CFRN Practice Test Questions with Answers 2024., Exams of Nursing

Download CFRN Practice Test Questions with Answers 2024. and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CFRN Practice Test Questions with Answers 2024. Which of the following is the MOST commonly injured organ in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys ✔ B. Spleen Liver injuries will cause pain in the right upper quadrant along with right shoulder pain as blood accumulates around the diaphragm. The pain in the right shoulder is called: A. Gourd's sign B. Kehr's sign C. Vagal's sign D. Hobb's sign ✔ B. Kehr's sign The phrenic nerve that arises from cervical vertebrae 3, 4, and 5 controls the _______. A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Stomach D. Pancreas ✔ B. Diaphragm The _______ is the largest solid organ in the human body. A. Brain B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver ✔ D. Liver A root cause of esophageal varices is/are: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Reactive gastritis C. Cirrhosis D. Peptic ulcers ✔ C. Cirrhosis The most common cause of lower GI bleeding is: A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) D. Angiodysplasia ✔ B. Diverticulosis The appearance of dark, tarry blood in the stool is known as: A. Hematemesis B. Melena C. Hematochezia D. Crohn's disease ✔ B. Melena The most common cause of pancreatitis is: A. Gallstones B. Alcohol abuse C. Hypercalcemia D. Tumors ✔ A. Gallstones Development of peripheral edema, ascites, and pulmonary edema in the patient with liver failure is a result of a decreased production of: A. Bilirubin B. Aspartate amniotransferase C. Albumin D. Creatinine ✔ C. Albumin Fulminant hepatic failure is most commonly caused by: A. Alcohol abuse A. Abdominal thrusts only B. One attempt at nasotracheal intubation C. Carotid massage D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps ✔ D. Chest thrusts, Heimlich maneuver, and laryngoscopy with Magill forceps A child in shock will fail quickly when the child's compensatory systems: A. Are in overdrive B. Fail C. Thrive D. Are functioning normally ✔ B. Fail In a child in shock, the heart rate is the: A. Only compensatory mechanism B. Last compensatory mechanism C. Primary compensatory mechanism D. None of the above ✔ C. Primary compensatory mechanism Trauma is the pediatric patient is the most common cause of ___________________ shock. A. Anaphylactic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Cardiogenic ✔ B. Hypovolemic Causes of cardiogenic shock in the pediatric patient include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Hyperammonemia B. Drug toxicity C. Myocarditis D. Arrhythmias ✔ A. Hyperammonemia The primary treatments for distributive / neurogenic shock include: A. Lasix and nitroglycerin B. Volume replacement and epinephrine C. Dobutamine and metoprolol D. Albuterol ✔ B. Volume replacement and epinephrine An example of a cardiac defect that does not cause cyanosis in the pediatric patient is: A. Transposition of the Great Arteries B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Pulmonary Stenosis D. All of the above ✔ C. Pulmonary Stenosis Common diagnostic cardiac tests for the pediatric patient include of the following EXCEPT: A. 12-lead ECG B. Palpating pulses C. Feeling the child's skin temperature D. Assessing capillary refill ✔ A. 12-lead ECG Prolonged, unrelieved obstruction causes irreversible damage is typically seen in what type of renal disorder? A. Postrenal disorders B. Suprarenal disorders C. Obstructed venous disorders D. Lateral renal disorders ✔ A. Postrenal disorders Head injuries are the leading cause of ______________________ in the pediatric population. A. Pneumonia B. Degenerate spinal disease C. Death D. All of the above ✔ C. Death Which of the following statements about congenital heart defects is TRUE? A. The term infant is at the highest risk for an undiagnosed congenital heart defect. B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. C. A child with a relatively small lesion may go on to age 8 to 12 months before it is detected. D. The pattern of cyanosis, decreased mental status, and lethargy may mimic hypoglycemia. ✔ B. Congenital heart defects are classified as either cyanotic or acyanotic. While caring for a critical patient with profound hypoxia, you recall that changes in the V/Q ratio is one of the most common causes of hypoxemia. Which of the following best describes the V/Q ratio? A. A marker for inflammation when a blood