Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023, Exams of Nursing

CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 11/01/2023

Talia00
Talia00 🇺🇸

5

(2)

1.2K documents

1 / 90

Toggle sidebar

Related documents


Partial preview of the text

Download CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Which of the following is the MOST commonly injured organ in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys - Correct Answer ✅B. Spleen Liver injuries will cause pain in the right upper quadrant along with right shoulder pain as blood accumulates around the diaphragm. The pain in the right shoulder is called: A. Gourd's sign B. Kehr's sign C. Vagal's sign D. Hobb's sign - Correct Answer ✅B. Kehr's sign The phrenic nerve that arises from cervical vertebrae 3, 4, and 5 controls the _______. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Stomach D. Pancreas - Correct Answer ✅B. Diaphragm The _______ is the largest solid organ in the human body. A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver - Correct Answer ✅D. Liver A root cause of esophageal varices is/are: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Reactive gastritis C. Cirrhosis D. Peptic ulcers - Correct Answer ✅C. Cirrhosis CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 In young children, the narrowest part of the trachea is the: A. Vallecula B. Cricoid ring C. Epiglottis D. Hyoid - Correct Answer ✅B. Cricoid ring In a child, it may be normal for the liver and spleen to: A. Be enlarged B. Bleed easily C. Be palpated below the costal margin D. Push up against the diaphragm, causing decreased vital capacity - Correct Answer ✅C. Be palpated below the costal margin In infants, the minimum expected urine output is: A. 1 mL/kg/hr. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. 2 mL/kg/hr. C. 3 mL/kg/hr. D. 4 mL/kg/hr. - Correct Answer ✅B. 2 mL/kg/hr Which of the following is a major factor that makes children susceptible to hypothermia? A. The inability to shiver B. Fewer glycogen stores C. A larger proportion of body fat D. All of the above - Correct Answer ✅A. The inability to shiver All pediatric assessments should begin with forming a general impression using the Pediatric: A. Trauma score B. Assessment triangle C. Perfusion score D. Faces scale - Correct Answer ✅B. Assessment triangle CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Due to the relatively large tongue of a child in proportion to his or her mouth, successful intubation requires: proper blade size, proper positioning, and proper: A. Suctioning B. Sedation C. Sweeping of the tongue D. Cricoid pressure - Correct Answer ✅C. Sweeping of the tongue Physical assessment of a child's cardiovascular system begins with: A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness B. Checking the child's central pulse rate C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Placing the child on a cardiac monitor - Correct Answer ✅A. Observing the child's general appearance and level of consciousness An increase in _______ is the chief compensatory mechanism in children to increase end-organ perfusion and to maintain blood pressure. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Trauma is the pediatric patient is the most common cause of ___________________ shock. A. Anaphylactic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic - Correct Answer ✅B. Hypovolemic Causes of cardiogenic shock in the pediatric patient include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hyperammonemia B. Drug toxicity C. Myocarditis D. Arrhythmias - Correct Answer ✅A. Hyperammonemia The primary treatments for distributive / neurogenic shock include: CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Lasix and nitroglycerin B. Volume replacement and epinephrine C. Dobutamine and metoprolol D. Albuterol - Correct Answer ✅B. Volume replacement and epinephrine An example of a cardiac defect that does not cause cyanosis in the pediatric patient is: A. Transposition of the Great Arteries B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Pulmonary Stenosis D. All of the above - Correct Answer ✅C. Pulmonary Stenosis Common diagnostic cardiac tests for the pediatric patient include of the following EXCEPT: A. 12-lead ECG B. Palpating pulses C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Assessing capillary refill - Correct Answer ✅A. 12-lead ECG CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Prolonged, unrelieved obstruction causes irreversible damage is typically seen in what type of renal disorder? A. Postrenal disorders B. Suprarenal disorders C. Obstructed venous disorders D. Lateral renal disorders - Correct Answer ✅A. Postrenal disorders Head injuries are the leading cause of ______________________ in the pediatric population. A. Pneumonia B. Degenerate spinal disease C. Death D. All of the above - Correct Answer ✅C. Death Which of the following statements about congenital heart defects is TRUE? