Cellular Biology and Molecular Genetics, Exams of Molecular biology

Download Cellular Biology and Molecular Genetics and more Exams Molecular biology in PDF only on Docsity! MOLECULAR BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024 – 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) | A+ GRADE "The native structure of hemoglobin (HB) comprises of two α and two β subunits, each of which carries a heme group. There appear to be no previous studies that report the in- vitro folding and assembly of Hb from highly unfolded α and β globin in a 'one-pot' reaction. One difficulty that has to be overcome for studies of this kind is the tendency of Hb to aggregate during refolding. This work demonstrates that denaturation of Hb in 40% acetonitrile at pH 10.0 is reversible." (J Am Soc Mass Spectrum 2007, 18, 8- 16)Hemoglobin, when subjected to 40% acetonitrile at pH 10.0, loses its quaternary structure, which means the ________. A) four α and β polypeptides dissociate, peptide bonds between amino acids, and α and β polypeptides lose their 3-D structure B) peptide bonds between amino acids break C) four α and β polypeptides dissociate D) α and β polypeptides lose their 3-D structure Correct Answer C What is the role of hydrogen in the synthesis of "hardened fats" from vegetable oil? A) Hydrogen causes cross-linking between chains. B) Hydrogen increases the carbon chain length. C) Hydrogen causes hydrolysis to occur. D) Hydrogen reduces the number of carbon-carbon double bond. Correct Answer D Which of the following best describes glycogen? A) is formed by the hydrolysis of glucose molecules. B) has alpha 1-6 glyosidic bonds. C) a fibrous protein that helps in maintaining cellular structure D) a storage polysaccharide found in plants Correct Answer B Which part of an amino acid gives it its unique identity? A) the components of its side chain B) the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid C) the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule D) the carboxyl and amino groups Correct Answer A Which of the following are possible base compositions for double-stranded DNA? A) 5, 45, 45, 5, 0 B) 20, 20, 20, 20, 20 C) 35, 15, 35, 15, 0 D) All of these Correct Answer A Which of the following molecules is a Disaccharide? Correct Answer 15 D) mitochondria Correct Answer A Examination of a cell by transmission electron microscopy reveals a high density of ribosomes in the cytoplasm. This observation suggests that the cell is actively producing large amounts of which of the following molecules? A) lipids B) proteins C) nucleic acids D) polysaccharides Correct Answer B Which of the following organelles is primarily responsible for the production and modification of polysaccharides that will be secreted? A) Golgi apparatus B) mitochondrion C) peroxisome D) lysosome Correct Answer A Which of the following statements best describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack rough endoplasmic reticulum. B) Proteins secreted by prokaryotes are likely synthesized on ribosomes bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. C) The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. D) Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system. Correct Answer B A cell with a predominance of rough endoplasmic reticulum is most likely involved in which of the following processes? A) producing large quantities of carbohydrates for storage in the vacuole B) producing large quantities of carbohydrates to assemble an extensive cell wall matrix C) producing large quantities of proteins in the cytosol D) producing large quantities of proteins for secretion Correct Answer D An early step in the evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved which of the following events? A) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using bacterium in a larger bacterial host cell-the endosymbiont evolved into chloroplasts B) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using bacterium in a larger bacterial host cell-the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria C) endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic archaeal cell in a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen-the anaerobic archaea evolved into chloroplasts D) evolution of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Correct Answer B Eukaryotic chromatin is composed of which of the following macromolecules? A) DNA and phospholipids B) DNA and RNA C) DNA only D) DNA and proteins Correct Answer D After DNA replication, each duplicated chromosome consists of two of which of the following structures? A) daughter chromosomes B) sister chromatids C) daughter nucleosomes D) sister chromatins Correct Answer B What is the name of the region on duplicated chromosomes where the sister chromatids are most closely attached to each other? A) the centrosome B) the cohesin C) the chromatin D) the centromere Correct Answer D Beginning with a fertilized egg (zygote), how many cells will be present in the embryo following five rounds of cell division? A) 16 B) 6 C) 10 D) 32 Correct Answer D In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many centromeres will be found in a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle? A) 4 B) 32 C) 16 The term insoluble fiber on food packages refers to which of the following molecules? A) starch B) amylopectin C) cellulose D) polypeptides Correct Answer C How many molecules of water are released during polymerization of a 22 monomer-long cellulose molecule? A) 21 B) 44 C) 11 D) 22 Correct Answer A Which of the following statements describes the interaction of water molecules with phospholipids? A) Phospholipids dissolve in water. B) Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar. C) The polar heads avoid water; the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is polar and opposites attract). D) The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not. Correct Answer D An amino acid is to a protein as a glucose molecule is to ________. A) nucleic acid B) glycogen C) a lipid D) a tripeptide Correct Answer B Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded polypeptides? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Alzheimer's and Parkinson's C) Parkinson's only D) Alzheimer's only Correct Answer B Ovalbumin, the egg white protein is denatured in scrambled egg. Which of the following is not affected? A) primary structure of ovalbumin B) secondary structure of ovalbumin C) tertiary structure of ovalbumin D) quaternary structure of ovalbumin Correct Answer A Which of the following ratios of nucleotides is constant for DNA? A) A + U = G + C B) A + C = U + G C) A + G = T + C D) A + T = G + C Correct Answer C Which molecule has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and is found in plasma membranes? Correct Answer Phospholipids- 5 How many amino acids and peptide bonds does a tetrapeptide have? A) three amino acids and four peptide bonds B) four amino acids and two peptide bonds C) four amino acids and four peptide bonds D) four amino acids and three peptide bonds Correct Answer D When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid, ________. A) a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second B) a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second C) covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides D) hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides Correct Answer A Cells from a diploid protist with n=1 are followed through mitosis and meiosis. The drawings in the figure below represent the chromosomes. Refer to the drawings and answer the following question(s). Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis? A) V B) IV C) II D) I Correct Answer D Which diagram represents anaphase II of meiosis? A) I B) V C) IV D) III Correct Answer B) V A) Homologous segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged. B) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA. C) DNA repair machinery alters maternal alleles so they match paternal ones D) Two sister chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re- sequencing its DNA. Correct Answer A Which of the following processes facilitates the fastest way for animal species to adapt to a changing environment? A) mitosis B) mutation C) asexual reproduction D) sexual reproduction Correct Answer D Two different species of protists living in a tide pool. Species A reproduces both sexually and asexually, and Species B reproduce only asexually. The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses. Which species are more likely to survive in the changing environment? A) Species A only B) Species B only C) Both species are equally likely to survive. D) Neither species will be able to survive. Correct Answer A If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I will be ________. A) x B) 0.25x C) 0.5x D) 2x Correct Answer D If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II will be ________. A) 2x B) 0.5x C) 0.25x D) x Correct Answer D Frederick Griffith heat-killed a culture of pathogenic bacteria. He split the sample and injected half of it into mice. The mice lived. He then mixed the other half with a living, nonpathogenic bacteria strain and injected the mixture into mice. The mice died. These results best support which of the following conclusions. A) the initial heat treatment was unsuccessful B) splitting the culture revived the pathogenic bacteria C) a substance had been transferred from pathogenic to nonpathogenic bacteria D) non-pathogenic bacteria were transformed by pathogenic capsule proteins Correct Answer C Which of the following investigators was (were) responsible for determining that DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and thymine, and equal amounts of guanine and cytosine? A) Erwin Chargaff B) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod C) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl D) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase Correct Answer A A sample of double-stranded DNA contains 28% thymine. Approximately what percent of the nucleotides in this sample will be guanine? A) 22% B) 72% C) 16% D) 8% Correct Answer A Two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. Like Hershey and Chase they used radioactive sulfur but they substituted radioactive nitrogen for radioactive phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogen atoms. Thus, labeling the nitrogen atoms would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Which of the following is the biggest shortcoming in their experimental design? A) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, therefore, the material would be too dangerous for too long. B) The signal from the nucleotide would be so strong that it would overwhelm the signal from sulfur. C) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. D) The radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins because proteins contain nitrogen. Correct Answer D A) DNA replication is not conservative. B) DNA replication is semiconservative. C) RNA synthesis is conservative. D) DNA replication is conservative. Correct Answer B Referring to the figure, what bases will be added as DNA replication proceeds on the bottom strand? A) 5′ C, A, G, C, A, G, A 3′ B) 3′ G, T, C, G, T, C, T 5′ C) 5′ A, G, A, C, G, A, C 3′ D) 3′ T, C, T, G, C, T, G 5′ Correct Answer C What are telomeres? A) the ends of linear chromosomes B) the sites of origin of DNA replication C) enzymes that