clot may be present B. A measure of the coaguability of the pulmonary blood flow C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place D. A serologic measurement of pulmonary injury ✔ C. A measurement of how much blood flow must be present at the alveolar capillary membrane for perfusion to take place In the presence of midface trauma with instability, which airway maneuver would be contraindicated? A. Digital intubation B. Oropharyngeal suctioning of foreign bodies C. Oral intubation D. Nasotracheal intubation ✔ D. Nasotracheal intubation You are on scene with a 37 year-old male involved in an MVC, combative and confused on-scene. Patient was intubated with a 8.0 ETT, 24 cm at the lips. Quantitative ETCO2 monitoring shows a ETCO2 of 50. Which action should be undertaken by the flight/transport nurse? A. Slightly hyperventile the patient B. Switch to a litmus paper ETCO2 detector C. Advance ETT 1 cm, then reassess D. Continue ventilating at 12 bpm with 100% FiO2 ✔ A. Slightly hyperventile the patient C. Oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the lungs D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart ✔ D. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart Distension of the external jugular veins is indicative of: A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Hypotension D. Myocardial infarction ✔ A. Right-sided heart failure Chemoreceptors respond to changes in which of the following indicators in blood? A. pH, glucose, and PCO2 B. Glucose, PO2, and PCO2 C. pH, PCO2, and HCO3 D. pH, PCO2, and PO2 ✔ D. pH, PCO2, and PO2 Cardiac output (CO) equals: A. Stroke volume x heart rate B. Stroke volume ÷ systemic resistance C. Heart rate - mean arterial pressure D. Heart rate ÷ stroke ✔ A. Stroke volume x heart rate On a 12-lead ECG, the augmented leads are: A. I, II, and III B. V1 to V6 C. aVR, aVL, and aVF D. RA, LA, LL, and RL ✔ C. aVR, aVL, and aVF When evaluating a chest pain patient's 12-lead ECG, you note that lead aVR is positively deflected. This is indicative of: A. Posterior wall MI B. Lead misplacement C. The patient in the left lateral recumbent position D. Septal wall MI ✔ B. Lead misplacement Extreme right axis deviation (RAD) can be seen in: A. SA node failure B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Septal wall MI D. A left bundle branch block ✔ B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) A left axis deviation is normally seen: A. In children B. In pregnant women C. Due to dextrocardia D. Due to hypokalemia ✔ B. In pregnant women Your patient is short of breath and complaining of chest pain. He is seated in a tripod position, which he says improves his condition. When analyzing his 12-lead ECG, you note that all complexes are low-voltage, with ST segment elevation and T-wave inversion in all leads. You suspect: A. Improper lead placement B. A global MI C. Pericarditis D. WPW syndrome ✔ C. Pericarditis Shock, sepsis, and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) share which of the following common denominators? A. Dilation of great vessels B. Inability of oxygen supply to meet demand C. Cellular function D. A carbon dioxide deficit ✔ C. Cellular function Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain are the three essential components of which of the following processes? A. Oxidative respiration B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) breakdown C. Semi-permeable membrane respiration D. Cellular respiration ✔ D. Cellular respiration The primary energy-carrying molecule in the body is: A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) B. Adenosine diphoshate (ADP) C. Creatinine kinase (CK) D. Pyruvic acid (PA) ✔ A. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) The three components of cellular respiration can work together in either a (an): A. Acid or alkali environment B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment C. Lactic or lactulose environment D. Open or closed environment ✔ B. Aerobic or an anaerobic environment _______ is maintained when the supply of oxygen is sufficient to meet the cellular demands of the body. A. pH balance B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Lactic acid ✔ B. Homeostasis A rightward shift in the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve causes _______ for oxygen by hemoglobin. A. Decreased affinity B. Increased affinity C. Unchanged affinity D. Decreased unloading ability ✔ A. Decreased affinity D. 96 ✔ B. 48 In a failed intubation attempt