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 When assessing your patient's airway prior to intubation, you use the Mallampati classification. Your physical assessment reveals that the posterior pharynx is partially exposed. Based on your knowledge of this classification, you know that this is a Mallampati grade class of: A. I. B. II. C. III. D. IV. - Correct Answer ✅B. II. During intubation, the operator may use the BURP technique. This acronym stands for: A. Bag the patient, use pressure, reverse, placement B. Bilateral, upwards, replace, position C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure D. Beneath, under, rearward, posterior - Correct Answer ✅C. Backward, upward, rightward, pressure You have just orally intubated your patient. When listening to breath sounds, you note that there are air sounds over the epigastrium. It is CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 difficult to determine the presence of lung sounds. There is no significant chest rise or fall with revelations. The most appropriate action at this point is to: A. Deflate the cuff and pull back the tube 2 to 3 cm. B. Deflate the cuff and advance the tube 1 to 2 cm. C. Continue to ventilate for another minute and then reassess. D. Deflate the cuff, re - Correct Answer ✅D. Deflate the cuff, remove the tube, and repeat the steps for oral After several failed intubation attempts, your patient still requires an advanced airway. There is a significant chance your patient has an airway obstruction as well. You are considering doing a surgical cricothyrotomy. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding this procedure? A. It would be contraindicated in a 10-year-old patient. B. It requires more than just a scalpel and an endotracheal tube. C. It is not necessary to visualize anatomic landmarks. D. It is indicated if intu - Correct Answer ✅D. It is indicated if intubation is not CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is a critical skill used by the RN. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding RSI? A. The indications are markedly different than those for endotracheal intubation. B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. C. It is indicated if you are unable to ventilate the patient adequately. D. RSI makes no assumptions about the timing of the patient's last meal. - Correct Answer ✅B. Use of the Sellick maneuver helps to reduce the risk of aspiration. When selecting a sedative/induction agent to use during RSI, sodium thiopental and methohexital are ultra-short-acting barbiturates. Their short duration of action makes them attractive to use; however, they do have potential complications and may not always be the ideal agent to use. Which of the following statements best reflects the concern about using these particular agents? A. They are expensive. B. They must be stored in a controlled environment. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. pH, PCO2, and PO2 - Correct Answer ✅D. pH, PCO2, and PO2 Cardiac output (CO) equals: A. Stroke volume x heart rate B. Stroke volume ÷ systemic resistance C. Heart rate - mean arterial pressure D. Heart rate ÷ stroke - Correct Answer ✅A. Stroke volume x heart rate On a 12-lead ECG, the augmented leads are: A. I, II, and III B. V1 to V6 C. aVR, aVL, and aVF D. RA, LA, LL, and RL - Correct Answer ✅C. aVR, aVL, and aVF When evaluating a chest pain patient's 12-lead ECG, you note that lead aVR is positively deflected. This is indicative of: CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Posterior wall MI B. Lead misplacement C. The patient in the left lateral recumbent position D. Septal wall MI - Correct Answer ✅B. Lead misplacement Extreme right axis deviation (RAD) can be seen in: A. SA node failure B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Septal wall MI D. A left bundle branch block - Correct Answer ✅B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) A left axis deviation is normally seen: A. In children B. In pregnant women C. Due to dextrocardia CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. Due to hypokalemia - Correct Answer ✅B. In pregnant women Your patient is short of breath and complaining of chest pain. He is seated in a tripod position, which he says improves his condition. When analyzing his 12-lead ECG, you note that all complexes are low-voltage, with ST segment elevation and T-wave inversion in all leads. You suspect: A. Improper lead placement B. A global MI C. Pericarditis D. WPW syndrome - Correct Answer ✅C. Pericarditis Shock, sepsis, and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) share which of the following common denominators? A. Dilation of great vessels B. Inability of oxygen supply to meet demand C. Cellular function D. A carbon dioxide deficit - Correct Answer ✅C. Cellular function CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. Decreased unloading ability - Correct Answer ✅A. Decreased affinity A leftward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased unloading ability C. Increased affinity D. Unchanged affinity - Correct Answer ✅C. Increased affinity Initially, compensatory shock mechanisms help keep clinical signs normal, but serum lactate rises due to: A. Aerobic metabolism B. Hypermetabolic output C. Hyperdynamic balance D. Anaerobic metabolism - Correct Answer ✅D. Anaerobic metabolism A patient in compensatory shock will increase his or her respiratory rate to bring about which of the following changes? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. A decrease in pH and an increase in minute volume B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide C. A decrease in minute volume and an increase in pH D. Dilation of the capillary bed and diffusion gradient - Correct Answer ✅B. Increased oxygen intake to blow off excess carbon dioxide Your patient's lab states the current lactate level is 5.3mmol/L. This value suggests: A. Nothing B. Aerobic metabolism is occurring C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality D. Metabolic acidosis - Correct Answer ✅C. Anaerobic metabolism is occurring and is a biomarker for morbidity and mortality Which of the following information about burns is FALSE? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. There are approximately 1 million burn injuries every year in the United States. B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive. C. Serious burns occur most often in males. D. The first 24 hours of burn care are crucial. - Correct Answer ✅B. Two percent of burn B. Two percent of burn center admissions do not survive A systemic inflammatory response is initiated in burns greater than: A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 25% - Correct Answer ✅D. 25% Major burn injuries include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Partial-thickness burns of 15% to 25% in adults B. High-voltage electrical injury C. Full-thickness burns involving more than 10% of body surface area (BSA) CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Brooke formula B. Parker's formula C. Parkland formula D. Cincinnati formula - Correct Answer ✅C. Parkland formula Which of the following is the BEST monitor of fluid replacement in adults, children, or neonates? A. Heart rate B. Urine output C. Clear breath sounds D. Absence of myoglobinuria - Correct Answer ✅B. Urine output Renal dysfunction that results from the mobilization of muscle proteins that impair filtration is a condition known as: A. Myoglobinuria B. Methylglobinuria CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 C. Rhabdomyoglobin D. Rhabdomyolsis - Correct Answer ✅D. Rhabdomyolsis An inanimate object that can transmit infectious organisms from one individual to another is known as a(n): A. Vector B. Fomite C. Atrogenic D. Contaminant - Correct Answer ✅B. Fomite The humoral, or antibody-mediated, response primarily occurs when the: A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time B. Antigen responds to the antibody C. Immune cells encounter an antibody for the first time D. Antigen is properly opsonized by the antibody - Correct Answer ✅A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 _______ is a serious allergic reaction that has a rapid onset of symptoms and, if unrecognized, can lead to respiratory arrest. A. Hypersensitivity B. A localized reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. A toxicity reaction - Correct Answer ✅C. Anaphylaxis _______ occurs when one or more of the components of the immune system is damaged or non-functioning. A. Infection B. Immunocompromise C. Immunodeficiency D. Hypersensitivity - Correct Answer ✅C. Immunodeficiency The prevention of colonization by pathogenic bacteria is attributed to: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. 4 mg/dl B. 9 mg/dl C. >18 mg/dl D. 2 mg/dl - Correct Answer ✅C. >18 mg/dl Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that predisposes people to environmental emergencies? A. Being in a poor state of health B. Being a thrill seeker C. Extremes of age D. Taking certain medications - Correct Answer ✅B. Being a thrill seeker The body's ability to ensure and maintain a balance between heat production and heat elimination is known as: A. Homogenesis B. Thermogenesis C. Thermolysis D. Thermoregulation - Correct Answer ✅D. Thermoregulation CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 The heat produced at rest from normal metabolic functions is referred to as the: A. Basic metabolism rate B. Base metabolic rate C. Basal metabolic rate D. Basic metabolic requirement - Correct Answer ✅C. Basal metabolic rate Heat cramps are a result of: A. Hyperthermia B. Water loss C. Water-sodium imbalance D. Sodium gain - Correct Answer ✅C. Water-sodium imbalance Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion? A. Altered mental status CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. Headache C. Nausea D. Fatigue - Correct Answer ✅A. Altered mental status Rhabdomyolysis may release excess potassium from: A. The intravascular compartment B. The destruction of muscle tissue C. Relative hypocalcemia D. Relative hyponatremia - Correct Answer ✅B. The destruction of muscle tissue The MOST common anesthetic trigger for malignant hyperthermia is: A. Succinylcholine (Anectine) B. Propofol (Diprivan) C. Pancuronium (Pavulon) D. Vecuronium (Norcuron) - Correct Answer ✅A. Succinylcholine (Anectine CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. Are too critical to transport - Correct Answer ✅C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation _______ requires the use of specialized equipment and specialized training for paramedics and nurses. A. Advanced life support B. Fixed-wing air medical evacuation C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS D. Interfacility transport - Correct Answer ✅C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 250,000' (76 km) is: A. 16% B. 18% C. 21% D. 25% - Correct Answer ✅C. 21% CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A patient's pneumothorax increasing in size as altitude increases is an example of _______ Law. A. Charles' B. Boyle's C. Dalton's D. Fick's - Correct Answer ✅B. Boyle's The primary gas law dealing with diffusion of gasses across the alveolar membrane is: A. Graham's Law B. Boyle's Law C. Dalton's Law D. Fick's Law - Correct Answer ✅D. Fick's Law Reduced atmospheric pressure causing a reduced alveolar PO2 is an example of _______ hypoxia. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Hypoxic B. Histotoxic C. Stagnant D. Hypemic - Correct Answer ✅A. Hypoxic 8. You are preparing a trauma patient with a closed head injury and blunt chest trauma for a 2-hour, fixed-wing transport. The patient is intubated, paralyzed, and sedated. Vital signs are: blood pressure, 110/76 mm Hg; respirations, 16 breaths/minute by ventilator; heart rate, 118 beats/minute and showing sinus tachycardia on the monitor; and an SaO2 of 96% with 0.5 FIO2. The CT scan shows a moderate subarachnoid bleed and chest x-ray reveals a 25% pneumothorax on the right. You are currently a - Correct Answer ✅D. Place a chest tube prior to departure to counteract the effects of Boyle's Law. A "sterile cockpit" refers to a: A. Method of decontaminating the aircraft. B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. C. Pilot's absolute control over radio communications. D. Completely locked and separate cockpit. - Correct Answer ✅B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. Hydrocele - Correct Answer ✅ What potentially fatal diagnosis must be ruled out as cause of lower abdominal / pelvic pain in the fertile female? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Gastroenteritis C. Cholelithiasis D. None of the above - Correct Answer ✅A. Ectopic pregnancy A prolonged erection of the penis, which typically occurs in male patients with a spinal cord injury, sickle cell anemia, penile vessel spasm or clot formation is called a: A. Polyuria B. Priapism C. Kehr's sign D. None of the above - Correct Answer ✅B. Priapism CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Three risk factors that predispose a patient for a hematology emergency include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Glaucoma B. Genetic predisposition C. Environmental exposures D. Infectious exposures - Correct Answer ✅A. Glaucoma A patient presenting with a viral infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. A. Unchanged B. Varied C. Increased D. Decreased - Correct Answer ✅D. Decreased A patient presenting with a bacterial infection would typically demonstrate a / an ______________________ number of lymphocytes. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Unchanged B. Decreased C. Increased D. Varied - Correct Answer ✅C. Increased The three primary categories of common anemias include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased RBC destruction B. Increased RBC production C. Decreased RBC production D. Acute / chronic blood loss - Correct Answer ✅B. Increased RBC production The MOST important part of responding to a scene involving man-made disasters is: A. Speed of response B. Crew and Patient Safety C. Treatment delivery CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 C. Two or more injured patients that need rapid transport to the hospital D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed - Correct Answer ✅D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed Why do we practice Triage on the scene of an MCI? A. To count the number of patients B. To prioritize care C. As a reminder of who we have assessed or not assessed D. Triage is no longer used - Correct Answer ✅B. To prioritize care According to the START Triage criteria, which color represents the expectant or DEAD patients? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. Black - Correct Answer ✅D. Black CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 What are the Four Assessment areas to the START Triage System? A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability B. Ability to walk (ambulation), Respirations, Perfusion, Mental Status C. Alertness, Verbal stimulus, Painful Stimulus, Unresponsive D. Eye movement, Secretions, Hazardous materials, Patient mentation - Correct Answer ✅B. Ability to walk (ambulation), Respirations, Perfusion, Mental Status Biological warfare agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi are used to: A. Kill or incapacitate B. Spread over large areas C. Strengthen and awaken D. Conduct wartime research - Correct Answer ✅A. Kill or incapacitate The dicrotic notch on an arterial pressure waveform is caused by the: CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Pulmonic