CFRN Practice Test 6 Questions with answers 2023, Exams of Nursing

Download CFRN Practice Test 6 Questions with answers 2023 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

CFRN Practice Test 6 Questions with

answers 2023

Which of the following is the MOST commonly injured organ in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys ✔B. Spleen Liver injuries will cause pain in the right upper quadrant along with right shoulder pain as blood accumulates around the diaphragm. The pain in the right shoulder is called: A. Gourd's sign B. Kehr's sign C. Vagal's sign D. Hobb's sign ✔B. Kehr's sign The phrenic nerve that arises from cervical vertebrae 3, 4, and 5 controls the _______. A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Stomach D. Pancreas ✔B. Diaphragm The _______ is the largest solid organ in the human body. A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver ✔D. Liver A root cause of esophageal varices is/are:

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Reactive gastritis C. Cirrhosis D. Peptic ulcers ✔C. Cirrhosis The most common cause of lower GI bleeding is: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) D. Angiodysplasia ✔B. Diverticulosis The appearance of dark, tarry blood in the stool is known as: A. Hematemesis B. Melena C. Hematochezia D. Crohn's disease ✔B. Melena The most common cause of pancreatitis is: A. Gallstones B. Alcohol abuse C. Hypercalcemia D. Tumors ✔A. Gallstones Development of peripheral edema, ascites, and pulmonary edema in the patient with liver failure is a result of a decreased production of: A. Bilirubin B. Aspartate amniotransferase C. Albumin D. Creatinine ✔C. Albumin Fulminant hepatic failure is most commonly caused by:

A. Alcohol abuse B. Idiosyncratic drug reactions C. Hepatitis D. Acetaminophen toxicity ✔D. Acetaminophen toxicity In young children, the narrowest part of the trachea is the: A. Vallecula B. Cricoid ring C. Epiglottis D. Hyoid ✔B. Cricoid ring In a child, it may be normal for the liver and spleen to: A. Be enlarged B. Bleed easily C. Be palpated below the costal margin D. Push up against the diaphragm, causing decreased vital capacity ✔C. Be palpated below the costal margin In infants, the minimum expected urine output is: A. 1 mL/kg/hr. B. 2 mL/kg/hr. C. 3 mL/kg/hr. D. 4 mL/kg/hr. ✔B. 2 mL/kg/hr Which of the following is a major factor that makes children susceptible to hypothermia? A. The inability to shiver B. Fewer glycogen stores C. A larger proportion of body fat D. All of the above ✔A. The inability to shiver

All pediatric assessments should begin with forming a general impression using the Pediatric: A. Trauma score B. Assessment triangle C. Perfusion score D. Faces scale ✔B. Assessment triangle Due to the relatively large tongue of a child in proportion to his or her mouth, successful intubation requires: proper blade size, proper positioning, and proper: A. Suctioning B. Sedation C. Sweeping of the tongue D. Cricoid pressure ✔C. Sweeping of the tongue Physical assessment of a child's cardiovascular system begins with: A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness B. Checking the child's central pulse rate C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Placing the child on a cardiac monitor ✔A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness An increase in _______ is the chief compensatory mechanism in children to increase end-organ perfusion and to maintain blood pressure. A. Heart rate B. Stroke volume C. Contractility D. Peripheral vasoconstriction ✔A. Heart rate Epiglottitis is a medical emergency in the pediatric population. Remember the four Ds, which stand for: A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress B. Diaphoresis, diplopia, diarrhea, and distress C. Dilated (pupils), drooling, distress, and diaphoresis

D. Drooling, dysphagia, distant lung sounds, and distress ✔A. Dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress Options to relieve a foreign body airway obstruction in a pediatric includes: A. Abdominal thrusts only B. One attempt at nasotracheal intubation C. Carotid massage D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps ✔D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps A child in shock will fail quickly when the child's compensatory systems: A. Are in overdrive B. Fail C. Thrive D. Are functioning normally ✔B. Fail In a child in shock, the heart rate is the: A. Only compensatory mechanism B. Last compensatory mechanism C. Primary compensatory mechanism D. None of the above ✔C. Primary compensatory mechanism Trauma is the pediatric patient is the most common cause of ___________________ shock. A. Anaphylactic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic ✔B. Hypovolemic Causes of cardiogenic shock in the pediatric patient include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hyperammonemia

