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1. Which of the following is NOT a growing trend in Central Service?: Decen-tralization
of Central Service responsibilities
2. The human resources tool that defines job duties performed by personsin specific
positions is called a: job description.
3. Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all sched-uled
procedures for an entire day are usually pulled (collected): the day or evening before they will be used
4. In the future, which of the following will more frequently become a require-ment for
working in a Central Service department?: Formal Education
5. Central Service technicians must wear special attire referred to as
to minimize their exposure to bloodborne pathogens and other contaminates.: PPE
6. The first step in sterilization process is: cleaning.
7. Healthcare-associated infections are: infections which occur in the course ofbeing
treated in a healthcare facility.
8. The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a
component of which of the following knowledge and skills dimensions?: - Employability skills
9. Soiled instruments and other items are received in the
area of the Central Service department.: de- contamination
10. While items may be dispensed to all areas of a facility, the major focus ofthe sterile
storage personnel is: the Operating Room.
11. Which of the following surgical abbreviations might be used relating to afractured
bone?: ORIF
12. Which of the following means beside or near?: Para
13. The word laminectomy means: removal of part of a lamina.
14. The term septorhinoplasty means: surgical repair of the nose
15. Encephalopathy is a/an: disease of the brain.
16. The term itis means: inflammation.
17. Knowing and understanding medical terminology helps technicians: un-derstand
what is asked when a request is made
18. The term oscopy means: visual examination.
19. The purpose of the combining vowel is to: ease pronunciation of a word.
20. The last word element in a medical term is the: suffix
21. Which of the following tells the primary meaning of a word?: Root wordelement
22. The suffix - tome means a: cutting instrument.
23. Arthroscopy means: visual examination of a joint.
24. Plasty is a: suffix meaning surgical restoration
25. The majority of medical terms are either or
.: Greek or Latin
26. The term hypo means: below.
27. The term intercostal means: between the ribs.
28. The term ostomy: is a suffix.
29. Lithotripsy means: crushing of a stone.
30. The term ectomy means: surgical removal
31. What is the organ that filters the blood to remove amino acids and
neutralize some harmful toxins?: Liver
32. These muscles control involuntary movements like breathing, digestion,etc.:
Smooth
33. The throat is also called the: pharynx.
34. This system gives the body shape and support.: Skeletal system
35. The largest part of the human brain is the: cerebrum.
36. This surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from wristarea to
release pressure in the median nerve.: Carpal tunnel repair
37. This surgical procedure consists of removing an ear bone that has thick- ened and
no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.: Stapedectomy
38. This tissue acts as a cushion between bones to prevent them fromrubbing
together.: Cartilage
39. The brain center of a cell is the: nucleus.
40. This gland stimulates body growth.: Pituitary
41. More than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid.: Plasma
67. Failure to receive accreditation from The Joint Commission can result inthe loss
of Medicare and Medicaid payments.: False
68. Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of: FDA Class III medicaldevices.
69. Following the Occupational Safety and Health Administrations's regu-lations
for wearing personal protective equipment in the Central Service decontamination area is optional.: False
70. Sometimes state or local regulations differ from Federal regulations andwhen that
happens, the most stringent regulations apply.: True
71. The American National Standards Institute is a voluntary associationdedicated
to infection control and prevetion.: False
72. Chemical indicators are classified as: FDA Class II medical devices.
73. Under current regulations, who is required to report suspected medicaldevice-
related deaths to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?: all of theabove
74. Class III medical devices are identified as high risk.: True
75. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration recalls may be either mandatoryor
voluntary.: True
76. Regulations under the Clean Air Act are administered by the: Environmen-tal
Protection Agency
77. Third-party re-processors are regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Ad-
ministration.: True
78. Healthcare regulations and standards establish: minimal levels of qualityand
safety.
79. Agency which may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if thereare no
specific regulations covering the situation: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
80. Recommendations regarding sterilization practices are provided by the
Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation.: True
81. Medical device reporting is regulated by the: U.S. Food and Drug Adminis-tration
82. The Department of Transportation enforces statutes relating to the: trans-portation of
unclean, damaged flexible endoscopes.
83. The Society of Gastroenterology Nurses and Associates is a source for
information about the proper processing of flexible endoscopes.: True
84. The agency which imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufac- turers of
disinfectants used by Central Service departments.: EnvironmentalProtection Agency
85. Each year, approximately patients develop a healthcare-as-
sociated infection: 700,
86. Jewelry should NOT be worn in the Central Service department work areas
because they: harbor bacteria.
87. During handwashing, hands should be lathered and scrubbed for at least: 20
seconds
88. To protect themselves from splashes and spills, Central Service tech- nicians
assigned to the decontamination area should wear: fluid resistantgowns.
