction of the chromosome number by half (diploid to haploid) Identify this stage of mitosis A. anphase B. metaphase C. prophase D. telophase - CORRECT ANSWER A. anaphase centromeres split in half and homologous chromosomes separate Which of the following is a monomer? A. RNA B. glycogen C. DNA D. amino acid - CORRECT ANSWER D. amino acid A monomer is the simplest unit of structure for a particular macromolecule. Amino acids are the basic units that comprise a protein. Which does not affect enzyme rate? A. increase of temperature B. amount of substrate What are the monomers in polysaccharides? A. nucleotides B. amino acids C. polypeptides D. simple sugars - CORRECT ANSWER D. simple sugars A type of molecule not found in the membrane of an animal cell is A. phospholipid B. protein C. cellulose D. cholesterol - CORRECT ANSWER C. cellulose Cellulose is only found in plant cells. Which type of cell would contain the most mitochondria? A. muscle cell B. nerve cell C. epithelium D. blood cell - CORRECT ANSWER A. muscle cell Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration where ATP is made. Muscle cells have the most mitochondria because they use a great deal of energy. According to the fluid-mosaic model of the cell membrane, membranes are composed of A. phospholipid bilayers with proteins embedded in the layers B. one layer of the phospholipids with cholesterol embedded in the layer C. two layers of protein with lipids embedded the layers D. DNA and fluid proteins - CORRECT ANSWER A. phospholipid bilayers with proteins embedded in the layers All of the following statements regarding both a mitochondria and a chloroplast are correct except... A. they both produce energy over a gradient B. they both have DNA and are capable of reproduction C. they both transform light energy to chemical energy D. they both make ATP - CORRECT ANSWER C. they both transform light energy to chemical energy Cellular respiration does not transform light energy to chemical energy. Cellular respiration transfers electron to release energy. Photosynthesis utilizes light energy to produce chemical energy. Which is the correct statement regarding the human nervous system and the human endocrine system? A. the nervous system maintains homeostasis whereas the endocrine system does not B. endocrine glands produce neurotransmitters whereas nerves produce hormones C. nerve signals travel on neurons whereas hormones travel through the blood D. the nervous system involves chemical transmission whereas the endocrine system does not - CORRECT ANSWER C. nerve signals travel on neurons whereas hormones travel through the blood The most ATP is generated through A. fermentation B. glycolysis C. chemiosmosis D. the Krebs cycle - CORRECT ANSWER C. chemiosmosis The electron transport chain uses electrons to pump hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial membrane. This ion gradient is used to form ATP in a process called chemiosmosis. ATP is generated by the removal of hydrogen ions from NADH and FADH2. This yields 34 ATP molecules. The function of the cardiovascular system is to A. Move oxygenated blood around the body via a pump and tubes B. to oxygenate the blood through gas exchange C. to act as an exocrine system D. to flush toxins out of the body - CORRECT ANSWER A. Move oxygenated blood around the body via a pump and tubes Part of the nervous system include all but the following A. brain B. spinal cord C. axons D. venules - CORRECT ANSWER D. venules Homeostatic mechanisms in the body include all but the following: A. thermoregulation B. excretion C. respiration D. osmoregulation - CORRECT ANSWER C. respiration The body's endocrine mechanisms are controlled by: A. feedback loops B. control molecules C. neurochemicals D. neurotransmitters - CORRECT ANSWER A. feedback loops The gland the regulated the calcium in the body is the: A. Thyroid gland B. Parathyroid gland C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary gland - CORRECT ANSWER B. Parathyroid gland What is not one of the three gonadal steriods? D. hinge - CORRECT ANSWER B. pivot The waterproofing protein in the skin is called A. keratin B.epidermis C. collagen D. sebum - CORRECT ANSWER A. keratin A muscular adaptation to move food through the digestive system is called A. peristalsis B. passive transport C. voluntary action D. bulk transport - CORRECT ANSWER A. peristalsis The role of neurotransmitters in nerve action is A. to turn off the sodium pump B. to turn off the calcium pump C. to send impulses to neurons D. to send impulses to the body - CORRECT ANSWER A. to turn off the sodium pump The neurotransmitters turn off the sodium pump, which results in depolarization of the membrane. Fats are broken down by which substance? A. bile produced in the gall bladder B. lipase produced in the the gall bladder C. glucagons produced in the liver D. bile produced in the liver - CORRECT ANSWER D. bile produced in the liver The liver produces bile, which