B. Drug toxicity C. Myocarditis D. Arrhythmias ✔A. Hyperammonemia The primary treatments for distributive / neurogenic shock include: A. Lasix and nitroglycerin B. Volume replacement and epinephrine C. Dobutamine and metoprolol D. Albuterol ✔B. Volume replacement and epinephrine An example of a cardiac defect that does not cause cyanosis in the pediatric patient is: A. Transposition of the Great Arteries B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Pulmonary Stenosis D. All of the above ✔C. Pulmonary Stenosis Common diagnostic cardiac tests for the pediatric patient include of the following EXCEPT: A. 12-lead ECG B. Palpating pulses C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Assessing capillary refill ✔A. 12-lead ECG Prolonged, unrelieved obstruction causes irreversible damage is typically seen in what type of renal disorder? A. Postrenal disorders B. Suprarenal disorders C. Obstructed venous disorders D. Lateral renal disorders ✔A. Postrenal disorders

Head injuries are the leading cause of ______________________ in the pediatric population. A. Pneumonia B. Degenerate spinal disease C. Death D. All of the above ✔C. Death Which of the following statements about congenital heart defects is TRUE? A. The term infant is at the highest risk for an undiagnosed congenital heart defect. B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. C. A child with a relatively small lesion may go on to age 8 to 12 months before it is detected. D. The pattern of cyanosis, decreased mental status, and lethargy may mimic hypoglycemia. ✔B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. While caring for a critical patient with profound hypoxia, you recall that changes in the V/Q ratio is one of the most common causes of hypoxemia. Which of the following best describes the V/Q ratio? A. A marker for inflammation when a blood clot may be present B. A measure of the coaguability of the pulmonary blood flow C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place D. A serologic measurement of pulmonary injury ✔C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place In the presence of midface trauma with instability, which airway maneuver would be contraindicated? A. Digital intubation B. Oropharyngeal suctioning of foreign bodies C. Oral intubation D. Nasotracheal intubation ✔D. Nasotracheal intubation You are on scene with a 37 year-old male involved in an MVC, combative and confused on-scene. Patient was intubated with a 8.0 ETT, 24 cm at the lips.

Quantitative ETCO2 monitoring shows a ETCO2 of 50. Which action should be undertaken by the flight/transport nurse? A. Slightly hyperventile the patient B. Switch to a litmus paper ETCO2 detector C. Advance ETT 1 cm, then reassess D. Continue ventilating at 12 bpm with 100% FiO ✔A. Slightly hyperventile the patient When assessing your patient's airway prior to intubation, you use the Mallampati classification. Your physical assessment reveals that the posterior pharynx is partially exposed. Based on your knowledge of this classification, you know that this is a Mallampati grade class of: A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV. ✔B. II. During intubation, the operator may use the BURP technique. This acronym stands for: A. Bag the patient, use pressure, reverse, placement B. Bilateral, upwards, replace, position C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure D. Beneath, under, rearward, posterior ✔C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure You have just orally intubated your patient. When listening to breath sounds, you note that there are air sounds over the epigastrium. It is difficult to determine the presence of lung sounds. There is no significant chest rise or fall with revelations. The most appropriate action at this point is to: A. Deflate the cuff and pull back the tube 2 to 3 cm. B. Deflate the cuff and advance the tube 1 to 2 cm. C. Continue to ventilate for another minute and then reassess. D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral intubation. ✔D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral After several failed intubation attempts, your patient still requires an advanced airway. There is a significant chance your patient has an airway obstruction as well.