valve closing B. Tricuspid valve opening C. Aortic valve closing D. Pulmonic valve opening - Correct Answer ✅C. Aortic valve closing An increase in heart rate will: A. Increase coronary perfusion pressures B. Decrease coronary perfusion time C. Increase coronary perfusion time D. Decrease myocardial oxygen consumption - Correct Answer ✅B. Decrease coronary perfusion time The intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) catheter offers a mechanical means of balancing _______ and _______. A. Heart rate; stroke volume (SV) B. Ventricular ejection; ventricular filling C. Myocardial oxygen supply; oxygen demand CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. Should always be taped together C. Should never be taped together D. A. & B. - Correct Answer ✅C. Should never be taped together If significant movement of the intra-aortic balloon pump occurs during transport, consider ______________ IABP therapy after consultation with medical control. A. Continuing B. Increasing C. Discontinuing D. Removing - Correct Answer ✅C. Discontinuing The most common type of pacing that the CCTP will initially use if emergency pacing is needed is called ___________________. A. A permanent pacemaker B. A biventricular pacemaker C. Transcutaneous pacing D. Epicardial pacing - Correct Answer ✅C. Transcutaneous pacing CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 You are caring for a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. The current ventilator settings are as follows: tidal volume of 600 mL, respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, FIO2 of 40%. While considering normal respiratory parameters, you recall that the minute ventilation is measured by the: A. Respiratory rate x the SaO2 B. Tidal volume x the AA gradient C. PaO2 x the respiratory rate D. Respiratory rate x the tidal volume - Correct Answer ✅D. Respiratory rate x the tidal volume Which of the following is considered the respiratory component of the ABG values? A. PaO2 B. PaCO2 C. HCO3 D. pH - Correct Answer ✅B. PaCO2 CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 You are preparing to transport a critical patient who is being mechanically ventilated. As part of your patient assessment, you note that the most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results were: pH, 7.44; PaO2, 78 mm Hg; PaCO2, 43 mm Hg; and SaO2, 98 mm Hg. Which of the following is an indicator of the effectiveness of ventilation? A. pH B. PaO2 C. PaCO2 D. SaO2 - Correct Answer ✅C. PaCO2 You must assess the respiratory status of a critical patient who is being mechanically ventilated. One of the tools available to you is a pulse oximeter. Based on your understanding of how the pulse oximeter works and the limitations of conventional pulse oximetry, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Pulse oximetry is useful in the patient who has experienced carbon monoxide poisoning. B. Pulse oximetry can be used in a patient suffering from hypotension. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. It decreases the - Correct Answer ✅B. It is not considered traditional "life support." Your patient has been mechanically ventilated for several days following respiratory failure. The current therapy is aimed at weaning the patient off the ventilator. The ventilator has a set respiratory rate and tidal volume that is delivered in synchrony with each patient-initiated breath. The machine will deliver a certain number of mandatory breaths regardless. All other breaths are spontaneous and the patient's own rate and depth. Which of the following ventilator modes best fits this descri - Correct Answer ✅A. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) You are preparing to transport a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. You are reviewing the ventilator mode, settings, and parameters. You note that the patient is receiving a tidal volume of 500 mL. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tidal volume? A. It is the peak pressure generated during ventilation. B. It is the pressure applied in volume ventilation to the small airways. C. It is the volume of gas delivered with each machine breath. D. It is the percentage of - Correct Answer ✅C. It is the volume of gas delivered with each machine breath CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin directly into the bloodstream when serum calcium levels are: A. Above normal B. Below normal C. Normal D. Either high or normal - Correct Answer ✅A. Above normal Endogenous catecholamines (sympathetic stimulation) are involved in regulating all of the following autonomic functions EXCEPT: A. Increasing the heart rate B. Decreasing the respiratory rate C. Increasing the respiratory rate D. Increasing blood pressure - Correct Answer ✅B. Decreasing the respiratory rate The body's response to physical or emotional stress is referred to as the: CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Exogenous catecholamine release B. Endogenous catecholamine release C. Fight-or-flight response D. Fright-or-spite response - Correct Answer ✅C. Fight-or-flight response What are the main hormones