with a burn patient, the CCTP should be prepared to: A. Perform a surgical airway intervention B. Place a rescue airway C. Perform an escharotomy D. Ventilate using a bag-valve-mask device ✔ A. Perform a surgical airway intervention Which of the following is the MOST commonly used resuscitation formula the first 24 hours after a burn? A. Brooke formula B. Parker's formula C. Parkland formula D. Cincinnati formula ✔ C. Parkland formula Which of the following is the BEST monitor of fluid replacement in adults, children, or neonates? A. Heart rate B. Urine output C. Clear breath sounds D. Absence of myoglobinuria ✔ B. Urine output Renal dysfunction that results from the mobilization of muscle proteins that impair filtration is a condition known as: A. Myoglobinuria B. Methylglobinuria C. Rhabdomyoglobin D. Rhabdomyolsis ✔ D. Rhabdomyolsis An inanimate object that can transmit infectious organisms from one individual to another is known as a(n): A. Vector B. Fomite C. Atrogenic D. Contaminant ✔ B. Fomite The humoral, or antibody-mediated, response primarily occurs when the: A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time B. Antigen responds to the antibody C. Immune cells encounter an antibody for the first time D. Antigen is properly opsonized by the antibody ✔ A. Immune cells encounter a specific antigen for the first time _______ is a serious allergic reaction that has a rapid onset of symptoms and, if unrecognized, can lead to respiratory arrest. A. Hypersensitivity B. A localized reaction C. Anaphylaxis D. A toxicity reaction ✔ C. Anaphylaxis _______ occurs when one or more of the components of the immune system is damaged or non-functioning. A. Infection B. Immunocompromise C. Immunodeficiency D. Hypersensitivity ✔ C. Immunodeficiency The prevention of colonization by pathogenic bacteria is attributed to: A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Antifungal soaps and creams C. Adequate hand washing D. The presence of normal flora ✔ D. The presence of normal flora Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called: A. Pathogens B. Fomites C. Vectors D. Hosts ✔ A. Pathogens Properties of microbes that influence their virulence include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Invasion of host tissues B. Evasion of host defenses C. Toxicity D. Fomitic class of invader ✔ D. Fomitic class of invader All of the following are typical portals of entry EXCEPT the: A. Skin B. Hair follicles C. Conjunctiva of the eye D. Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract ✔ A. Skin What are the two types of toxins produced by bacteria? A. Endogenous and exogenous B. Mild and fulminating C. Exotoxins and endotoxins D. Pyrogenic and exogenic ✔ C. Exotoxins and endotoxins Which of the following lactate (lactic acid) levels would be indicative of a septic shock? A. 4 mg/dl B. 9 mg/dl C. >18 mg/dl D. 2 mg/dl ✔ C. >18 mg/dl Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that predisposes people to environmental emergencies? B. Two Nurses C. Nurse and physician D. Paramedic and EMT ✔ Patients with acute myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, severe traumatic brain injury, and abdominal aneurysm are all examples of patients who: A. Will not tolerate the altitude changes associated with air medical transport B. Will require a respiratory therapist during transport C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation D. Are too critical to transport ✔ C. Are good candidates for rotor-wing transportation _______ requires the use of specialized equipment and specialized training for paramedics and nurses. A. Advanced life support B. Fixed-wing air medical evacuation C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS D. Interfacility transport ✔ C. Specialty care transport, as defined by CMS The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 250,000' (76 km) is: A. 16% B. 18% C. 21% D. 25% ✔ C. 21% A patient's pneumothorax increasing in size as altitude increases is an example of _______ Law. A. Charles' B. Boyle's C. Dalton's D. Fick's ✔ B. Boyle's The primary gas law dealing with diffusion of gasses across the alveolar membrane is: A. Graham's Law B. Boyle's Law C. Dalton's Law D. Fick's Law ✔ D. Fick's Law Reduced atmospheric pressure causing a reduced alveolar PO2 is an example of _______ hypoxia. A. Hypoxic B. Histotoxic C. Stagnant D. Hypemic ✔ A. Hypoxic 8. You are preparing a trauma patient with a closed head injury and blunt chest trauma for a 2-hour, fixed-wing