breaks down and emulsified fatty acids. Fertilization in humans usually occurs in the A. uterus B. ovary C. fallopian tubes D. vagina - CORRECT ANSWER C. fallopian tubes All of the following are found in the dermis layer of skin except A. sweat glands B. keratin C. hair follicles D. blood vessels - CORRECT ANSWER B. keratin Keratin is a water proofing protein found in the epidermis A school-aged boy had the chicken pox as a baby. He will most likely not get this disease again because of A. passive immunity B. vaccination C. antibiotics D. active immunity - CORRECT ANSWER D. active immunity Active immunity develops after recovery from an infectious disease, such as the chicken pox, or after vaccination. Passive immunity to some diseases may be passed from one individual to another (from mother to nursing child) Vaccines are available for all but the following A. mumps B. tetanus C. staphylococcus D. measles - CORRECT ANSWER C. staphylococcus Immune defensive components in the body include all but A. humoral immunity B. skin barrier C. blood brain barrier D. cell mediated immunity - CORRECT ANSWER C. blood brain barrier Any foreign particle that causes an immune reaction is A. an antigen B. a histocompatibility complex C. an antibody D. a vaccine - CORRECT ANSWER A. antigen What triggers organ transplantation rejection? A. Antibodies B. Major histocompatibility complex C. Cytotoxic T Cells D. Autoimmune factor - CORRECT ANSWER B. Major histocompatibility complex Which of the following is not posttranscriptional processing? A. 5' capping B. intron splicing C. polypeptide splicing D. 3' polyadenylation - CORRECT ANSWER C. polypeptide splicing The removal of segments of polypeptides is a postranslational process. The other three are methods of posttransciptional processing. The polymerase chain reaction A. is a group of polymerases B. is a technique for amplifying DNA C. is a primer for DNA synthesis D. is a synthesis of polymerase - CORRECT ANSWER B. is a technique for amplifying DNA DNA is first transcribed into mRNA, the complementary mRNA is UGAUAC (in RNA T is U). The mRNA sequence is the codon. The anticodon (tRNA) is the complement of the codon. 1. mRNA trasnscribes codon to TGATAC 2. tRNA translates anticodon to ACUAUG Any change that affects the sequence of bases in a gene is called a(n) A. deletion B. polyploid C. mutation D. duplication - CORRECT ANSWER C. mutation Segments of DNA can be transferred from the DNA of one organism to another through the use of which of the following A. bacterial plasmids B. viruses C. chromosomes from frogs D. plant DNA - CORRECT ANSWER A. bacterial plasmids Plasmids can transfer themselves (and therefore their genetic information) by a process called conjugation. This requires cell to cell contact. The quaternary structure of proteins is A. the overall structure of the protein from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide chains B. formed by bonding between the side chains of the amino acids C. the coils and folds of polpypeptide chains D. the protein's unique sequence of amino acids - CORRECT ANSWER A. the overall structure of the protein from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide chains The enzyme that unwinds DNA during replication is A. DNAse B. replicase C. helicase D. topoisomerases - CORRECT ANSWER C. helicase A small circular piece of DNA that contains accessory DNA is called A. mitochondrial DNA B. messenger RNA C. transfer DNA D. plasmid - CORRECT ANSWER D. plasmid commonly found in bacteria The order of DNA duplication is the following A. termination, elongation, initiation B. initiation, elongation, termination C. elongation, initiation, termination D. initiation, termination, elongation - CORRECT ANSWER B. initiation, elongation, termination in DNA, adenine bonds with __________, while cystosine bonds with ____________. A. thymine/ guanine B. adenine/ cytosine C. cytosine/ adenine D. guanine/ thymine - CORRECT ANSWER A. thymine/ guanine Which protein structure consists of the coils and folds of polypeptide chains? A. secondary structure B. quaternary structure C. tertiary structure D. primary structure - CORRECT ANSWER A. secondary structure Homozygous individuals A. have two different alleles B. are of the same species C. have the same features D. have a pair of identical alleles - CORRECT ANSWER D. have a pair of identical alleles The term phenotype refers to which of the following? A. a condition which is heterozygous B. the genetic makeup of an individual C. a condition which is homozygous D. how the genotype is expressed - CORRECT ANSWER D. how the genotype is expressed The ratio of brown eyed to blue eyed children from the mating of a blue eyed male to a heterozygous brown eyed female would be expected to be which of the following? A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:0 D. 1:2 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 1:1 Use a punent square. The ratio will be 