You are considering doing a surgical cricothyrotomy. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding this procedure? A. It would be contraindicated in a 10-year-old patient. B. It requires more than just a scalpel and an endotracheal tube. C. It is not necessary to visualize anatomic landmarks. D. It is indicated if intubation is not feasible. ✔D. It is indicated if intubation is not Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is a critical skill used by the RN. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding RSI? A. The indications are markedly different than those for endotracheal intubation. B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. C. It is indicated if you are unable to ventilate the patient adequately. D. RSI makes no assumptions about the timing of the patient's last meal. ✔B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. When selecting a sedative/induction agent to use during RSI, sodium thiopental and methohexital are ultra-short-acting barbiturates. Their short duration of action makes them attractive to use; however, they do have potential complications and may not always be the ideal agent to use. Which of the following statements best reflects the concern about using these particular agents? A. They are expensive. B. They must be stored in a controlled environment. C. They may cause a significant interaction with other ALS drugs. D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension. ✔D. They have a propensity to precipitate myocardial depression and hypotension Which of the following is an example of a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent? A. Vecuronium (Norcuron) B. Rocuronium (Zemuron) C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) D. Atracurium (Tricium) ✔C. Succinylcholine (Anectine) Normal heart sounds are designated as:

A. S1, S2, and S B. S1 and S C. S3 and S D. S1, S2, S3, and S ✔B. S1 and S The pulmonary vein moves: A. Oxygen-deficient blood from the heart to the lungs B. Oxygen-deficient blood from the lungs to the heart C. Oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the lungs D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart ✔D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart Distension of the external jugular veins is indicative of: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Hypotension D. Myocardial infarction ✔A. Right-sided heart failure Chemoreceptors respond to changes in which of the following indicators in blood? A. pH, glucose, and PCO B. Glucose, PO2, and PCO C. pH, PCO2, and HCO D. pH, PCO2, and PO ✔D. pH, PCO2, and PO Cardiac output (CO) equals: A. Stroke volume x heart rate B. Stroke volume ÷ systemic resistance C. Heart rate - mean arterial pressure D. Heart rate ÷ stroke ✔A. Stroke volume x heart rate On a 12-lead ECG, the augmented leads are:

A. I, II, and III B. V1 to V C. aVR, aVL, and aVF D. RA, LA, LL, and RL ✔C. aVR, aVL, and aVF When evaluating a chest pain patient's 12-lead ECG, you note that lead aVR is positively deflected. This is indicative of: A. Posterior wall MI B. Lead misplacement C. The patient in the left lateral recumbent position D. Septal wall MI ✔B. Lead misplacement Extreme right axis deviation (RAD) can be seen in: A. SA node failure B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Septal wall MI D. A left bundle branch block ✔B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) A left axis deviation is normally seen: A. In children B. In pregnant women C. Due to dextrocardia D. Due to hypokalemia ✔B. In pregnant women Your patient is short of breath and complaining of chest pain. He is seated in a tripod position, which he says improves his condition. When analyzing his 12-lead ECG, you note that all complexes are low-voltage, with ST segment elevation and T-wave inversion in all leads. You suspect: A. Improper lead placement B. A global MI C. Pericarditis D. WPW syndrome ✔C. Pericarditis

Shock, sepsis, and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) share which of the following common denominators? A. Dilation of great vessels B. Inability of oxygen supply to meet demand C. Cellular function D. A carbon dioxide deficit ✔C. Cellular function Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three essential components of which of the following processes? A. Oxidative respiration B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) breakdown C. Semi-permeable membrane respiration D. Cellular respiration ✔D. Cellular respiration The primary energy-carrying molecule in the body is: A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) B. Adenosine diphoshate (ADP) C. Creatinine kinase (CK) D. Pyruvic acid (PA) ✔A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) The three components of cellular respiration can work together in either a (an): A. Acid or alkali environment B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment C. Lactic or lactulose environment D. Open or closed environment ✔B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment _______ is maintained when the supply of oxygen is sufficient to meet the cellular demands of the body. A. pH balance B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis

D. Lactic acid ✔B. Homeostasis A rightward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased affinity C. Unchanged affinity D. Decreased unloading ability ✔A. Decreased affinity A leftward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased unloading ability C. Increased affinity D. Unchanged affinity ✔C. Increased affinity Initially, compensatory shock mechanisms help keep clinical signs normal, but serum lactate rises due to: A. Aerobic metabolism B. Hypermetabolic output C. Hyperdynamic balance D. Anaerobic metabolism ✔D. Anaerobic metabolism A patient in compensatory shock will increase his or her respiratory rate to bring about which of the following changes? A. A decrease in pH and an increase in minute volume B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide C. A decrease in minute volume and an increase in pH D. Dilation of the capillary bed and diffusion gradient ✔B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide Your patient's lab states the current lactate level is 5.3mmol/L. This value suggests:

A. Nothing B. Aerobic metabolism is occurring C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality D. Metabolic acidosis ✔C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality Which of the following information about burns is FALSE? A. There are approximately 1 million burn injuries every year in the United States. B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive. C. Serious burns occur most often in males. D. The first 24 hours of burn care are crucial. ✔B. Two percent of burn B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive A systemic inflammatory response is initiated in burns greater than: A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 25% ✔D. 25% Major burn injuries include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Partial-thickness burns of 15% to 25% in adults B. High-voltage electrical injury C. Full-thickness burns involving more than 10% of body surface area (BSA) D. Burns caused by caustic chemicals ✔A. Partial-thickness burns of 15% to 25% in adults Inhalation should always be expected in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Facial burns B. High-voltage electrical shock C. Carbonaceous sputum D. Stridor or progressive hoarseness ✔B. High-voltage electrical shock

A variety of causes are thought to result in decreased cardiac output in burned patients, including all of the following EXCEPT: A. The inflammatory response and its mediators B. Cyanide poisoning C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Constrictive cardiomyopathy ✔D. Constrictive cardiomyopathy Although succinylcholine (Anectine) is the drug of choice in rapid sequence intubation (RSI), it is contraindicated in patients with burn injuries greater than _______ hours old. A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96 ✔B. 48 In a failed intubation attempt with a burn patient, the CCTP should be prepared to: A. Perform a surgical airway intervention B. Place a rescue airway C. Perform an escharotomy D. Ventilate using a bag-valve-mask device ✔A. Perform a surgical airway intervention Which of the following is the MOST commonly used resuscitation formula the first 24 hours after a burn? A. Brooke formula B. Parker's formula C. Parkland formula D. Cincinnati formula ✔C. Parkland formula Which of the following is the BEST monitor of fluid replacement in adults, children, or neonates? A. Heart rate B. Urine output

C. Clear breath sounds D. Absence of myoglobinuria ✔B. Urine output Renal dysfunction that results from the mobilization of muscle proteins that impair filtration is a condition known as: A. Myoglobinuria B. Methylglobinuria C. Rhabdomyoglobin D. Rhabdomyolsis ✔D. Rhabdomyolsis An inanimate object that can transmit infectious organisms from one individual to another is known as a(n): A. Vector B. Fomite C. Atrogenic D. Contaminant ✔B. Fomite The humoral, or antibody-mediated, response primarily occurs when the: A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time B. Antigen responds to the antibody C. Immune cells encounter an antibody for the first time D. Antigen is properly opsonized by the antibody ✔A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time _______ is a serious allergic reaction that has a rapid onset of symptoms and, if unrecognized, can lead to respiratory arrest. A. Hypersensitivity B. A localized reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. A toxicity reaction ✔C. Anaphylaxis _______ occurs when one or more of the components of the immune system is damaged or non-functioning.