elongate the DNA strand during replication D) the structures that hold two sister chromatids together Correct Answer A Which of the following types of cells are affected most by telomere shortening? A) only eukaryotic cells B) only prokaryotic cells C) only animal cells D) only plant cells Correct Answer A In DNA replication in E. coli, the enzyme primase is used to attach a 5 to 10 base ribonucleotide strand complementary to the parental DNA strand. The RNA strand serves as a starting point for the DNA polymerase that replicates the DNA. If a mutation occurred in the primase gene, which of the following results would you expect? A) Replication would only occur on the leading strand. B) Replication would only occur on the lagging strand. C) Replication would not be affected as the enzyme primase in involved with RNA synthesis. D) Replication would not occur on either the leading or lagging strand. Correct Answer D Which of the following processes occurs as part of transcription? A) RNA is synthesized B) proteins are synthesized C) DNA is replicated D) mRNA attaches to ribosomes Correct Answer A Which of the following best describes the redundancy in the genetic code? A) More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid. B) The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms). C) A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid. D) The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms. Correct Answer A Once researchers identified DNA as the molecule responsible for transmitting heritable traits, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of information transfer that accomplishes this task in eukaryotes? A) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place. B) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. C) Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place. D) RNA polymerase transfers information from the nucleus to tRNA synthase in the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place. Correct Answer A According to the central dogma, which of the following intermediate molecules correctly completes the flow chart describing the flow of information in a cell blank?DNA → ________ → Proteins A) rRNA B) tRNA C) enzymes D) mRNA Correct Answer D Which answer correctly compares prokaryotic and eukaryotic codons? A) Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes. B) Organism within a phylum share codons that are distinct from organisms in other phyla. D) The 5′ cap of the mRNA will bind covalently. Correct Answer A Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of a signal peptide? A) It terminates translation of messenger RNA. B) It signals the initiation of transcription. C) It directs an mRNA molecule into the lumen of the ER. D) It helps target a protein to the ER. Correct Answer D Which of the following changes in an exon is most likely to result in a nonfunctional protein product? A) a base-pair deletion B) a codon deletion C) a substitution in the last base of a codon D) an addition of three nucleotides Correct Answer A Translation termination occurs when a ribosome interacts with which of the following structures? A) the 5′ cap B) a stop codon C) the end of the mRNA molecule. D) the poly-A tail Correct Answer B During the elongation phase of translation, which site in the ribosome represents the first location where a codon pairs with an anticodon? A) E site B) A site C) the large ribosomal subunit D) P site Correct Answer B Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for the amino acid carried by the aminoacyl-tRNA represented in the figure? A) 5′-GUA-3′ B) 3′-GUG-5′ C) 5′-UGG-3′ D) 5′-UUC-3′ Correct Answer D Which of the following properties is associated with a protein that will be secreted from a eukaryotic cell? A) It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free within the cytosol. B) Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane. C) Its signal sequence must be cleaved off as the polypeptide enters the ER. D) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER. Correct Answer D What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule shown in the figure? A) peptide bonding between amino acids B) ionic bonding between phosphates C) van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms D) hydrogen bonding between base pairs Correct Answer D What is the function of the release factor during translation in eukaryotes? A) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation. B) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond. C) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA. D) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol. Correct Answer C Which of the following molecules directly participates in the process of translation? A) mRNA, DNA, and rRNA B) mRNA, tRNA, and DNA C) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA D) mRNA, tRNA, DNA, and rRNA Correct Answer C When taken up by a cell, which of the following molecules binds to a repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to an operator? A) inducer B) promoter C) cAMP D) corepressor Correct Answer A Which of the following molecules binds with a repressor to alter its conformation and therefore affect its function? A) transcription factor B) inducer C) cAMP D) promoter Correct Answer B C) They inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing. D) They are sufficient to allow high levels of transcription. Correct Answer A Which of the following characteristics of gene expression allows bacteria to quickly change protein synthesis patterns in response to environmental changes? A) mRNA is stored for later use when it is needed later. B) Operons are activated in the presence of transcription factors. C) mRNA have long