2:2, which is the same as 1:1 The Law of Segregation defined by Mendel states that A. when sex cells form, the two alleles that determines a trait will end up on different gametes B. only one of two alleles is expressed in a heterozygous organism C. the allele expressed is the dominant allele D. alleles of one trait do not affect the inheritance of alleles on another chromosome - CORRECT ANSWER A. when sex cells form, the two alleles that determines a trait will end up on different gametes A genetic engineering advancement in the medical field is A. gene therapy B. pesticides C. degradation of harmful chemicals D. antibiotics - CORRECT ANSWER A. gene therapy What is not one of the modern uses of DNA? A. PCR technology B. Gene therapy C. Cloning D. Genetic alignment - CORRECT ANSWER D. Genetic alignment Gel electrophoresis: A. isolates fragment of DNA for scientific purposes B. cannot be used in proteins C. requires the polymerase chain reaction D. only separates DNA by size - CORRECT ANSWER A. isolates fragment of DNA for scientific purposes The duplication of genetic material into another cell is called A. replicating B. cell duplication C. cloning D. genetic restructuring - CORRECT ANSWER C. cloning Electrophoresis separates DNA on the basis of A. amount of current B. molecular size C. positive charge of the molecule D. solubility of the gel - CORRECT ANSWER B. molecular size Reproductive isolation results in A. extinction B. migration C. follilization D. speciation - CORRECT ANSWER D. speciation What is true about natural selection? A. it acts on an individual genotype B. it does not happen currently C. it is a phenomenon of animals only D. it acts on the individual phentoype - CORRECT ANSWER D. it acts on an individual phenotype How does diversity aid a population? A. it provides possible improvements to the population B. mates are attracted to a diverse population C. potential mates like conformity D. it increases the DNA differences in the population - CORRECT ANSWER A. it provides possible improvement to the population DNA synthesis results in a strand that is synthesized continuously. This is the... A. lagging strand B. leading strand C. template strand D. complementary strand - CORRECT ANSWER B. leading strand What is not true of diversity? A. Without diversity there would be more extinction B. Diversity is increasing all the time C. Fossil evidence supports diversity D. Skeletons are too similar to allow for diversity - CORRECT ANSWER D. Skeletons are too similar to allow for diversity Darwin supported the evolutionary theory of A. punctualism B. gradualism C. equilibrium D. convergency - CORRECT ANSWER b. gradualism What is not true about reproductive isolation? A. it prevents population from exchanging genes B. it can occur by preventing fertilization C. it can result in speciation D. it is not a phenomenon of islands - CORRECT ANSWER D. it is not a phenomenon of islands Members of the same species A. look identical B. never change C. reproduce successfully within their group D. live in the same geographic location - CORRECT ANSWER C. reproduce successfully within their group Species are defined by the ability to successfully reproduce with members of their own kind. Which of the following factors will affect the Hardy-Weinberg law of equilibrium, leading to evolutionary change? A. no mutations B. non-random mating C. no immigration or emigration D. large population - CORRECT ANSWER B. non-random mating The abiotic stage was the nonliving stage. Then came the formation of polymers and the accumulation of the probionts. The last stage was the origin of heredity. What is not true about Cladistics? A. It is the study of phylogenetic relationships of organisms B. It involves a branching diagram that uses the development of novel traits to separate groups of organisms C. It distinguishes between the relative importance of the traits D. It shows when traits develop with respect to other traits - CORRECT ANSWER C. It distinguishes between the relative importance of the traits If DDT were present in an ecosystem, which of the following organisms would have the highest concentration in its system? A. grasshopper B. eagle C. frog D. crabgrass - CORRECT ANSWER B. eagle Chemicals and pesticides accumulate along the food chain. Tertiary consumers have more accumulated toxins that animals at the bottom of the food chain. What eats secondary consumers? A. producers B. tertiary consumers C. primary consumers D. decomposers - CORRECT ANSWER B. tertiary consumers What is true of the water cycle? A. Two percent of the water is fixed and unavailable B. 75% of available water is groundwater C. The water cycle is driven by the ocean currents D. Surface water is unavailable - CORRECT ANSWER A. Two percent of the water is fixed and unavailable 96% of available water is groundwater. The water cycle is driven by the sun. Surface water is available. What is not true of the carbon cycle? A. Ten percent of