A. Infection B. Immunocompromise C. Immunodeficiency D. Hypersensitivity ✔C. Immunodeficiency The prevention of colonization by pathogenic bacteria is attributed to: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Antifungal soaps and creams C. Adequate hand washing D. The presence of normal flora ✔D. The presence of normal flora Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called: A. Pathogens B. Fomites C. Vectors D. Hosts ✔A. Pathogens Properties of microbes that influence their virulence include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Invasion of host tissues B. Evasion of host defenses C. Toxicity D. Fomitic class of invader ✔D. Fomitic class of invader All of the following are typical portals of entry EXCEPT the: A. Skin B. Hair follicles C. Conjunctiva of the eye D. Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract ✔A. Skin

What are the two types of toxins produced by bacteria? A. Endogenous and exogenous B. Mild and fulminating C. Exotoxins and endotoxins D. Pyrogenic and exogenic ✔C. Exotoxins and endotoxins Which of the following lactate (lactic acid) levels would be indicative of a septic shock? A. 4 mg/dl B. 9 mg/dl C. >18 mg/dl D. 2 mg/dl ✔C. >18 mg/dl Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that predisposes people to environmental emergencies? A. Being in a poor state of health B. Being a thrill seeker C. Extremes of age D. Taking certain medications ✔B. Being a thrill seeker The body's ability to ensure and maintain a balance between heat production and heat elimination is known as: A. Homogenesis B. Thermogenesis C. Thermolysis D. Thermoregulation ✔D. Thermoregulation The heat produced at rest from normal metabolic functions is referred to as the: A. Basic metabolism rate B. Base metabolic rate C. Basal metabolic rate D. Basic metabolic requirement

✔C. Basal metabolic rate Heat cramps are a result of: A. Hyperthermia B. Water loss C. Water-sodium imbalance D. Sodium gain ✔C. Water-sodium imbalance Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion? A. Altered mental status B. Headache C. Nausea D. Fatigue ✔A. Altered mental status Rhabdomyolysis may release excess potassium from: A. The intravascular compartment B. The destruction of muscle tissue C. Relative hypocalcemia D. Relative hyponatremia ✔B. The destruction of muscle tissue The MOST common anesthetic trigger for malignant hyperthermia is: A. Succinylcholine (Anectine) B. Propofol (Diprivan) C. Pancuronium (Pavulon) D. Vecuronium (Norcuron) ✔A. Succinylcholine (Anectine The most serious complication of frostbite is seen with: A. Excessive moisture B. Dry cold C. Refreezing D. Field rewarming

✔C. Refreezing Hypothermia may be a result of any of the following EXCEPT: A. Impaired thermogenesis B. Excessive thermolysis C. Excessive environmental cold stress D. Hyperdynamic cardiac states ✔D. Hyperdynamic cardiac states Passive external rewarming can be accomplished through the use of all EXCEPT: A. Removal of wet clothing B. Use of blankets C. Use of heat packs D. Infusion of cold saline ✔D. Infusion of cold saline The MOST common critical care transport crew configuration is: A. Nurse and paramedic B. Two Nurses C. Nurse and physician D. Paramedic and EMT ✔ Patients with acute myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, severe traumatic brain injury, and abdominal aneurysm are all examples of patients who: A. Will not tolerate the altitude changes associated with air medical transport B. Will require a respiratory therapist during transport C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation D. Are too critical to transport ✔C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation _______ requires the use of specialized equipment and specialized training for paramedics and nurses. A. Advanced life support B. Fixed-wing air medical evacuation C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS

D. Interfacility transport ✔C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 250,000' (76 km) is: A. 16% B. 18% C. 21% D. 25% ✔C. 21% A patient's pneumothorax increasing in size as altitude increases is an example of _______ Law. A. Charles' B. Boyle's C. Dalton's D. Fick's ✔B. Boyle's The primary gas law dealing with diffusion of gasses across the alveolar membrane is: A. Graham's Law B. Boyle's Law C. Dalton's Law D. Fick's Law ✔D. Fick's Law Reduced atmospheric pressure causing a reduced alveolar PO2 is an example of _______ hypoxia. A. Hypoxic B. Histotoxic C. Stagnant D. Hypemic ✔A. Hypoxic