transport. The patient is intubated, paralyzed, and sedated. Vital signs are: blood pressure, 110/76 mm Hg; respirations, 16 breaths/minute by ventilator; heart rate, 118 beats/minute and showing sinus tachycardia on the monitor; and an SaO2 of 96% with 0.5 FIO2. The CT scan shows a moderate subarachnoid bleed and chest x-ray reveals a 25% pneumothorax on the right. You are currently at 500' (152 m) above sea level, and the aircraft will reach a cabin pressure of 8,000' (2.4 km) en route to the tertiary care facility. Which of the following is your best option during this flight? A. Increase FIO2 to 1.0 to counteract the effects of Dalton's Law. B. Make sure that the cabin stays cool while at altitude to counteract the effects of Gay- Lussac's Law. C. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to e ✔ D. Place a chest tube prior to departure to counteract the effects of Boyle's Law. A "sterile cockpit" refers to a: A. Method of decontaminating the aircraft. B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. C. Pilot's absolute control over radio communications. D. Completely locked and separate cockpit. ✔ B. Communication technique during critical phases of flight. An aircraft flying from airport to airport during very poor weather conditions is: A. Likely operating under visual flight rules (VFR) B. Likely operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) C. Likely being vectored by air traffic control D. Unable to complete a patient transport ✔ B. Likely operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) Management of acute renal failure focuses on ________________ the GFR (glomerular filtration rate). A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Eliminating D. None of the above ✔ A. Increasing The function of the kidney is to perform all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Filter blood B. Maintain balance between acids and bases C. Produce bile for digestion Correct D. Discard toxins and excesses by producing urine ✔ C. Produce bile for digestion Correct Acute renal failure can be classified as all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Superior renal B. Prerenal C. Intrarenal D. Postrenal ✔ A. Superior renal Pathology where fluid accumulates around the testicle and is common in infants is known as: A. Hydronephrosis B. Angina C. Polyphagia D. Hydrocele ✔ What potentially fatal diagnosis must be ruled out as cause of lower abdominal / pelvic pain in the fertile female? When responding to a hazardous materials scene, medical personnel are to treat the patient only after which process has been completed? A. Scene Brief B. Checking in with Incident Commander C. Patient Decontamination D. Hazard has been tested ✔ C. Patient Decontamination The best definition of a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) is: A. Any scene involving two or more patients B. More than five vehicles in an accident C. Two or more injured patients that need rapid transport to the hospital D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed ✔ D. Any incident in which local resources are stressed Why do we practice Triage on the scene of an MCI? A. To count the number of patients B. To prioritize care C. As a reminder of who we have assessed or not assessed D. Triage is no longer used ✔ B. To prioritize care According to the START Triage criteria, which color represents the expectant or DEAD patients? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. Black ✔ D. Black What are the Four Assessment areas to the START Triage System? A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability B. Ability to walk (ambulation), Respirations, Perfusion, Mental Status C. Alertness, Verbal stimulus, Painful Stimulus, Unresponsive D. Eye movement, Secretions, Hazardous materials, Patient mentation ✔ B. Ability to walk (ambulation), Respirations, Perfusion, Mental Status Biological warfare agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi are used to: A. Kill or incapacitate B. Spread over large areas C. Strengthen and awaken D. Conduct wartime research ✔ A. Kill or incapacitate The dicrotic notch on an arterial pressure waveform is caused by the: A. Pulmonic valve closing B. Tricuspid valve opening C. Aortic valve closing D. Pulmonic valve opening ✔ C. Aortic valve closing An increase in heart rate will: A. Increase coronary perfusion pressures B. Decrease coronary perfusion time C. Increase coronary perfusion time D. Decrease myocardial oxygen consumption ✔ B. Decrease