89. The main theory of standard precautions is: to treat all human blood andbodily
fluids as infectious
90. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the Occupational Safetyand Health
Administration Bloodborne Pathogen Standard?: Keep biohazardareas locked
91. The only way to interrupt the transmission of a causative agent is to: elim-inate it.
92. Departmental dress code applies to: everyone entering the Central Service
department.
93. Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called: Fomites
94. Floors in the Central Service department should be: wet-mopped daily.
95. The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called: asepsis.
96. Know what is dirty, know what is clean, know what is sterile; keeping the three
conditions separate and remedying contamination immediately areknown as: the principles of asepsis.
97. What color should biohazard labels/signs be?: Red/orange
98. The decontamination area of Central Service department should have: -
negative air flow
99. Which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to theclean
assembly area of Central Service?: semi restricted
116. These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments: Lipase en-zymes
117. Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washersis NOT
true?: All items should be washed on the same cycle
118. To prevent coagulation of proteins, instruments should be pre-rinsedusing:
cool water
119. Powered surgical instruments: cannot be immersed
120. Untreated water: increases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits.
121. The temperature in the decontamination area should be between: 60 to 65
degrees Fahrenheit
122. The decontamination area should have: negative air flow in relation to otherareas of
the department
123. Pyrogens: are fever-producing substances.
124. What is the preferred pH for detergents used for most cleaning process-es?: Low
pH
125. This low-level disinfectant is incompatible with soap.: quaternary ammo-nium
compounds
126. When using glutaraldehyde, technicians should always wear latexgloves
for protection.: False
127. When using high-level disinfectants, it is important to remember theymay be
deactivated by: organic matter.
128. In an automated washer, the key source of disinfection is: water temper-ature.
129. The use of test strips to test he minimum effective concentration in high-
level disinfection solutions is required: each time the solution will beused.
130. These chemicals are used on animate (living tissue) to slow the growthof
microorganisms.: antiseptics
131. The use of heat to kill all microorganisms, except spores, is called: ther-mal
disinfection.
132. Items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normallysterile
ares of the body are classified as: critical items.
133. The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely de-stroyed
is: sterilization
134. Iodophores are a member of this chemical family.: halogens
135. Phenolics are classified as: intermediate to low-level disinfectants.
136. Which of the following are classified as high-level disinfectants?: glu-
taraldehyde and ortho-phthalaldehydes
137. Thermal disinfection is accomplished using: heat.
138. How long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a
reasonable level of disinfection?: 5 to 10 minutes
139. Which of the following would be the best choice for high-level disinfec-tion of
instruments?: Ortho-phthaladehydes
140. Instruments are heat treated to give their surface a mirror (shiny) sur-face.:
False
141. Tissue forceps have teeth.: True
142. Microgrind or supercut scissors are usually identified with black han-dle.: True
143. After applying instrument identification tape, instruments should be
autoclaved to help the tape bond to the instrument.: True
144. An osteotome is: used to cut or shave bone.
145. Scissors with tungsten carbide cutting edges are usually identifiedby: gold
handles.
146. Instrument marking tape should be wrapped approximately
around an instrument: 1.5 times
147. To properly test the sharpness of scissors four inches or less use: yellowtest
material.
148. Kerrison/laminectomy rongeurs should be tested using: an index card
149. The place where the two parts of a ring handled instrument meet andpivot is
called the box lock.: True
150. Stainless steel jaw needle holders last longer than tungsten carbide jawneedle
holders.: False
151. The part of a hemostat that locks and holds it in position is called thebox lock.:
False
152. The purpose of a suction stylet is to: unclog the suction during surgery.
171. Temperatures in a sterile storage area should be 55° F to 60° F.: False
172. While the outside of all instruments must be dry before sterilization, itis
important to ensure all lumens are kept moist for sterilization.: False
173. The relative humidity of the Central Service prep and pack area shouldbe: 30% to
174. When placing hinged instruments in an instrument tray, you should: un-lock the
handles and open the instruments.
175. Cellulose materials cannot be processed within ozone sterilizers.: True
176. Some plastics, including formulations if spun-bonded polyolefin, are intended
for use solely in these sterilization processes.: ozone and hydrogenperoxide
177. Using latex tubing to protect delicate instrumentation is the process ofchoice for
items to be steam sterilized.: False
178. Count sheets: provide a detailed list of tray contents.
179. All rigid sterilization containers have tamper-evident seals.: True
180. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration classifies sterilization packag-ing as a:
Class II Medical Device
181. Guaze squares are the wicking material of choice for instrument sets.-
: False
182. Reusable textile packaging requires less labor than disposable packag-ing.: True
183. When placing instruments in a peel pack, the tips should always facethe
plastic side of the pack.: True
184. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable sterilization packaging
material?: Canvas
185. Immediate use steam sterilization documentation should include: the name of
the patient for which the items were sterilized, sterilizer number, name of the instrument sterilized.