all available carbon is in the air B. Carbon dioxide is fixed by glycosylation C. Plants fix carbon in the form of glucose D. Animals release carbon through respiration - CORRECT ANSWER B. Carbon dioxide is fixed by glycosylation Sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides in the environment react with water to cause A. ammonia B. acidic precipitation C. sulfuric acid D. global warming - CORRECT ANSWER B. acidic precipitation Acidic precipitation is rain, snow, or fog with a PH less than 5.6. It is caused by sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides that react with water in the air to form acids that fall down to Earth as precipitation. Which term is not associated with the water cycle? A. precipitation B. transpiration C. fixation D. evaportation - CORRECT ANSWER C. fixation Water is recycled through the processes of evaporation and precipitation. Transpiration is the evaporation of water from leaves. All of the following are density independent factors that affect a population except... A. temperature B. rainfall C. predation D. soil nutrients - CORRECT ANSWER C. predation As a population increases, the competition for resources is intense and the growth rate declines. This is a density-dependent factor. AN example of this would be predation. Density independent factors affect the population regardless of its size. High humidity and temperature stability are present in which of the following biomes? A. taiga B. deciduous forest C. desert D. tropical rain forest - CORRECT ANSWER D. tropical rain forest Which trophic level has the highest ecological efficiency? A. decomposers B. producers C. tertiary consumers D. secondary consumers - CORRECT ANSWER B. producers Producers have the greatest amount of energy and are at the bottom of the pyramid of productivity. Oxygen created in photosynthesis comes from the breakdown of A. carbon dioxide B. water C. glucose D. carbon monoxide - CORRECT ANSWER B. water In photosynthesis, water is split; the hydrogen atoms are pulled to carbon dioxide which is taken in by the plant and ultimately reduced to make glucose. The oxygen from the water is given off as a waste product. Which is the correct order of methodology? 1. testing a revised explanation, 2. setting up a controlled experiment to test an explanation, 3. drawing a conclusion, 4. suggesting an explanation for observations, and 5. comparing observed results to hypothesized results A. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 D. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 - CORRECT ANSWER C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 Given a choice, which is the most desirable method of heating a substance in the lab? A. alcohol burner B. gas burner C. Bunsen burner D. hot plate - CORRECT ANSWER D. hot plate A hot plate is the only heat source from the choices above that does not have an open flame. The use of a hot plate will reduce the risk of fire and injury to students. Biological waste should be disposed of A. in the trash can B. under a fume hood C. in the broken gladd box D. in an autoclavable biohazard bag - CORRECT ANSWER D. in an autoclavable biohazard bag Chemicals should be stored... A. in a cool dark room B. in a dark room C. according to their reactivity with other substances D. in a double locked room - CORRECT ANSWER C. according to their reactivity with other substances Who should be notified in the case of a serious chemical spill? I. the custodian II. the fire department III. the chemistry teacher IV. the administration A. I B. II C. II and III D. II and IV - CORRECT ANSWER D. II and IV The "Right to Know" law states A. the inventory of toxic chemicals checked against the "Substance List" be available B. that students are to be informed of alternatives to dissections C. that science teachers are to be informed of student allergies D. that students are to be informed of infectious microorganisms used in lab - CORRECT ANSWER A. the inventory of toxic chemicals checked against the "Substance List" be available The right to know pertains to chemical substances in the lab. In which situation would a science teacher be liable? A. a teacher leaves to receive an emergency phone call and a student slips and falls B. a student removes their goggles and gets dissection fluid in their eye C. a faulty gas line results in a fire D. a student cuts himself with a scalpel - CORRECT ANSWER A. a teacher leaves to receive an emergency phone call and a student slips and falls Which statement best defines negligence? A. failure to give oral instructions for those with reading disabilities B. failure to exercise ordinary care C. inability to supervise a large group of students D. reasonable anticipation that an event may occur - CORRECT ANSWER B. failure to exercise ordinary care Which item should always be used when using chemicals with noxious vapors? A. eye protection B. face shield C. fume hood D. lab apron - CORRECT ANSWER C. fume hood