coronary perfusion time The intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) catheter offers a mechanical means of balancing _______ and _______. A. Heart rate; stroke volume (SV) B. Ventricular ejection; ventricular filling C. Myocardial oxygen supply; oxygen demand D. Blood pressure (BP); heart rate ✔ C. Myocardial oxygen supply; oxygen demand Correct IABP timing inflates the balloon when: A. The ventricles are contracting B. The coronary arteries are filling C. Systole is occurring D. The aortic valve is open ✔ B. The coronary arteries are filling The counterpulsation balloon deflates at the end of _______ just prior to _______. A. Systole; ventricular relaxation B. Diastole; atrial relaxation C. Diastole; ventricular ejection D. Systole; ventricular contraction ✔ C. Diastole; ventricular ejection The most reliable trigger of IABP inflation and deflation is the: A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Arterial pressure C. Pacemaker D. Internally programmed rate ✔ A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) _______ is maintained when the supply of oxygen is sufficient to meet the cellular demands of the body. A. pH balance B. Homeostasis C. Hemostasis D. Lactic acid ✔ B. Homeostasis Intra-aortic balloon pump tubing ______________ for transport. A. Can be coiled up B. Should always be taped together C. Should never be taped together D. A. & B. ✔ C. Should never be taped together If significant movement of the intra-aortic balloon pump occurs during transport, consider ______________ IABP therapy after consultation with medical control. A. Continuing B. Increasing C. Discontinuing D. Removing When considering which type of ventilation is most appropriate for the patient, the use of noninvasive ventilation methods such as bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) may be an option. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding BiPAP ventilation? A. It maintains a constant airway pressure throughout the entire breathing cycle. B. It is not considered traditional "life support." C. It delivers a preset pressure to the lungs during nonspontaneous breathing. D. It decreases the functional residual capacity (FRC). ✔ B. It is not considered traditional "life support." Your patient has been mechanically ventilated for several days following respiratory failure. The current therapy is aimed at weaning the patient off the ventilator. The ventilator has a set respiratory rate and tidal volume that is delivered in synchrony with each patient-initiated breath. The machine will deliver a certain number of mandatory breaths regardless. All other breaths are spontaneous and the patient's own rate and depth. Which of the following ventilator modes best fits this description? A. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) B. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) C. Assist/control mode D. Pressure-control volume (PCV) ✔ A. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) You are preparing to transport a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. You are reviewing the ventilator mode, settings, and parameters. You note that the patient is receiving a tidal volume of 500 mL. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tidal volume? A. It is the peak pressure generated during ventilation. B. It is the pressure applied in volume ventilation to the small airways. C. It is the volume of gas delivered with each machine breath. D. It is the percentage of inhaled oxygen delivered. ✔ C. It is the volume of gas delivered with each machine breath The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin directly into the bloodstream when serum calcium levels are: A. Above normal B. Below normal C. Normal D. Either high or normal ✔ A. Above normal Endogenous catecholamines (sympathetic stimulation) are involved in regulating all of the following autonomic functions EXCEPT: A. Increasing the heart rate B. Decreasing the respiratory rate C. Increasing the respiratory rate D. Increasing blood pressure ✔ B. Decreasing the respiratory rate The body's response to physical or emotional stress is referred to as the: A. Exogenous catecholamine release B. Endogenous catecholamine release C. Fight-or-flight response D. Fright-or-spite response ✔ C. Fight-or-flight response What are the main hormones secreted by the pancreas that are responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels? A. Glucagon and glycogen B. Glucagon and insulin C. Insulin and glycogen D. Glucose and insulin ✔ B. Glucagon and insulin Normally, blood glucose levels should be: A. Between 150 mg/ dL and 200 mg/dL B. Greater than 100 mg/dL C. Between 40 mg/dL and 85 mg/dL D. Between 70 mg/dL and 110 mg/dL ✔ D. Between 70 mg/dL and 110 mg/dL What are the two hallmark signs associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. Vomiting and diarrhea B. Thirst and hypotension C. Nausea and confusion D. Rapid respirations and fruity breath ✔ D. Rapid respirations and fruity breath Patients with HHNS primarily present with all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Severe dehydration B. Tachycardia and hypotension due to dehydration C. Polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria D. Elevated sodium and carbon dioxide levels ✔ D. Elevated sodium and carbon dioxide levels All of the following may cause central diabetes insipidus EXCEPT: A. Traumatic head injury B. Neurosurgery C. Genetic abnormalities D. Hypovolemic shock ✔ D. Hypovolemic shock Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT associated with pheochromocytoma? A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Congestive heart failure C. Cerebrovascular accident D. Gastrointestinal bleeding ✔ D. Gastrointestinal bleeding Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of hypothyroidism? A. Weight gain B. Lethargy C. An increase in body temperature D. Muscle aches and weakness ✔ C. An increase in body temperature Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of Spinal Immobilization? A. Airway Compromise B. Risk of Aspiration C. Penetrating or burning D. Open or deceleration ✔ B. Blunt or penetrating The trigeminal nerve is a cranial nerve with distinct: A. Motor function B. Sensory function C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B ✔ D. Both A and B Cranial nerves IX and X are both indicators of: A. Carotid reflexes B. Swallowing and gag reflexes C. Elevation of the tongue D. Involuntary visceral muscle activity of the heart ✔ B. Swallowing and gag reflexes Impact that occurs on one side of the head and causes injury internally to the opposite side of the brain as it moves inside the cranium is called a: A. Diffuse axonal injury B. Concussion C. Contrecoup injury D. Secondary brain injury ✔ C. Contrecoup injury The pathophysiology of traumatic brain injury (TBI) emphasizes the importance of which two types of injury? A. Direct and indirect B. Hypoxia and ischemia C. P derangement and loss of consciousness D. Swelling and vasospasm ✔ A. Direct and indirect All of the following are possible causes of secondary brain injury EXCEPT: A. Hypoxia B. Hypercarbia C. Hyponatremia D. Hematoma ✔ D. Hematoma Current guidelines identify the ideal cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) to be: A. 15 to 25 mm Hg B. 30 to 40mm Hg C. 45 to 60 mm Hg D. 50 to 70 mm Hg ✔ D. 50 to 70 mm Hg An epidural hematoma is often the result of a blow to the temporal region of the skull that involves the: A. Bridging veins of the skull B. Middle meningeal artery C. Anterior fossae artery D. Vertebral artery ✔ B. Middle meningeal artery The Monroe-Kellie doctrine describes the contents of the cranial vault as: A. Brain, neurons and blood B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid C. Cerebrospinal fluid, air and blood D. Brain, blood and air ✔ B. Brain, blood and cerebrospinal fluid As ICP rises to the level of arterial pressure, the cascade of events know as Cushing's triad begins. Cushing's triad is BEST described as: A. Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern B. MAP greater that 120 mm Hg, tachycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern C. Tachypnea, widened pulse pressure, and tachycardia D. Apnea, bradycardia, and systolic blood pressure greater than 180 mm Hg ✔ A. Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and abnormal respiratory pattern Bilateral closed femur fractures could result in a blood loss of: A. 500 ml B. 1,000 ml C. 1,500 ml D. 2,000 ml ✔ D. 2,000 ml The following statements about compartment syndrome are correct EXCEPT for: A. Can be caused by burns, external compression and crushing injury B. Pain from compartment syndrome can be described as easily relieved by medication C. Can affect any extremity and the buttocks D. Can develop over a period of hours ✔ B. Pain from compartment syndrome can be described as easily relieved by medication The vertebrae are stabilized by both: A. Fat and connective tissue B. Spinal cord and nerves C. Cranial