186. The process by which instruments are steam sterilized for immediate use is
called: immediate use steam sterilization.
187. The best way to transport items that have been processed using imme- diate use
steam sterilization at the point of use is: in a rigid container designed for immediate use steam sterilization.
188. When sterilizing items at the point of use, an abbreviated sterilizationcycle
may be used due to the urgent need for the instruments.: False
189. Implantable devices: should not be immediate use steam sterilization ster-ilized
unless there is a tracking system in place to trace the item to a patient.
190. When transporting items that have been immediate use steam sterilized, it is
required that: they be transported in such a manner that reduces the potential for contamination.
191. Before an item can be placed in a liquid chemical sterile processing system,
they must be: Cleaned
192. Which of the following statements about immediate use steam steriliza-tion is
true?: It should be used only when the is not time to process items usingthe wrapped method.
193. Items to be disinfected or sterilized at the point of use must be: properlycleaned
per Manufacturer's Instructions for use.
194. Both the Association of periOperative Registered Nurses and The Joint
Commission recommend that: the use of immediate use steam sterilization beminimized or decreased.
195. Central Service technicians need to understand the anatomy of a steamsterilizer
to: understand how the sterilizer operates.
196. Items with a standard steam sterilization cycle recommended by the
manufacturer can be damaged if run in an extended cycle.: True
197. The higher the bioburden on an object,: the more difficult it will be tosterilize.
198. Wood products should be sterilized in an extended steam cycle.: False
199. Packs that are improperly packaged or loaded on the sterilizer cart,
frequently become wet packs.: True
200. One of the most frequent causes of a clogged drain screen is: Tape
201. When loading steam sterilizer, basins should be: placed on edge.
202. The weakest part of a steam sterilizer is the: Door
203. Steam flush pressure pulse sterilizers are a type of gravity sterilizers.: -
False
204. When combining loads, hard goods should be placed on the top shelves to allow
for more efficient removal of the condensate.: False
223. An extended aeration cycle is required for items sterilized in ozone
sterilization processes.: False
224. Cellulose-containing packaging materials are not compatible with hy-drogen
peroxide sterilization.: True
225. Temperature and humidity levels in the sterile storage area should bechecked
and recorded at least weekly.: False
226. Trays which overhang shelving: can become contaminated.
227. Event-related shelf life means items are safe until opened for use.: False
228. Wrapped trays should not be stacked because: it can cause holes in thewrapper of
the bottom tray.
229. The shelving system of choice for the sterile storage areas is: closed.
230. The sterile storage process starts: when the sterilizer door is opened.
231. Temperatures in a sterile storage area should be 64° to 75° F.: False
232. Because of event-related shelf life, stock rotation is no longer neces-sary:
False
233. Outside shipping containers: should be removed prior to placing the itemsin storage.
234. Sterile storage areas should: have positive airflow and at least 4 air ex-changes
per hour.
235. The relative humidity of the Central Service sterile storage area shouldbe: less
than 70%.
236. Sterilized packages may be jeopardized due to storage practices.: True
237. The bottom shelf of any sterile storage system should be: solid and 8 to 10 inches
from the floor.
238. The type of shelving that leaves packaging the most vulnerable is: open.
239. Sterile trays should: not be touched until they are properly cooled, be liftednot
dragged off the sterilizer cart, be checked to be sure the chemical indicators have turned the appropriate color.
240. Monitoring records must be: accurate, legible, complete.
241. Cart washer screens should be cleaned at least: daily.
242. A physical monitor on a washer-disinfector is the: printout.
243. One type of formal monitoring is monitoring the department tempera-ture and
humidity levels.: True
244. External indicators can prove an item is sterile when the sterilizationcycle is
complete.: False
245. Temperature and humidity levels need to be monitored an recorded: atleast daily.
246. Formal training should occur: for new employees and those who move toa new
position.
247. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Class II chemical indicator thatis run
daily in dynamic air removal sterilizers is called a: Bowie-Dick test.
248. Sterilizer load records should contain: items and quantity sterilized.
249. A biological indicator is called negative when: there is no growth in theampule
after incubation.
250. Quality requires the efforts and participation of everyone in the health-care
facility.: False
251. If everyone develops a quality-driven focus, written policies and proce-dures are
not necessary in the Central Service department.: False
252. Providing quality products and services directly impacts patient out-comes.:
True
253. Not following established policies and procedures will result in a lowerquality
program.: True
254. A root cause analysis is a proactive approach to quality.: False
255. Quality management is patient focused.: True
256. The International Standards Organization uses routine and unan- nounced
inspections to monitor standards in healthcare facilities.: False
257. Customer surveys are ineffective tools in establishing Central Servicequality
processes.: False
258. Quality processes are limited to administration and the risk manage-ment
department.: False
259. A failure mode and effects analysis tries to predict failures before theyoccur.:
True
260. : use by date
275. When patient equipment enters a healthcare facility, it must be safetychecked
by a before it is cleared for patient use: biomedical technician
276. If an equipment malfunction causes harm to patients, it should be: re-turned
immediately to the biomedical department.
277. The requires that the healthcare facility report malfunctionsof
medical devices that have contributed to patient injury, illness and/or death to the manufacturer and the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.: SafeMedical Devices Act
278. Technicians in the department perform safety inspectionsand
functional tests on equipment.: biomedical engineering
279. Which of the following common items of patient care equipment limits the
development of deep vein thrombosis and peripheral edema in immobilepatients?: sequential compression unit
280. All patient care equipment that was dispensed for use must be consid-ered
and handled as such, regardless of its appearance: conta-minated
281. Equipment leasing and rental differ in that: equipment rental is usuallydone on a
shorter-term basis than equipment leasing.
282. Preventive maintenance (PM) is: designed to identify potential problemsbefore
they occur.
283. Equipment should be inspected for obvious hazards such as cracked or frayed
electrical cords: whenever the equipment is inspected in central service.
284. Patient care equipment should be stored in a condition.: -
"ready to dispense"
285. Information technology is often the cornerstone of initiatives to trans-form
healthcare.: True
286. Once a tracking system is implemented, there is generally no need toupdate
system information.: False
287. Computerized tracking systems are fast, but manual tracking systemsare more
effective for tracking.: False
288. Tracking systems can help manage preventative maintenance sched-ules.:
True
289. In addition to providing financial and operational management, informa-tional
technology and systems are used to help ensure patient safety: True
290. Tracking individual instruments is important to help ensure specific
instrumentation are kept with a specific set.: True
291. Most Central Service departments employ some sort of automated in-formation
management system: True
292. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an instrument tracking sys-tem?:
Product updates and recall information.
293. Patient census information used in Central Service is obtained from theelectronic
health record.: False
294. Which of the following is not a reason for tracking supplies, equipment, and
instruments?: Meeting Centers for Disease Control and Occupational Safety and Health Administration requirements.
295. At this time, tracking systems are unable to track worker productivity
information.: False
296. Computer supply chain management systems are used to monitor facil-ity
assets.: False
297. Which of the following tracking methods provides real-time informa-tion?:
Radio frequency identification tags
298. Which of the following is NOT a result of computer integration?: Auto-matically
provides critical update to industry standards.
299. Point of use computing: moves computers into the Central Service depart-ment.
300. The key to working safely is keeping your work area organized.: True
301. Time-weighted average (TWA) is defined as the amount of a substanceyou can
be exposed over an eight hour day.: True
302. Healthcare facilities are required by the to provide
adequate ventilation systems, personal protective equipment and safe workoperating procedures.: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
303. The level of exposure to a harmful substance when an employer must take
required precautions to protect the worker: must be labeled with a copy ofthe original manufacture's label or a generic label that identifies hazard warningsand directions.
322. Knowing what is expected and consistently meeting those expectations is part of:
professional behavior.
323. This process allows a person to to understand someone else's needs.-
: Communication
324. A step in communication that occurs when a listener asks a question is called:
feedback.
325. Central Service technicians who does not think they are being treated
appropriately by their employer should: discuss the situation with their super-visor.
326. The ability to use information gained from words or body language to to
interact with others.: communication
327. A group of employees from different departments within the healthcare facility
that work together to solve operating problems is called: cross-func-tional team.
328. Which of the following is an example of communication?: spoken word,written
word, non-verbal expressions
329. Planning and reviewing your goals will help identify activities to help you meet
those goals.: True
330. Steps toward attaining professional goals in Central Service include: - obtaining
certification, attending educational conferences., participating in profes-sional groups.
331. Professional development helps give you the information and experi-ence
needed to progress in your career: True
332. On the job relationships do NOT change when one team member hasbeen
promoted.: False
333. When setting personal goals, you should set goals that are: attainable,then build
on those successes.
334. One important step in preparing for an interview is: anticipating possibleinterview
questions.
335. Teaching others increases your understanding of the standards.: True
336. Resources found online have already been determined to be valid beforethey are
posted online.: False
337. Personal development improves your employability skills.: True
338. Which of the following is an open-ended question?: "What problems doyou most
frequently encounter on the job?"