8. You are preparing a trauma patient with a closed head injury and blunt chest trauma for a 2-hour, fixed-wing transport. The patient is intubated, paralyzed, and sedated. Vital signs are: blood pressure, 110/76 mm Hg; respirations, 16

breaths/minute by ventilator; heart rate, 118 beats/minute and showing sinus tachycardia on the monitor; and an SaO2 of 96% with 0.5 FIO2. The CT scan shows a moderate subarachnoid bleed and chest x-ray reveals a 25% pneumothorax on the right. You are currently at 500' (152 m) above sea level, and the aircraft will reach a cabin pressure of 8,000' (2.4 km) en route to the tertiary care facility. Which of the following is your best option during this flight? A. Increase FIO2 to 1.0 to counteract the effects of Dalton's Law. B. Make sure that the cabin stays cool while at altitude to counteract the effects of Gay-Lussac's Law. C. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to enhance the effects of Fick's Law. D. Place a chest tube prior to departure to counteract the effects of Boyle's Law. ✔D. Place a chest tube prior to departure to counteract the effects of Boyle's Law. A "sterile cockpit" refers to a: A. Method of decontaminating the aircraft. B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. C. Pilot's absolute control over radio communications. D. Completely locked and separate cockpit. ✔B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. An aircraft flying from airport to airport during very poor weather conditions is: A. Likely operating under visual flight rules (VFR) B. Likely operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) C. Likely being vectored by air traffic control D. Unable to complete a patient transport ✔B. Likely operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) Management of acute renal failure focuses on ________________ the GFR (glomerular filtration rate). A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Eliminating D. None of the above ✔A. Increasing The function of the kidney is to perform all of the following, EXCEPT?

A. Filter blood B. Maintain balance between acids and bases C. Produce bile for digestion Correct D. Discard toxins and excesses by producing urine ✔C. Produce bile for digestion Correct Acute renal failure can be classified as all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Superior renal B. Prerenal C. Intrarenal D. Postrenal ✔A. Superior renal Pathology where fluid accumulates around the testicle and is common in infants is known as: A. Hydronephrosis B. Angina C. Polyphagia D. Hydrocele ✔ What potentially fatal diagnosis must be ruled out as cause of lower abdominal / pelvic pain in the fertile female? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Gastroenteritis C. Cholelithiasis D. None of the above ✔A. Ectopic pregnancy A prolonged erection of the penis, which typically occurs in male patients with a spinal cord injury, sickle cell anemia, penile vessel spasm or clot formation is called a: A. Polyuria B. Priapism C. Kehr's sign D. None of the above

✔B. Priapism Three risk factors that predispose a patient for a hematology emergency include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Glaucoma B. Genetic predisposition C. Environmental exposures D. Infectious exposures ✔A. Glaucoma A patient presenting with a viral infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. A. Unchanged B. Varied C. Increased D. Decreased ✔D. Decreased A patient presenting with a bacterial infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. A. Unchanged B. Decreased C. Increased D. Varied ✔C. Increased The three primary categories of common anemias include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased RBC destruction B. Increased RBC production C. Decreased RBC production D. Acute / chronic blood loss ✔B. Increased RBC production The MOST important part of responding to a scene involving man-made disasters is: A. Speed of response

B. Crew and Patient Safety C. Treatment delivery D. Crew integration to the scene ✔B. Crew and Patient Safety Universal organizational structure for scene responses is known as: A. NIMS/ICS B. Incident management C. Resource management D. People skills ✔A. NIMS/ICS What is the best resource available to responders at the awareness level to determine any hazardous materials present at scene? A. Regional response book B. Protocol book C. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) D. Scene Response Guidebook ✔C. Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) Which of the following organizations deals with Industrial accidents? A. FEMA B. TJC C. CAMTS D. OSHA ✔D. OSHA When responding to a hazardous materials scene, medical personnel are to treat the patient only after which process has been completed? A. Scene Brief B. Checking in with Incident Commander C. Patient Decontamination D. Hazard has been tested ✔C. Patient Decontamination The best definition of a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) is: