CFI FIA Exam (2024/2025) | Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A, Exams of Education Planning And Management

Download CFI FIA Exam (2024/2025) | Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A and more Exams Education Planning And Management in PDF only on Docsity! CFI FIA Exam (2024/2025) | Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A+) What airspeed indicator marking identifies the maximum structural cruising speed of an aircraft? A. Red radial line. B. Upper limit of the green arc. C. Upper limit of the yellow arc. - ✔✔B. Upper limit of the green arc. An illusion, that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, is produced by A. atmospheric haze. B. upsloping terrain. C. downsloping terrain. - ✔✔B. upsloping terrain If the nosewheel of an airplane moves aft during gear retraction, how would this aft movement affect the CG location of that airplane? It would A. cause the CG location to move aft. B. have no effect on the CG location. C. cause the CG location to move forward. - ✔✔A. cause the CG location to move aft. (Refer to figure 45.) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an airplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at McCampbell Airport (area 1) if the pattern altitude is 600 feet AGL? A. 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport. C. Remain clear of clouds and operate at a speed that allows adequate opportunity to see other traffic and obstructions in time to avoid a collision. - ✔✔B. 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport. What would cause the 45° point to be reached before the maximum pitchup attitude during a lazy eight? A. Beginning with too slow a rate of roll. B. Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll. C. Allowing the airspeed to remain too high causing the rate of turn to increase. - ✔✔B. Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll. If severe turbulence is encountered, the aircraft's airspeed should be reduced to A. maneuvering speed. B. normal structural cruising speed. C. the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. - ✔✔A. maneuvering speed. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, you may have been A. operating with the mixture set too rich. B. using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating. C. operating with too much power and with the mixture set too lean. - ✔✔C. operating with too much power and with the mixture set too lean. When using a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart for planning a flight at 10,000 feet MSL, a pilot should refer to the A. 850-millibar analysis. B. 700-millibar analysis. C. 500-millibar analysis. - ✔✔B. 700-millibar analysis. Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received? A. Flight training. B. Flight training and training in a flight training device. C. All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training. - ✔✔C. All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training. (Refer to figure 45, area 5.) What is the elevation of the Thomas (T69) Airport? C. aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. - ✔✔C. aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. 1. Which instrument would be affected by excessively low pressure in the airplane's vacuum system? A. Heading indicator. B. Airspeed indicator. C. Pressure altimeter. - ✔✔A. Heading indicator. 2. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the A. measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system. B. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the throttle valve. C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure. - ✔✔C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure. 3. (Refer to figure 3.) What is the reported duration of the rain at the time of the observation at KAUS? A. 25 minutes. B. 26 minutes. C. 36 minutes. - ✔✔B. 26 minutes. 4. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing? A. PIREP. B. SIGMET. C. CONVECTIVE SIGMET. - ✔✔B. SIGMET. 5. Which is the most probable result if a pilot initiates the climbing turn portions of the lazy eight with banks that are too steep? A. Completing each 180° change of direction with a net gain of altitude. B. Attaining a pitch attitude that is too steep and stalling at the top of the climbing turn. C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed. - ✔✔C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed. 6. For a flight instructor to give instruction for a type rating in a CE-500 (an aircraft requiring the pilot in command to have a type rating), the instructor must hold A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate. B. a type rating for a CE-500 on their flight instructor certificate. C. a type rating for any aircraft. - ✔✔A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate. 7. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a minimum blood alcohol level of A. any detectable amount. B. .04 percent or greater. C. 0.2 percent or greater. - ✔✔B. .04 percent or greater. 8. Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?Weight A........120 lb at 15" aft of datumWeight B.......200 lb at 117" aft of datumWeight C........75 lb at 195" aft of datum A. 100.8 inches. B. 109.0 inches. C. 121.7 inches. - ✔✔A. 100.8 inches. 9. A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by A. four red lights. B. one red light and three white lights. C. one white light and three red lights. - ✔✔C. one white light and three red lights. 10. To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to A. successfully complete a practical test in such an airplane. B. receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. C. make three takeoffs and landings with an instructor in an airplane of the same make and model. - ✔✔B. receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. 11. Students should be taught that throughout a level, 720° steep turn to the right, the rudder is normally used to A. prevent yawing. B. control the rate of turn. C. hold the aircraft in the turn once it is established. - ✔✔A. prevent yawing. 12. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as A. dihedral. B. the angle of attack. C. the angle of incidence. - ✔✔C. the angle of incidence. 13. What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign? A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection. C. Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway. - ✔✔B. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection. 14. A common student error in straight-and-level flight is A. attempting to establish correct attitude using instruments instead of outside visual references. B. using pressure on flight controls rather than positive movement to cause attitude change. C. attempting to use engine power to correct airspeed deviation. - ✔✔A. attempting to establish correct attitude using instruments instead of outside visual references. 15. When warm air moves over a cold lake, what weather phenomenon is likely to occur on the leeward side of the lake? A. Fog. B. Showers. B. 1. C. 1.3. - ✔✔B. 1. 8. (Refer to figure 44.) Select the correct statement concerning the obstruction 7 SM west of McKinney Airport (area 5). A. The obstruction is unlighted. B. The obstruction has high-intensity lights. C. The elevation of the top of the obstruction is 729 feet AGL. - ✔✔B. The obstruction has high-intensity lights. 9. One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and A. below rotor clouds. B. above rotor clouds. C. below lenticular clouds. - ✔✔A. below rotor clouds. 10. If both the ram-air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? A. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. B. Zero indicated airspeed until blockage is removed. C. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made. - ✔✔C. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made. 11. A surface inversion can A. indicate the chance of gusty winds. B. produce poor visibility. C. mean an unstable air mass. - ✔✔B. produce poor visibility. 12. Which middle level clouds are characterized by rain, snow, or ice pellets posing a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing? A. Nimbostratus. B. Altostratus lenticular. C. Altocumulus castellanus. - ✔✔A. Nimbostratus. 13. Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude? A. Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings. B. Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise nose to a level attitude. C. Reduce power, raise nose to a level attitude, and correct bank attitude. - ✔✔B. Reduce power, correct bank attitude, and raise nose to a level attitude. 14. Excessively high engine temperatures will A. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins. B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine. - ✔✔B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. 15. If an accelerated stall occurs during a steep turn, in which direction would the aircraft tend to roll? A. Toward the inside of the turn. B. Toward the outside of the turn. C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight. - ✔✔C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight. 16. What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate? A. Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked. B. 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed. C. Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised. - ✔✔B. 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued or renewed. 17. A go-around from a poor landing approach should A. not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary. B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing. C. not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed. - ✔✔B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing. 18. GIVEN:True course ..............................330°Variation ................................15° EIndicated airspeed .......................160 ktsAmbient temperature ......................-10 °CPressure altitude ........................4,500 ftForecast wind ............................090° at 25 ktsUnder these conditions, the magnetic heading and groundspeed would be approximately A. 323° and 177 knots. B. 332° and 166 knots. C. 340° and 177 knots. - ✔✔A. 323° and 177 knots. 19. (Refer to figure 24.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96. A. 3,527 feet MSL. B. 3,556 feet MSL. C. 3,639 feet MSL. - ✔✔A. 3,527 feet MSL 20. While in flight, an alternating red and green light directed at you from the control tower means A. exercise extreme caution. B. give way to other aircraft; continue circling. C. return for landing; expect steady green light at proper time. - ✔✔A. exercise extreme caution. What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn? A. Altimeter. B. VSI. C. Airspeed indicator. - ✔✔A. Altimeter. 3. A particular VORTAC station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by A. removal of the identification feature. A. Flying at too low an airspeed. B. Raising the aircraft's nose too high. C. Exceeding the critical angle of attack. - ✔✔C. Exceeding the critical angle of attack. 14. What action is necessary to make an aircraft turn? A. Yaw the aircraft. B. Change the direction of lift. C. Change the direction of thrust. - ✔✔B. Change the direction of lift. 16. To help manage cockpit stress, a pilot should A. think of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. B. try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress. C. avoid situations that will degrade the ability to handle cockpit responsibilities. - ✔✔B. try to relax and think rationally at the first sign of stress. 17. Which of the following is the accurate perception of the operating and environmental factors that affect the aircraft, pilot and passengers during a specified period of time? A. Aeronautical Decision Making. B. Crew resource management. C. Situational awareness. - ✔✔C. Situational awareness. 18. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway? A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway. C. Holds aircraft short of the runway. - ✔✔C. Holds aircraft short of the runway. 19. Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including A. 3,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. the base of the overlying controlled airspace. - ✔✔C. the base of the overlying controlled airspace. 20. (Refer to figure 36.) Determine the condition of the airplane:Pilot and copilot............375 lbPassengers - aft position....245 lbBaggage.......................65 lbFuel.........................70 gal A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits. B. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits. C. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located aft of the aft limit. - ✔✔A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits. 1. A military airfield can be identified by A. a white and red rotating beacon. B. white flashing sequence lights (strobes). C. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon. - ✔✔C. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon. 2. What is one requirement for an aircraft furnished for a practical test? A. All flight instruments must be fully functioning. B. Must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any required area of operation. C. Dual flight controls and engine power controls must be operable and easily reached by both pilots in a normal manner. - ✔✔B. Must have no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any required area of operation. 3. What physical change would most likely occur to occupants of an unpressurized aircraft flying above 15,000 feet without supplemental oxygen? A. Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the bloodstream. B. The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in the cabin. C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision. - ✔✔C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision. 4. A private pilot with an airplane single-engine land rating may act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider if, within the preceding 12 months, this pilot has made A. ten actual or simulated glider tows. B. three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft. C. at least six flights as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider. - ✔✔B. three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft. 5. What is the maximum time period during which a person may use an ATC transponder after it has been tested and inspected? A. 12 calendar months. B. 24 calendar months. C. 36 calendar months. - ✔✔B. 24 calendar months. 6. In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which VYSE will produce A. 50 feet per minute rate of climb. B. 100 feet per minute rate of climb. C. 500 feet per minute rate of climb. - ✔✔A. 50 feet per minute rate of climb. 7. Which statement is true about the effect of temperature changes on the indications of a sensitive altimeter? A. Warmer-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates. B. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates. C. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft higher than the altimeter indicates. - ✔✔B. Colder-than-standard temperatures will place the aircraft lower than the altimeter indicates. 8. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport? A. Select 7700 on your transponder, fly a normal traffic pattern, and land. B. Flash your landing lights and make shallow banks in opposite directions while circling the airport. C. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. - ✔✔C. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. 20. Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is A. never permitted. B. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity. C. permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission from the appropriate authority. - ✔✔B. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity. 7. An altitude reporting coded transponder is required for all airspace A. from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL within a 10 NM radius of any airport traffic pattern. B. at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the floor of Class A airspace (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). C. within 25 NM of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace below 1,200 feet AGL). - ✔✔B. at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the floor of Class A airspace (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). 2. Conviction of an offense involving alcohol or drugs is grounds for A. permanent revocation of all certificates and ratings. B. suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61. C. denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61 for a period of up to 24 months after date of conviction. - ✔✔B. suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under FAR Part 61. 3. The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained? A. 1 year. B. 2 years. C. 3 years. - ✔✔B. 2 years. 5. What does the lower limit of the white arc on an airspeed indicator represent? A. Minimum controllable airspeed with flaps extended. B. Poweroff stall speed in a landing configuration. C. Poweroff stall speed in a specified configuration. - ✔✔B. Poweroff stall speed in a landing configuration. 6. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment. B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment. C. throttle is advanced very abruptly. - ✔✔A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment. 8. Coolant in a liquid cooled engine is normally circulated by A. an electric pump. B. an engine driven pump. C. capillary attraction. - ✔✔B. an engine driven pump. 9. What will cause the nose of an aircraft to move in the direction of the turn before the bank starts in a turn entry? A. Rudder being applied too late. B. Rudder being applied too soon. C. Failure to apply back elevator pressure. - ✔✔B. Rudder being applied too soon. 10. Which is a required endorsement by an authorized flight instructor for a student pilot to operate an aircraft in solo flight? A. An endorsement that instruction was given in the make and model of aircraft to be soloed within the preceding 6 months. B. An endorsement within the preceding 90 days stating that instruction was given in the make and model aircraft to be flown and the student is competent to make a safe solo flight. C. An endorsement made within the preceding 180 days that instruction was given in the make of aircraft to be soloed and that the instructor found the applicant competent to make a safe flight in that aircraft. - ✔✔B. An endorsement within the preceding 90 days stating that instruction was given in the make and model aircraft to be flown and the student is competent to make a safe solo flight. 11. When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in A. FDC NOTAMs. B. NOTAM (D) distribution. C. Airway NOTAMs. - ✔✔B. NOTAM (D) distribution. 12. Regarding Convective Outlook Charts, when well-organized severe thunderstorms are expected, but in small numbers and/or low coverage, the risk is referred to as A. POSSIBLE. B. MDT. C. SLGT. - ✔✔C. SLGT. 13. Which of the following normally requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating? A. Any turbojet-powered aircraft. B. Any airplane which has a gross weight of 6,000 pounds or more. C. Any multiengine airplane which is operated under interstate commerce. - ✔✔A. Any turbojet- powered aircraft. 14. An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity? A. 5 clicks. B. 3 clicks. C. None, the MIRL is left on all night. - ✔✔A. 5 clicks. 15. How should a student be taught to correct for a nose-low attitude during a steep turn? A. Apply back elevator pressure to attain the desired pitch attitude. B. Reduce the angle of bank, then apply back elevator pressure to attain the desired pitch attitude. C. Apply back elevator pressure to attain the desired pitch attitude, then reduce the angle of bank. - ✔✔B. Reduce the angle of bank, then apply back elevator pressure to attain the desired pitch attitude. 16. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by 28. (Refer to figure 23.) Which is a slotted flap? A. 1. B. 3. C. 4. - ✔✔B. 3. 29. Motion sickness is caused by A. continued stimulation of the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance. B. an instability in the brain cells which affects balance and will generally be overcome with experience. C. the movement of an aircraft causing the stomach to create an acid substance which causes the stomach lining to contract. - ✔✔A. continued stimulation of the tiny portion of the inner ear which controls sense of balance. 30. (Refer to figure 22.) While rolling into a right turn, if the inclinometer appears as illustrated in C, the HCL and CF vectors would be acting on the aircraft as illustrated in A. 3, and less right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. B. 5, and less right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. C. 5, and more right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. - ✔✔B. 5, and less right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball. 3. What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying? A. Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation. B. Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control. C. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control. - ✔✔C. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control. 4. After 150 miles are flown from the departure point, the aircraft's position is located 8 miles off course. If 160 miles remain to be flown, what approximate total correction should be made to converge on the destination? A. 6°. B. 9°. C. 12°. - ✔✔A. 6°. 7. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. C. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane. - ✔✔B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. 9. Who is authorized to endorse a student pilot logbook authorizing flight in Class B airspace? A. Any flight instructor. B. Only the flight instructor who conducted the training. C. Any flight instructor who has personal knowledge of the flight training received. - ✔✔B. Only the flight instructor who conducted the training. 10. When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's A. true course. B. ground track. C. magnetic heading. - ✔✔B. ground track 11. Adverse yaw during a turn entry is caused by A. increased induced drag on the lowered wing and decreased induced drag on the raised wing. B. decreased induced drag on the lowered wing and increased induced drag on the raised wing. C. increased parasite drag on the raised wing and decreased parasite drag on the lowered wing. - ✔✔B. decreased induced drag on the lowered wing and increased induced drag on the raised wing. 12. Which is the most probable result if a pilot initiates the climbing turn portions of the lazy eight with banks that are too steep? A. Completing each 180° change of direction with a net gain of altitude. B. Attaining a pitch attitude that is too steep and stalling at the top of the climbing turn. C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed. - ✔✔C. Turning at a rate too fast for the rate of climb and therefore, completing each 180° change of direction with excessive airspeed. 14. On a cross country flight, point X is crossed at 1550 and the plan is to reach point Y at 1620. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point Y on schedule.Distance between X and Y .................70 NMForecast wind ............................115° at 25 ktsPressure altitude ........................9,000 ftAmbient temperature ......................-05 °CTrue course ..............................088°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 138 knots. B. 143 knots. C. 162 knots. - ✔✔B. 143 knots. 