plate and foramen magnum D. Ligaments and muscles ✔ D. Ligaments and muscles Nerve roots occasionally converge in a cluster called a _____________. A. Plexus B. Foramen C. Nerve root base D. Ligaments ✔ A. Plexus Test the patient's ability to perceive various types of sensation with their eyes _______________. A. Closed B. Open C. Focused on you, the provider D. Focused on a pen light ✔ A. Closed Which of the following is NOT an example of incomplete spinal cord syndromes? A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities B. Hyperflexion of the neck and flexed extremities C. Hyperextension of the neck and clenched extremities D. Hyperflexion of the neck and extension of the upper extremities ✔ A. Hyperextension of the neck and stiff, extended extremities You are caring for a patient who has sustained a significant head injury. During a routine neurologic assessment, you pay close attention to the patient's GCS. During the examination, you note that the previous GCS score was 13 and now it is 9. Based on this finding, you might suspect which of the following? A. This is a normal response. B. You have calculated the GCS incorrectly. C. The intracranial pressure is increasing. D. Hypertension is increasing. ✔ C. The intracranial pressure is increasing Which of the following is most consistent with a pathology of upper gastrointestinal bleeding? A. Dark, melanotic stool B. Dark stool with bright red blood C. Passage of blood clots per rectum D. Hematochezia ✔ A. Dark, melanotic stool A standard and key assessment of the critical care musculoskeletal system is: A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity B. Measuring compartment pressures C. Checking for hepato-jugular reflux D. Auscultation of a popliteal bruit ✔ A. Checking for neurovascular status of each extremity Which of the following is associated with assessment prior to an inter-facility transport? A. Frequently, there is little information available. B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. C. Report is received from Emergency Medical Services (EMS). D. There is no need for a thorough equipment check. ✔ B. Requires knowledge of anticipated transport time to differentiate "need to know" from "helpful to know" information. You have a 25-year-old male patient who was involved in a motorcycle crash. He has absent lungs sounds on the right. What other sign would you expect to find if you were considering a tension pneumothorax? A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Muffled Heart Tones ✔ C. Hypotension What is the biggest threat to your patient who is in a shock state? A. Hypoxia B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypertension D. Adrenal Insufficiency ✔ A. Hypoxia You suspect your multi-system trauma patient is in the Compensatory Stage of Shock. Which of the following answer options would not support your suspicion? A. Heart rate Increases B. Respiratory rate increases C. MAP increases D. Altered renal status ✔ D. Altered renal status A 48-year-old male suffered multi-system trauma after an automobile accident. Physical Exam revealed decreased heart tones, JVD and hypotension. What is the appropriate immediate intervention for this condition? A. Pericardiocentesis B. Needle decompression C. Chest tube insertion D. ET Intubation ✔ A. Pericardiocentesis One of the most important INITIAL interventions in General Shock Management is _____. A. Obtain IV Access B. Stop any major bleeding C. Use the PASG D. Obtain a 12 Lead ECG ✔ B. Stop any major bleeding What causes hypotension in neurogenic shock? A. Loss of fluid B. Decreased contractility in the heart C. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance D. Decreased heart rate ✔ C. Decrease in systemic vascular resistance You have a 68 year- old diabetic patient who is complaining of general weakness and shortness of breath. Upon exam you determine the patient is hypotensive, diaphoretic, tachycardic with pulmonary edema. What type of shock are you suspecting? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Septic ✔ B. Cardiogenic What is the first line pharmacologic treatment for the patient suffering from an anaphylactic reaction? A. Diphenhydramine B. Decadron C. Albuterol D. Epinephrine ✔ D. Epinephrine The quickSOFA (qSOFA) score is a diagnostic tool used to help diagnosis Sepsis in your patient's. Which of these would NOT qualify as warning signs of a Sepsis patient: A. Altered Mental Status B. Respiratory Rate 28 C. Heart Rate 104 D. Systolic BP 86