lifespans, allowing the bacteria to use them many times for translation. D) mRNAs that are produced are short-lived and degraded within a few minutes of being synthesized. Correct Answer D Which of the following processes destroys RNA molecules if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA? A) RNA interference B) RNA disposal C) RNA blocking D) RNA obstruction Correct Answer A Cytoplasmic determinants are best described as having which of the following characteristics? A) They are maternal substances in the egg that influence the course of early development. B) They are single-stranded RNA molecules capable of binding complementary sequences and altering translation. C) They are centromeric regions of DNA loosened for chromosomal replication by transcription factors. D) They are tissue-specific transcription factors expressed in the early embryo. Correct Answer A Mutations in which of the following genes result in transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A) egg-polarity genes B) inducers C) homeotic genes D) segmentation genes Correct Answer C A cell is considered to be differentiated if it has which of the following characteristics? A) The cell loses connections to the surrounding cells. B) The cell produces proteins specific to a particular cell type. C) The cell appears to be different from the surrounding cells. D) The cell replicates by the process of mitosis. Correct Answer B Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene? A) a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence B) a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein C) a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto- oncogene D) a mutation that greatly reduces the stability of a proto- oncogene mRNA Correct Answer B Which of the following describes the role typical proto- oncogenes have when they are expressed in cells that are not cancerous? A) They suppress tumor growth. B) They stimulate normal cell growth and division. C) They enhance signaling from growth factor receptors. D) They inhibit differentiation. Correct Answer B Which of the following best explains the inability of bacteria to correctly express the protein products of plasmid containing an unmodified mammalian gene? A) bacteria translate only mRNAs that have multiple messages B) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes C) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA D) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns Correct Answer D Which of the following reasons best explains why sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is important for genetic research? A) It allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about. C) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments must be modified to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory. D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned. Correct Answer C Which of the following is an ethical question regarding the use of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing in humans? A) Should we be able to select and control the genetic makeup of the human population? B) Should we be able to use try to use approaches developed in other model systems (for example, fruit flies, mice) in humans? C) Should we be able to determine information about individuals' genomes? D) Should we be able to reduce the prevalence of human disease? Correct Answer A Which of the following best describes a biological concern regarding the use of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing in humans? A) The modifications created by the process may result in unintended effects on non-target genes. B) The process may introduce viral sequences into the human genome leading to unwanted blood cell proliferation (leukemia). C) The process was first discovered in bacteria and human cells cannot correctly interpret prokaryotic regulatory signals. D) The presence of repeated sequences (STRs) within the human genome mean that the editing cannot be targeted to a specific location. Correct Answer A Gene therapy requires the ability to do which of the following? A) express the introduced gene at any time within the patient B) remove the vector used to introduce the non-defective allele C) isolate the defective chromosome within the nuclei of the patient's cells D) introduce the normal allele into the patient Correct Answer D In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, SCID-X1, how is the genetic engineering of human cells achieved? A) by treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically engineered viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's bone marrow B) by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bone marrow C) by isolating the patient's bone marrow cells, infecting them with genetically engineered viruses, and injecting them back into the patient's bone marrow D) by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bloodstream Correct Answer C The above illustrates the gene structure of the human INS gene, which encodes the human insulin. In order to express this gene in E. coli, the two introns must be removed before this gene is cloned into an E. coli plasmid for the production of the human insulin protein. What is the most common molecular biology technique to remove these introns? A) Find a set of restriction enzymes that just happen to cut run at the exon-intron boundaries, cut the human genomic DNA using them, then ligate the cut DNA back together. Use Sanger sequencing to check if you have re- assembled the correct sequence. B) Isolate mRNAs from human pancreatic cells, then use a reverse transcriptase to reverse transcribe specifically the INS mRNA into INS cDNA for further manipulation. C) Isolate