15. What could be a result of a student focusing too far ahead during a landing approach? A. Reactions will be either too abrupt or too late. B. Rounding out too high and developing an excessive sink rate. C. Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown. - ✔✔C. Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown. 16. A go-around from a poor landing approach should A. not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary. B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing. C. not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed. - ✔✔B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing. 17. A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required for all controlled airspace A. below 14,500 feet MSL. B. above 12,500 feet MSL (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). C. at and above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). - ✔✔C. at and above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL). 19. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the 30. When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI what would be the colors of the lights? A. All three sets of lights would be white. B. The near bar is white and the middle and far bars are red. C. The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red. - ✔✔C. The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red. To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has A. received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on operating within Class B airspace. B. received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized. C. within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific airspace. - ✔✔B. received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized. (Refer to figure 45.) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at A. the surface. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet MSL. - ✔✔B. 700 feet AGL. (Refer to figure 12.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low A. visibility. B. ceiling and visibility. C. ceiling. - ✔✔C. ceiling. Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the student's A. logbook. B. pilot certificate. C. logbook and pilot certificate. - ✔✔A. logbook. On a cross country flight, point X is crossed at 1015 and arrival at point Y is expected at 1025. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point Y on schedule.Distance between X and Y .................27 NMForecast wind ............................240° at 30 ktsPressure altitude ........................5,500 ftAmbient temperature ......................+ 05 °CTrue course ..............................100°The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 162 knots. B. 140 knots. C. 128 knots. - ✔✔C. 128 knots. As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that any A. pitching around the lateral axis results in a rolling moment. B. yawing around the vertical axis results in a pitching moment. C. pitching around the longitudinal axis results in a yawing moment. - ✔✔B. yawing around the vertical axis results in a pitching moment. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? A. Light wind shear and poor visibility due to light rain. B. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds. C. Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation. - ✔✔B. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds. The quality of an aircraft that permits it to be operated easily and to withstand the stresses imposed on it is A. stability. B. maneuverability. C. controllability. - ✔✔B. maneuverability. The holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with a basic rating is authorized to provide ground training required for A. a flight instructor refresher course. B. any flight review or instrument proficiency check. C. all aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational or private pilot certificate. - ✔✔C. all aeronautical knowledge areas for a recreational or private pilot certificate. Which stall must be performed during a flight instructor-airplane practical test? A. Power-on or power-off. B. Accelerated. C. Imminent. - ✔✔A. Power-on or power-off. Could 100 pounds of weight be shifted from Station 30.0 to Station 120.0 without exceeding the aft CG limit?Total weight.............4,750 lbCG Location.........Station 115.8Aft CG limit........Station 118.0 A. Yes; the CG would remain at Station 115.8. B. No; the new CG would be located at Station 118.15. C. Yes; the new CG would be located at Station 117.69. - ✔✔C. Yes; the new CG would be located at Station 117.69. (Refer to figure 45.) What are the requirements for operating in the alert area (area 6) just west of Corpus Christi International Airport (area 3)? A. Contact with approach control on frequency 120.9 is required. B. Prior permission must be obtained from the controlling agency. C. There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training. - ✔✔C. There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training. Which statement is true regarding fouling of the spark plugs of an aircraft engine? A. Spark plug fouling results from operating with an excessively rich mixture. B. Carbon fouling of the spark plugs is caused primarily by operating an engine at excessively high cylinder head temperatures. C. Excessive heat in the combustion chamber of a cylinder causes oil to form on the center electrode of a spark plug and this fouls the plug. - ✔✔A. Spark plug fouling results from operating with an excessively rich mixture. (Refer to Figure 46.) What does the figure 24 (area 3) indicate? A. Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. B. Minimum safe altitude when approaching San Francisco. C. Height above ground of the tallest obstruction for that quadrangle. - ✔✔A. Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for mean sea level? A. 15 °F and 29.92" Hg. B. 59 °C and 29.92 mb. C. 59 °F and 1013.2 mb. - ✔✔C. 59 °F and 1013.2 mb. GIVEN:Departure path ...........................straight outTakeoff time .............................1030 DSTWinds during climb .......................180° at 30 ktsTrue course during climb .................160°Airport elevation ........................1,500 ftTrue airspeed ............................125 ktsRate of climb ............................500 ft/minWhat would be the distance and time upon reaching 8,500 feet MSL? A. 20 NM and 1047 DST. B. 23 NM and 1044 DST. C. 25 NM and 1047 DST. - ✔✔B. 23 NM and 1044 DST. The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral angle is to A. increase lateral stability. B. increase longitudinal stability. C. increase lift coefficient of the wing. - ✔✔A. increase lateral stability. Concerning carburetor icing, which statement is true? A. The first indication of carburetor icing, in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller, is a decrease in manifold pressure. B. Carburetor icing would most likely form when the air temperature is between-7 °C and 21 °C and visible moisture or high humidity is present. C. Carburetor icing will form in a carburetor whenever the ambient temperature is below freezing with a reduced or closed throttle setting. - ✔✔B. Carburetor icing would most likely form when the air temperature is between-7 °C and 21 °C and visible moisture or high humidity is present. Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the A. chord. B. relative wind. C. longitudinal axis of the aircraft. - ✔✔B. relative wind. When performing a lazy eight, when should the aircraft be at minimum airspeed? A. 45° point. B. 90° point. C. 180° point. - ✔✔B. 90° point. One of the risk elements in the decision-making process is identified as A. the aircraft. B. fuel on board. C. any passengers. - ✔✔A. the aircraft. When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on A. 122.9 MHz. B. 123.0 MHz. C. 123.6 MHz. - ✔✔A. 122.9 MHz. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. 18,000 feet MSL. - ✔✔C. 18,000 feet MSL. As the CG moves aft, an aircraft becomes A. less stable and less controllable. B. less stable, yet easier to control. C. more stable and controllable as long as the aft CG is not exceeded. - ✔✔A. less stable and less controllable. If a true heading of 350° results in a ground track of 335° and a true airspeed of 140 knots results in a groundspeed of 115 knots, the wind would be from A. 015° and 30 knots. B. 035° and 40 knots. C. 290° and 40 knots. - ✔✔B. 035° and 40 knots. Your student has received 3.0 hours of night flight training including five takeoffs and landings. Is your student eligible to take the Private Pilot practical test? A. Yes, but the pilot certificate would bear the limitation "Night Flying Prohibited". B. No. C. Yes but the pilot certificate would bear the restriction, "Holder does not meet ICAO requirements". - ✔✔B. No. A flight instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when A. the practical test for initial certification is being given. B. being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test. C. the airplane or glider to be used for the practical test is certificated for spins and the applicant is being given an initial practical test. - ✔✔B. being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test. Which statement is true regarding preheating of an aircraft during cold-weather operations? A. The cockpit, as well as the engine, should be preheated. B. The cockpit area should not be preheated with portable heaters. What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport? A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport. B. Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg. C. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. - ✔✔A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport. Flat skidding turns at low altitudes such as in the traffic pattern are often the result of A. conscious or subconscious effort to avoid banking close to the ground. B. attempting to execute a turn solely by reference to instruments. C. fixating on nose reference while excluding wing reference. - ✔✔A. conscious or subconscious effort to avoid banking close to the ground. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from A. negative air pressure below the wing's surface and positive air pressure above the wing's surface. B. positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure above the wing's surface. C. a larger center of pressure above the wing's surface and a lower center of pressure below the wing's surface. - ✔✔B. positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure above the wing's surface. If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM? A. 63 gallons. B. 60 gallons. C. 57 gallons. - ✔✔C. 57 gallons. (Refer to figure 50.) In which positions will the groundspeeds be equal? A. 2 and 5. B. 1 and 6, 2 and 5. C. 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4. - ✔✔C. 1 and 6, 2 and 5, 3 and 4. When converting from magnetic course to true course, a pilot should A. add easterly variation regardless of heading. B. add westerly variation regardless of heading. C. subtract easterly variation when on a heading of 360°. - ✔✔A. add easterly variation regardless of heading (Refer to figure 31.) Determine the approximate ground roll.Temperature ..............................33 °CPressure altitude ........................6,000 ftWeight ...................................2,800 lbHeadwind .................................14 kts A. 742 feet. B. 1,280 feet. C. 1,480 feet. - ✔✔A. 742 feet. Which statement is true concerning this radar weather report for OKC?OKC 1934 LN 8TRW / 86/ 40 164/60 199/115 15W 2425 MT 570 AT 159/65 2 INCH HAIL RPRTD THIS ECHO. A. The visibility is 8 miles in rain showers. B. There are three cells with tops at 11,500, 40,000, and 60,000 feet. C. The maximum top of the cells