secreted by the pancreas that are responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels? A. Glucagon and glycogen B. Glucagon and insulin C. Insulin and glycogen D. Glucose and insulin - Correct Answer ✅B. Glucagon and insulin Normally, blood glucose levels should be: A. Between 150 mg/ dL and 200 mg/dL B. Greater than 100 mg/dL C. Between 40 mg/dL and 85 mg/dL CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. Lethargy C. An increase in body temperature D. Muscle aches and weakness - Correct Answer ✅C. An increase in body temperature Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of Spinal Immobilization? A. Airway Compromise B. Risk of Aspiration C. Pressure Ulcers D. Pain Reduction - Correct Answer ✅D. Pain Reduction Which of these is NOT considered a positive finding on the NEXUS Criteria? A. Intoxication B. Distracting Injury C. GCS of 15 D. Focal Neurological Deficit - Correct Answer ✅C. GCS of 15 CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 All of these are possible causes of Seizures EXCEPT: A. Fever B. MI C. Glucose Imbalance D. Head Injury - Correct Answer ✅B. MI Which of the following questions is NOT an example of a questions you would want to ask first, in regards to a seizure patient? A. How long was the seizure? B. Has the patient ever had a seizure before? C. Is the patient postictal? D. Did the patient eat breakfast? - Correct Answer ✅D. Did the patient eat breakfast? Which is the most common seizure we deal with in emergency medicine? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Complex Partial Seizures B. Petit Mal Seizures C. Tonic/Clonic Seizures D. Psuedoseizures - Correct Answer ✅C. Tonic/Clonic Seizures Cerebral Edema occurs in approximately what percentage of ischemic stroke patients? A. 10% to 20% B. 15% to 25% C. 20% to 30% D. Over 30% - Correct Answer ✅A. 10% to 20% Signs and Symptoms of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Waddling Gait B. Heel Walking C. Frequent Falls D. Dilated Cardiomyopathy - Correct Answer ✅B. Heel Walking CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Cranial nerves IX and X are both indicators of: A. Carotid reflexes B. Swallowing and gag reflexes C. Elevation of the tongue D. Involuntary visceral muscle activity of the heart - Correct Answer ✅B. Swallowing and gag reflexes Impact that occurs on one side of the head and causes injury internally to the opposite side of the brain as it moves inside the cranium is called a: A. Diffuse axonal injury B. Concussion C. Contrecoup injury D. Secondary brain injury - Correct Answer ✅C. Contrecoup injury The pathophysiology of traumatic brain injury (TBI) emphasizes the importance of which two types of injury? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Direct and indirect B. Hypoxia and ischemia C. P derangement and loss of consciousness D. Swelling and vasospasm - Correct Answer ✅A. Direct and indirect All of the following are possible causes of secondary brain injury EXCEPT: A. Hypoxia B. Hypercarbia C. Hyponatremia D. Hematoma - Correct Answer ✅D. Hematoma Current guidelines identify the ideal cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) to be: A. 15 to 25 mm Hg B. 30 to 40mm Hg C. 45 to 60 mm Hg CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 D. 50 to 70 mm Hg - Correct Answer ✅D. 50 to 70 mm Hg An epidural hematoma is often the result of a blow to the temporal region of the skull that involves the: A. Bridging veins of the skull B. Middle meningeal artery C. Anterior fossae artery D. Vertebral artery - Correct Answer ✅B. Middle meningeal artery The Monroe-Kellie doctrine describes the contents of the cranial vault as: A. Brain, neurons and blood B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid C. Cerebrospinal fluid, air and blood D. Brain, blood and air - Correct Answer ✅B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. Foramen C. Nerve root base D. Ligaments - Correct Answer ✅A. Plexus Test the patient's ability to perceive various types of sensation with their eyes _______________. A. Closed B. Open C. Focused on you, the provider D. Focused on a pen light - Correct Answer ✅A. Closed Which of the following is NOT an example of incomplete spinal cord syndromes? A. Jordan Syndrome B. Central Cord Syndrome C. Brown Sequard Syndrome D. Anterior Cord Syndrome - Correct Answer ✅A. Jordan Syndrome CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Which of the following is NOT an assessment for spinal cord injury? A. Gross manipulation of the patient's neck B. Visual inspection and light palpation for deformities and crepitus C. Evaluation of the patient's airway prior to transport D. Taking precautions to immobilize the patient to prevent more injury - Correct Answer ✅A. Gross manipulation of the patient's neck Treatment for pelvic injuries include all EXCEPT : A. Consideration of TXA administration B. Closing the potential space, created by the pelvic fracture C. Minimizing pelvic stabilization D. Application of a pelvic binder - Correct Answer ✅C. Minimizing pelvic stabilization Extremity trauma includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Fractures CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 B. Dislocations / subluxations C. Depressed skull fracture D. Compartment syndrome - Correct Answer ✅C. Depressed skull fracture Soft tissue injury treatment includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Stabilization B. Reducing swelling C. Escharotomy D. Pain management - Correct Answer ✅C. Escharotomy The differential diagnosis is best described as: A. The most likely diagnosis for a patient's condition. B. The least likely diagnosis for a patient's condition. C. A list of possible diagnostic considerations for a patient's possible condition. D. Including the projected diagnosis. - Correct Answer ✅C. A list of possible diagnostic considerations for a patient's possible condition. CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Decerebrate posturing is characterized by which of the following? A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities B. Hyperflexion of the neck and flexed extremities C. Hyperextension of the neck and clenched extremities D. Hyperflexion of the neck and extension of the upper extremities - Correct Answer ✅A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities You are caring for a patient who has sustained a significant head injury. During a routine neurologic assessment, you pay close attention to the patient's GCS. During the examination, you note that the previous GCS score was 13 and now it is 9. Based on this finding, you might suspect which of the following? A. This is a normal response. B. You have calculated the GCS incorrectly. C. The intracranial pressure is increasing. D. Hypertension is increasing. - Correct Answer ✅C. The intracranial pressure is increasing CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 Which of the following is most consistent with a pathology of upper gastrointestinal bleeding? A. Dark, melanotic stool B. Dark stool with bright red blood C. Passage of blood clots per rectum D. Hematochezia - Correct Answer ✅A. Dark, melanotic stool A standard and key assessment of the critical care musculoskeletal system is: A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity B. Measuring compartment pressures C. Checking for hepato-jugular reflux D. Auscultation of a popliteal bruit - Correct Answer ✅A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity Which of the following is associated with assessment prior to an inter- facility transport? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Frequently, there is little information available. B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. C. Report is received from Emergency Medical Services (EMS). D. There is no need for a thorough equipment check. - Correct Answer ✅B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. You have a 25-year-old male patient who was involved in a motorcycle crash. He has absent lungs sounds on the right. What other sign would you expect to find if you were considering a tension pneumothorax? A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Muffled Heart Tones - Correct Answer ✅C. Hypotension What is the biggest threat to your patient who is in a shock state? CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 You have a 68 year- old diabetic patient who is complaining of general weakness and shortness of breath. Upon exam you determine the patient is hypotensive, diaphoretic, tachycardic with pulmonary edema. What type of shock are you suspecting? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Septic - Correct Answer ✅B. Cardiogenic What is the first line pharmacologic treatment for the patient suffering from an anaphylactic reaction? A. Diphenhydramine B. Decadron C. Albuterol D. Epinephrine - Correct Answer ✅D. Epinephrine The quickSOFA (qSOFA) score is a diagnostic tool used to help diagnosis Sepsis in your patient's. Which of these would NOT qualify as warning signs of a Sepsis patient: CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 A. Altered Mental Status B. Respiratory Rate 28 C. Heart Rate 104 D. Systolic BP 86 - Correct Answer ✅C. Heart Rate 104 Common treatment modalities for all sepsis patients would include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Normal saline or Lactated Ringers infusion for volume expansion B. Vasopressor medication C. Antibiotics D. ET Intubation - Correct Answer ✅D. ET Intubation In a critically ill pregnant patient, the key to a viable fetus is: A. Early delivery if gestation is over 20 weeks B. Maintaining adequate perfusion of the mother CFRN Practice Test Question And Answers 2023 C. Getting a neonatal consult as soon as possible D. Having the labor and delivery team on standby - Correct Answer ✅B. Maintaining adequate perfusion of the mother The umbilical cord contains: A. One vein and one artery B. Two veins and one artery C. One vein and two arteries D. Two veins and two arteries - Correct Answer ✅C. One vein and two arteries During an abdominal exam of a known pregnant patient, the CCTP palpates the top of the uterus just above the symphisis pubis. Based on this finding, the pregnancy is at least _______ weeks' gestation. A. 8 B. 12 C. 20 D. 24 - Correct Answer ✅B. 12