mRNAs from human pancreatic cells, then chemically alter the INS mRNA in such a way that all the 2' OH groups on the mRNA are removed and replaced with 2 Correct Answer B Which of the following use labelled probes to visualize the expression of genes in whole tissues ? A) in situ hybridization B) RNA interference C) RT-PCR D) PCR Correct Answer A The Cas9 protein used in CRISPR-Cas9 techniques uses a molecule of ____________ to find complementary ____________ sequences to cut. A) DNA, DNA B) RNA, DNA C) RNA, RNA B) They have a single-stranded DNA that is integrated into the host cell genome. C) They are not destroyed or deactivated by heating. D) They can only reproduce by infecting bacteria. Correct Answer A What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It translates viral RNA into proteins. B) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. C) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. D) It uses viral RNA as a template for making more viral RNA strands. Correct Answer C Poliovirus is an RNA virus of the picornavirus group, which uses its RNA as mRNA. The RNA genome has a 5′ RNA cap instead of a 5′ methyl-G cap. This is followed by a non-translated leader sequence and then a single long protein-coding region (~7,000 nucleotides) followed by a poly-A tail. Infected cells were incubated with radioactive amino acids and viral proteins were isolated. After a short incubation with radioactive amino acids only very long viral proteins were seen, while longer periods of labeling result in several short polypeptides of different lengths.Which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the results described? A) The RNA is translated into short polypeptides, which are then assembled into large complexes. B) Host cell ribosomes translate the viral coding region and poly-A tail at different times resulting in the different populations of proteins. C) The RNA is first translated into a Correct Answer C If a viral host cell has a mutation that interferes with the addition of carbohydrates to proteins during processing in the Golgi apparatus, which of the following processes is most likely to occur? A) The virus would be unable to reproduce within the host cell. B) The viral envelope proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane. C) The viral capsid proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane. D) The viral core proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane. Correct Answer B Viruses require host cell's machinery to make copies of themselves. However, some viruses that infect humans require mechanisms that do not normally occur in human cells. Which of the following describes how the viruses can replicate in human cells? A) The virus causes mutations in the human cells, resulting in the formation of new enzymes that are capable of performing these roles. B) Viruses can stay in a quiescent state until the host cell evolves this ability. C) The viral genome codes for specialized enzymes not found in the host cells. D) The virus can enter these cells but new viruses will not be made until an environmental change triggers a switchover. Correct Answer C A virus consisting of a single strand of RNA, which is reverse transcribed into complementary DNA, is referred to as a ________. A) bacteriophage B) non-enveloped virus C) protease D) retrovirus Correct Answer D Which of the following correctly describes a strategy that bacteria have evolved to defend against infection by phage? A) Bacteria methylate phage DNA as it enters the cell, targeting it for destruction by restriction enzymes. B) Bacteria secrete enzymes that diffuse away from the cell and digest phage capsid proteins so the virus cannot infect the cells. C) The CRISPR-Cas system allows bacteria to recognize phage strains that have previously infected that bacterial lineage and targets the phage DNA for destruction. D) The lysogenic cycle allows bacteria evolve inhibitors that bind with the phage DNA they contain so their daughter cells will no longer be infected. Correct Answer C What is difference between an epidemic and a pandemic? A) An epidemic is caused by a bacterial infection; a pandemic is caused by a viral infection. B) An epidemic is a disease; a pandemic is a treatment. After viral entry, the ssRNA(+) genome is used as a template to generate ssRNA(-), which is used as a template to generate more viral mRNAs and viral genomic RNAs (both of which are + strands). What enzyme below is responsible for this series of RNA synthesis? a) Human RNA-dependent RNA polymerase b) Human RNA polymerase II c) Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase d) Human DNA polymerase delta Correct Answer C Once inside the cell, SARS-CoV-2 messes with the cellular machinery to maximize production of viral proteins and minimize the production of cellular proteins. Pertaining to the changes to the cell, select all the statements that are true below. A) The viral Nsp1 protein appears to jam nuclear pores to prevent the exit of cellular transcript from the nucleus to the cytoplasm B) The viral Nsp1 protein reduces all cellular translation by blocking the mRNA channel on the ribosome C) Viral Nsp1 causes the infected cell to fuse with a neighboring cell, pooling together more translational resources D) The viral Nsp1 protein recruits cellular machinery to cut up cellular mRNAs without a viral sequence Correct Answer A,B,D How does SARS-CoV-2 appear to exit the cell? Choose the two pathways currently under investigation. a) SARS-CoV-2 appears to be secreted via the Golgi b) SARS-CoV-2 appears to be secreted via the lysosome c) SARS-CoV-2 appears to bud from the nucleus d) SARS-CoV-2 appears to bud from the plasma membrane Correct Answer A,B