is 57,000 feet located 65 NM south-southeast of the station. - ✔✔C. The maximum top of the cells is 57,000 feet located 65 NM south-southeast of the station. If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a pilot may operate that aircraft without violating regulations is A. 1629 EST. B. 1729 EST. C. 1829 EST. - ✔✔B. 1729 EST. Students should be taught that throughout a level, 720° steep turn to the right, the rudder is normally used to A. prevent yawing. B. control the rate of turn. C. hold the aircraft in the turn once it is established. - ✔✔A. prevent yawing. If an accelerated stall occurs during a steep turn, in which direction would the aircraft tend to roll? A. Toward the inside of the turn. B. Toward the outside of the turn. C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight. - ✔✔C. The direction of roll depends on whether the airplane is slipping, skidding, or in coordinated flight. (Refer to figure 46.) At what altitude does the Class B airspace begin over Hayward Airport (area 3)? A. 1,500 feet MSL. B. 2,100 feet MSL. C. 3,000 feet MSL - ✔✔C. 3,000 feet MSL (Refer to figure 23.) Which is a fowler flap? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. - ✔✔C. 4. When one engine fails on a twin-engine airplane, the resulting performance loss A. may reduce the rate of climb by 80 percent or more. B. reduces cruise indicated airspeed by 50 percent or more. C. is approximately 50 percent since 50 percent of the normally available thrust is lost. - ✔✔A. may reduce the rate of climb by 80 percent or more. (Refer to figure 44.) An aircraft takes off from Ft. Worth Meacham Int'l Airport (area 1) and flies northeast towards Denton Airport (area 2). What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? A. 1,900 feet MSL. B. 1,800 feet MSL. C. 3,200 feet MSL. - ✔✔C. 3,200 feet MSL. B. complete all plotting, measuring, and computations involved before diverting. C. apply ruleofthumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. - ✔✔C. apply ruleofthumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a controlled ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least A. 4 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 24 hours. - ✔✔B. 12 hours. With regard to gyroscopic precession, when a force is applied at a point on the rim of a spinning disc, the resultant force acts in which direction and at what point? A. In the same direction as the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation. B. In the opposite direction of the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation. C. In the opposite direction of the applied force, at the point of the applied force. - ✔✔A. In the same direction as the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation. On a multiengine airplane with engines which rotate clockwise, the critical engine is the A. left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage. B. right engine, because the left engine center of thrust is closer to the centerline of the fuselage. C. left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is farther away from the centerline of the fuselage. - ✔✔C. left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is farther away from the centerline of the fuselage. During turns around a point, an imaginary line from the pilot's eye and parallel to the lateral axis should point to the pylon when the aircraft is abeam the point headed directly A. crosswind. B. downwind only. C. upwind or downwind. - ✔✔C. upwind or downwind. (Refer to figure 26.) Determine the takeoff distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.Temperature ..............................3 °CPressure altitude ........................6,000 ftWeight ...................................3,000 lbHeadwind .................................15 kts A. 1,464 feet. B. 1,215 feet. C. 1,331 feet. - ✔✔C. 1,331 feet If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than that specified, it may cause A. detonation. B. lower cylinder head temperatures. C. a decrease in power which could overstress internal engine components. - ✔✔A. detonation. For a flight instructor to give instruction for a type rating in a CE-500 (an aircraft requiring the pilot in command to have a type rating), the instructor must hold A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate. B. a type rating for a CE-500 on their flight instructor certificate. C. a type rating for any aircraft. - ✔✔A. a type rating for a CE-500 on their pilot certificate. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as A. combustion. B. detonation. C. pre-ignition. - ✔✔C. pre-ignition. What is the correct procedure if an aircraft is in the region of reversed command during the landing approach? A. Increase angle of attack and reduce power. B. Decrease angle of attack and maintain power. C. Decrease angle of attack and increase power. - ✔✔C. Decrease angle of attack and increase power. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A. within 7 days. B. within 10 days. C. only if requested to do so. - ✔✔C. only if requested to do so. The complete loss of information of what percentage of the electronic display is considered to be a reportable incident by the NTSB? A. More than 50%. B. 25%. C. Less than 50%. - ✔✔A. More than 50%. 29. (Refer to figure 49.) Which position will require the steepest bank? A. 1. B. 5. C. 7. - ✔✔C. 7. During a steady climb, the rate of climb depends on A. excess power. B. excess thrust. C. thrust available. - ✔✔A. excess power. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation A. are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B. have proven to increase safety in operations. C. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew. - ✔✔C. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew. (Refer to figure 11.) On a Weather Depiction Chart, what does the information in symbol 1 mean? A. Visibility one-half mile, 200 feet overcast, smoke.